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Intro to Biochem with Dr.Murphy

by: Pooja Sheth

Intro to Biochem with Dr.Murphy 694:301

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Pooja Sheth

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These are the practice questions that might show up on his exams.
Intro to Biochemistry
Kyle Murphy
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This 33 page Bundle was uploaded by Pooja Sheth on Wednesday October 5, 2016. The Bundle belongs to 694:301 at Rutgers University taught by Kyle Murphy in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 15 views.


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Date Created: 10/05/16
PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview Quick-Assessment Review BIO Instructions BIO Go to : http:// This assessment is worth 30 points. 1. The instructions for each organism's growth, development, and reproduction are encoded in _____. (1 point) a. DNA b. RNA c. proteins d. cytoplasm e. lipids 2. A constant source of _______ is required for maintenance of a cell's ordered state. (1 point) a. heat b. oxygen c. energy d. stimulus e. water 3. Which of the following is not directly involved in genetic information flow? (1 point) a. Replication b. Translocation c. Translation PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview d. Replication e. Reductionism 4. Prokaryotic cells tack which of the following? (1 point) a. Cell wall b. Cell membrane c. Nucleus d. Cytoplasm e. DNA 5. Which of the following terms or conditions refer to some species of Archaea? (1 point) a. Extremozymes b. High salt concentration c. Multicellularity d. Low temperature e. Extremozymes 6. Terms of processes associated with viruses include all of the following except: (1 point) a. Agents of genetic change b. Infectious diseases c. Bacteriophage d. Transduction e. None of the above 7. Which of the following is not an advantage of multicellular organisms over unicellular ones? (1 point) PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview a. The cells of multicellular organisms have a relatively stable environment. b. The cells of multicellular organisms have a division of labor. c. The cells of multicellular organisms have specialized functions. d. Multicellular organisms are capable of exploiting the environment more effectively than unicellular organisms. e. Multicellular organisms are all capable of large scale movement. 8. Which of the following classes of compounds make up most of the mass of an organism? (1 point) a. Amino acids b. Proteins c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates e. Water 9. The chemical properties of organic molecules are determined by specific arrangements of atoms called _______. (1 point) a. structure b. bonds c. functional groups d. radicals e. molecules 10. The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds? CH 3H CH2COO2 (1 point) a. Hydrocarbon PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview b. Acid c. Alcohol d. Aldehyde e. Ketone 11. The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds? CH 3H C2 CO2CH CH 2 3 (1 point) a. Hydrocarbon b. Acid c. Ester d. Ether e. Aldehyde 12. The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds? CH 3H C2(NH )CO2H (1 point) a. Amine b. Acid c. Ester d. Amino acid e. Alcohol 13. Consider the following molecule. Which arrow is pointing to a peptide bond? (1 point) PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 14. Which of the following classes of biomolecules are the most abundant in nature? (1 point) a. Lipids b. Amino acids c. Carbohydrates d. Proteins e. Nucleotides 15. All of the following classes of compounds are lipids except _______. (1 point) a. fats b. steroids c. fatty acids d. phosphoglycerides e. nucleotides 16. The largest molecules in living organisms are _______. (1 point) a. proteins b. lipids c. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview e. steroids 17. Which of the following is not a component of a nucleic acid? (1 point) a. Nucleotides b. Glucose c. Phosphate group d. Purines e. Pyrimidines 18. The following is an example of which reaction class? CH CH OH CH CHO + H O 3 2 3 2 (1 point) a. Substitution b. Elimination c. Addition d. Isomerization e. Oxidation/Reduction 19. The following is an example of which reaction class? HOOCCH-CHCOOH + H O 2 HOOCCH CH2OH)COOH (1 point) a. Substitution b. Elimination c. Addition d. Isomerization e. Oxidation/Reduction 20. The following is an example of which reaction class? PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview CH Br + HSCH CH(NH )COOH CH SCH CH(NH )COOH + Br + H – + 3 2 2 3 2 2 (1 point) a. Substitution b. Elimination c. Addition d. Isomerization e. Oxidation/Reduction 21. The ultimate source of energy for life on earth is _______. (1 point) a. the sun b. geothermal heat c. carbohydrates d. fats e. other organisms 22. One of the principal methods that organisms use to obtain energy from chemical bonds is by _______. (1 point) a. substitution reactions b. dehydration reactions c. oxidation/reduction reactions d. hydration reactions e. addition reactions 23. Biochemistry is defined as _______. (1 point) a. the study of life processes b. studies of the molecular basis of life PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview c. the study of living organisms d. the study of organic compounds in living organisms e. the study of living compounds 24. Which of the following is not a waste product of living organisms? (1 point) a. Carbon dioxide b. Water c. Urea d. Ammonia e. Glycine 25. Which of the following is not an important ion found in living organisms? (1 point) a. Na + + b. K ++ c. Mg d. Ba ++ e. CI– 26. Metabolism is best defined as the _______. (1 point) a. reactions of living cells b. reactions that synthesize large molecules in living cells c. reactions that grade molecules in living cells d. conversion of food molecules to energy e. reactions that synthesize and degrade molecules in living cells. PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview 27. Which of the following is not a role played by carbohydrates in living cells? (1 point) a. Energy source b. Structural support c. Intercellular communication d. Both A and B are correct. e. None of the above are correct. 28. Which of the following is not an organelle? (1 point) a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast c. Nucleus d. Cell membrane e. Golgi complex 29. Which of the following is the basic structural unit of living organisms? (1 point) a. Nucleus b. Cell membrane c. Tissue d. Cell e. Cytoskeleton 30. Which of the following is not a common component of biomolecules? (1 point) a. Carbon b. Hydrogen PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview c. Oxygen d. Nitrogen e. Chlorine Portions copyright ©2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies. Any use is subject to the Terms of Use and Privacy Policy. McGraw-Hill Higher Education is one of the many fine businesses of The McGraw-Hill Companies. PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview Quick-Assessment Review BIO Instructions BIO Go to : http:// This assessment is worth 30 points. 1. During exocytosis membrane-bound vesicles migrate from the Golgi apparatus to the ___________. (1 point) a. lysosome b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. plasma membrane d. plasma membrane e. More than one answer is correct. 2. Notable features of eukaryotes include all of the following except _______. (1 point) a. rapid cell division b. larger size c. a complex internal structure d. a diverse set of genetic mechanisms e. organelles 3. Gram-negative bacteria lack _______. (1 point) a. cell walls b. peptidoglycans in the cell wall c. an outer coat of lipid bound proteins PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview d. DNA e. carbohydrate-containing polymers in the cell wall 4. The plasma membrane _______. (1 point) a. provides support b. is present only in eukaryotes c. controls the flow of substances in and out of the cell d. is present only in prokaryotes e. Both A and C are correct. 5. Terms associated with abiogenesis research include all of the following except _______. (1 point) a. Primordial soup b. Protocells c. RNAworld d. Chromosome e. None of the above is correct. 6. The grainy appearance of prokaryotic cytoplasm is due in part to _______. (1 point) a. a large number of ribosomes b. plasmids c. nucleolus d. DNA e. RNA 7. Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? (1 point) PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview a. Support b. Selective permeability c. Protein synthesis d. Conduction of nerve impulses e. Communication between cells 8. The basic structure of biological membranes is provided by what class of compounds? (1 point) a. Proteins b. Lipids c. Carbohydrates d. Steroids e. Peptidoglycans 9. Which of the following is not true of the nucleus? (1 point) a. It is found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. b. It contains the cell's "genetic blueprint". c. It exerts a profound influence over all cellular metabolic functions. d. It contains chromatin fibers. e. It is bounded by membrane. 10. Which of the following statements is not true of the endoplasmic reticulum? (1 point) a. It often constitutes more than half of the cell's total membrane. b. It exists in two forms: rough and smooth. c. Rough ER is responsible for protein synthesis. PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview d. Smooth ER is responsible for lipid synthesis. e. Rough ER ribosomes are responsible for biotransformation. 11. Which of the following is not true of eukaryotic ribosomes? (1 point) a. They are small organelles. b. They function in the biosynthesis of proteins. c. They contain ribosomal RNA. d. They consist of two unequally sized subunits. e. They are attached to the smooth ER. 12. Which of the following statements is not true of the Golgi apparatus? (1 point) a. The analogous plant structure is referred to as a dictyosome. b. It has two faces. c. The cisterna or forming face usually projects toward the ER. d. It is involved in the packaging and secretion of cell products. e. It is usually located near the cell membrane. 13. Which of the following statements is not true of the lysosome? (1 point) a. It functions in intercellular digestion. b. Both ER and Golgi apparatus are involved in its formation. c. It is capable of degrading most biomolecules. d. It is involved in the packaging and secretion of cell products. e. It is involved in pathological conditions such as gout and rheumatoid arthritis. 14. Acid hydrolases are found in _______. (1 point) PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview a. ribosomes b. lysosomes c. golgi apparatus d. dictyosomes e. smooth ER 15. The main role of peroxisomes is _______. (1 point) a. anaerobic respiration b. aerobic respiration c. lipid oxidation d. generation and destruction of peroxides e. carbohydrate oxidation 16. Glyoxysomes are a type of __________ found in germinating seeds. (1 point) a. lysosome b. mitochondria c. peroxisome d. ribosomes e. golgi apparatus 17. Which of the following organelles is involved in aerobic metabolism? (1 point) a. Mitochondria b. Peroxisomes c. Glyoxysomes PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview d. Ribosomes e. Lysosomes 18. Respiratory assemblies are responsible for the synthesis of __________. (1 point) a. ATP b. NADH c. GTP d. hydrogen peroxide e. ADP 19. The two membranes of the mitochondria create two separate compartments called the intermembrane space and the __________. (1 point) a. cristae b. matrix c. lumen d. cisternae e. vesicle 20. Which of the following statements is not true of the mitochondrial matrix? (1 point) a. It contains enzymes responsible for nucleotide metabolism. b. It contains circular DNA molecules. c. It contains all of the necessary compounds for protein synthesis. d. It has a gel-like consistency. e. It has a high concentration of enzymes and ions. 21. Which of the following is not considered to be evidence supporting the endosymbiotic hypothesis? PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview (1 point) a. The ribosomes of mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size and function to those of prokaryotes. b. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size to many modern prokaryotes. c. Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce by binary fission, as do bacteria. d. Many modern organisms contain intracellular symbiotic organisms. e. None of the above are correct. 22. Plastids are plant structures similar to what organelle found in animals? (1 point) a. Ribosomes b. Leucoplasts c. Golgi apparatus d. Peroxisomes e. None of the above is correct. 23. The stroma of plastids is analogous to what structure of mitochondria? (1 point) a. Grana b. Matrix c. Inner membrane d. Outer membrane e. Cisternal space 24. Which of the following is not a component of the cytoskeleton? (1 point) a. Microtubules b. Microfilaments c. Intermediate fibers PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview d. B and C are correct e. None of the above are correct. 25. Mitochondria and _______ consume molecular oxygen. (1 point) a. plastids b. ribosomes c. peroxisomes d. lysosome e. golgi apparatus 26. Which of the following is present only in prokaryotic cells? (1 point) a. Nucleus b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Plasma membrane d. Nucleolus e. None of the above is correct. 27. Biotransformation may be defined as: (1 point) a. The preparation of water-insoluble substances for excretion. b. Oxidation of organic molecules. c. Transformation of food molecules to ATP. d. Reactions occurring within a living system. e. Conversion of harmless compounds to toxins. 28. In place of a nucleus a prokaryotic cell has a _______. (1 point) PageOut® Quick-Assessment Preview a. mesosome b. nucleoid c. centrosome d. nucleosome e. reticulosome 29. Which of the following eukaryotic organelles is not thought to have arisen by endosymbiosis? (1 point) a. Mitochondria b. Flagella c. Chloroplasts d. Cilia e. Ribosomes 30. Which of the following is not a role of transmembrane proteins? (1 point) a. Transport of ions b. Structural support c. Transport of nutrients d. Receptors e. Enzymes Portions copyright ©2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies. Any use is subject to the Terms of Use and Privacy Policy. McGraw-Hill Higher Education is one of the many fine businesses of The McGraw-Hill Companies. 1 CHAPTER ONE  BIOCHEMISTRY: AN INTRODUCTION 1) The ultimate source of energy for life on earth is __________. Sunlight  2) Which of the following are common components of biomolecules? carbon, oxygen,  hydrogen, sulfur, phosphorous and nitrogen  3) Which of the following is the basic structural unit of living organisms? cells 5) Which of the following are roles played by carbohydrates in living cells? Energy  sources and structural elements  6) Metabolism is best defined as the _________. The acquisition and utilization of  energy, synthesis of molecules needed for cell structure and function, growth and  development, removal of waste products  7) The average life span of a species is about ________years 1 million    8) Which of the following are waste products of living organisms? CO2, H2O, NH3 9) Biochemistry is defined as the chemistry of living matter  10) One of the principal methods that organisms use to obtain energy from chemical  bonds is by ___________. Hydrolysis of ATP bonds/redox reactions  11) The following is an example of which reaction class? ­  + CH B3  +  HSCH CH(2H )COOH →2 CH SCH CH(NH )C3OH  +2 Br  +  2 Nucleophilic substitution  12 The following is an example of which reaction class HOOCCH=CHCOOH  +  H O  →   HOO2CH CH(OH)COOH 2 Addition  13)  The following is an example of which reaction class?   CH 3H OH2 →   CH CHO 3 + H O 2 Elimination  14) Which of the following are components of nucleic acid? Five carbon sugar, the  base, and the phosphate group  2 15) The largest molecules in living organisms are _________. DNA  16) All of the following classes of compounds are lipids _______. Fats (triglycerides),  phospholipids, steroids and waxes  17) Which of the following classes of biomolecules are the most abundant in nature?  Carbohydrates 18) Consider the following molecule. Which arrow is pointing to a peptide bond? C 19) The following molecule is an example of which single class of compounds? CH 3H CH2NH )COOH2carboxylic acid 20) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds? CH C3 CH2COO2H CH  est2r  3  21) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds? CH 3H CH2COO2 carboxylic acid  22) The chemical properties of organic molecules are determined by specific  arrangements of atoms called _____________. Functional groups  23) Which of the following classes of compounds make up most of the mass of an  organism? Proteins, carbs, DNA and fatty acids  24) Which of the following is a basic element of life oxygen, hydrogen, sulfur,  nitrogen, carbon, phosphorus  25) Most biomolecules can be considered to be derivatives of hydrocarbons  27) Which of the following small molecules do not form biopolymers fatty acids  28) Choose the amino acid that can function as a neurotransmitter glycine and glutamic  acid (gly + glu) 3 29) A constant source of _______ is required for maintenance of a cell’s ordered state.  Energy  30) Which of the following is true of life? Life is complex and dynamic, cellular,  organized and dynamic, adapts and evolves  31) The most abundant biomolecules found in nature are carbohydrates  32) Which of the following is not a component of DNA phosphate group, nitrogenous  base, and five carbon sugar  33) The sum total of all reactions of a organism is called metabolism  34)  Which of the following is not characteristic of an autopoietic system? Everything  not metabolism (eg: does not produce its own raw materials)  35)  The assumption that a complete understanding of a living organism can be obtained  solely by investigating all of its components is called _________. reductionism  36)  Which of the following is a core principle of systems biology? Emergence,  robustness, modularity  37)  The field of study associated with the investigation of gene expression patterns is  called: functional genomics  38)  Which of the following is an example of a macromolecule? Protein, carbohydrate,  DNA  39) Which of the following is considered a class of small biomolecule? Fatty acids,  amino acids, sugars  40)  The functional group present in the following molecule is called:  amide  41) The majority of Earth’s species belong to which of the following classifications  microorganisms/prokaryotes   42) The conversion of earths atmosphere from anerobic to aerobic was due to the  development of _________________ by cyanobacteria mitochondria  43) The largest mass extinction also known as the great dying was called the Permian  Triassic extinction event  4 44) The most prominent function of RNA is protein synthesis 45) An organisms entire set of DNA is called genome  46) The major function of carbohydrates is structure and energy  CHAPTER TWO LIVING CELLS 1) During exocytosis membrane­bound vesicles migrate from the Golgi apparatus to the  __________. cell membrane  2) Notable features of eukaryotes include all of the following: nucleus, organelles,  plasma membrane 3) Gram­negative bacteria lack _________. peptidoglycan 4) The plasma membrane _________. is a phospholipid bilayer, selectively permeable 5) Structural features that make phospholipids suited for their biological role are:  hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail  6) The grainy appearance of prokaryotic cytoplasm is due in part to ________.  ribosomes 7) Which of the following types of molecules is not hydrophilic Hydrophilic molecules,  those that possess positive or negative charges or certain relatively large numbers of electronegative oxygen or nitrogen atoms, interact easily with water. Examples of  simple hydrophilic molecules include salts such as sodium chloride and sugars such  as glucose. 8) The basic structure of biological membranes is provided by what class of compounds?  phosopholipids  9) Which of the following is true of the nucleus? a membrane­enclosed organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It contains most of the cell's genetic material, organized as  multiple long linear DNA molecules in complex with a large variety of proteins, such as histones, to form chromosomes. 10) Which of the following statements is not true of the endoplasmic reticulum?  11) Which of the following is not true of eukaryotic ribosomes? 5 12) Which of the following statements is not true of the Golgi apparatus? 13) Which of the following statements is not true of the lysosome? 14) Acid hydrolases are found in ___________. lysosomes  15) The main role of peroxisomes is _____________. generation and breakdown of  toxic molecules knowns are peroxides  16) Biological machines are derived from which class of compounds primarily proteins  17) Which of the following organelles is involved in aerobic metabolism? mitochondria  18) Respiratory assemblies are responsible for the synthesis of ATP 19) The two membranes of the mitochondria create two separate compartments called the intermembrane space and the __________. matrix  20) Which of the following statements is not true of the mitochondrial matrix? 21) The excluded volume of a cell varies between  _____  and  ______%. 20­40% 22) Plastids are plant structures similar to what organelle found in animals?  mitochondria  23) The stroma of plastids is analogous to what structure of mitochondria? matrix  24) Which of the following help make up the cytoskeleton? microtubles,  microfilaments, and intermediate filaments, and associated proteins  25) Mitochondria and _________ consume molecular oxygen. peroxisomes  26) Which of the following is present only in prokaryotic cells? plasmids, peptidoglycan in cell walls,  27) Biotransformation is defined as: converting water insoluble metabolites and  xenobiotics (foreign and potentially toxic molecules) into soluble products that can  be excreted  28) In place of a nucleus a prokaryotic cell has a __________. nucleoid that holds a  long, circular piece of DNA  29)  Which of the following eukaryotic organelles is a key regulator of apoptosis?  6 mitochondria  30)  Which of the following are roles of transmembrane proteins? regulation of passage  of moelcules in and out of the cell, signal transduction 31)  Which of the following is a membrane protein? integral proteins (channel and  carrier proteins and receptor proteins), peripheral proteins  32) Examples of eukaryotic signal molecules are: neurotransmitters, hormones,  cytokines (products of white blood cells)   33) Which of the following are phases of  the information processing mechanism?  reduction, transduction, and response  34) Which of the following are components of the endomembrane system? plasma  membrane, endoplasmic reticulum,Golgi apparatus, nucleus, and lysosomes  35) The carbohydrate coat of a cell is called the: gylcocalyx  36) The perinuclear space is: The space between the two membranes of the nuclear  envelope    37) Which of the following organelles are involved in autophagy (process to degrade  debris in a cell)? Lysosome  38) Which of the following molecules are examples of a type of eukaryotic signal  molecule type? neutrotransmitters, hormones, cytokines  39) Of the 100 approximately trillion free living cells in the human body how many are  actually human cells? 10 trillion  40) Analysis of the RNA of prokaryotes reveals that there are ______ distinct types of prokaryotes.  two: Bacteria and Archaea 41) Which of the following are microbiota: bacteria with smaller number of archeans  and fungi 42) Which of the following are techniques used by the body to protect itself against indigenous micobiota: acquiring microbes from birth, impenetrable epithelial tissue  barriers and immune system cells 7 43) Which of the following is a superorganism: multicellular organisms 44) The endocytotic cycle is the process whereby cells internalize exogenous  substances → vesicles CHAPTER THREE WATER THE MATRIX OF LIFE 1) The most important factor in the evolution of life on earth is _______. water 2) A hydrogen bond is best defined as: force of attraction between a hydrogen atom  and a small highly electronegative atom on another molecule or the same molecule 3) Which of the following compounds is capable of hydrogen bonding with like  molecules? H atom and a small electronegative atom (oxygen or nitrogen for  example FON­Florine, Oxygen, Nitrogen) 4) Which of the following is not a type of van der Waals force? VDW = class of  relatively weak, transient electrostatic interactions between permanent and/or  induced dipoles 5)  Which of the following is an example of noncovalent interactions between molecules? noncovalent = electrostatic interactions that occur between the positive nucleus of  one atom and the negative electron clouds of another nearby atom ­ weak and easily  disrupted 6) Which  of the following factors is responsible for the fact that water is a liquid at room temperature? hydrogen bonding contributes to melting point and boiling point being  extremely high 7) Which of the following properties of water promotes the relatively constant climate of  earth? high heat of vaporization and high heat capacity 8) Which of the following compounds is amphipathic?  amphipathic = biomolecules  that contain both polar and nonpolar groups 9) Which of the following is a hydronium ion? H3O+ (proton combines with a water  molecule) 10)Which of the following is the conjugate acid of the bicarbonate ion? H2CO3 8 11) Which of the following statements is true of weak acids dissolved in water? don’t  dissolve completely 12) What is the pH of a solution where the concentration of hydrogen ions is 2 x 10  ­5 molar? ph=­log[H+],  ph=4.7 13) Which of the following would not form a suitable buffer? most effective buffers  contain equal concentrations of both components or the pH is equal to pKa 14) Buffering capacity is directly proportional to which of the following factors?   concentration of the buffer components (more molecules of buffer present = more  H+ and OH­ ions can be absorbed without changing the pH) 15. The sodium acetate/acetic acid buffer is 0.1 molar in sodium acetate and 0.5 molar  in acetic acid. What is the concentration of the buffer?  The concentration of the buffer is defined as the sum of the concentration of  the weak acid and its conjugate base. 0.1+0.5 = 0.6M (pg 89) 16)  The pH of a solution that is 0.25 molar in acetic acid and 0.1 molar in sodium acetate is 4.36. What is the pKa of acetic acid? ph=pka + log ([A­]/[HA]) 4.36=pka + log  (.25/.1)  pka=3.96 17) The most important buffer in blood is __________. carbonic acid­ bicarbonate  buffer system 18) When an individual breathes very rapidly, large amounts of carbon dioxide are  exhaled. What effect does this have on blood pH? pg 94 19) Salt bridges in proteins are an example of  _________. ionic interactions (attraction of positively and negatively charged amino acid side chains) 20) What is the osmolarity of a solution that is  0.25 molar in trisodium phosphate? osmolarity = iM (4) x (0.25) = 1M i = 4 because there are 3Na+ and 1PO4­ 21) Red blood cells are isotonic to a solution that is 0.9% sodium chloride. These same  cells are _______________ to a solution that is 0.9% sodium sulfate. isotonic  22) Which of the following molecules would have a dipole moment? anything with  separated charges (dipoles)...? 9 23) Which of the following molecules would form a micelle?  amphipathic molecules  with mixed with water 24) Which of the following molecules are weak acids? anything that’s not a strong acid 25) Which of the following ions would have the largest hydration sphere? size depends  on charge density of ion (charge/ volume) 26) Hydration is best defined as noncovalent interaction of water molecules with  solutes 27) The noncovalent interaction between an amide and an alcohol would be which of the  following? Alcohol R­OH     NH2­COR hydrogen bonding 28) Crenation would result when cells are placed in a ___________ solution. hypertonic 29) Which of the following is not an important noncovalent interaction of living  organisms most important = ionic interactions, hydrogen bonds, and VDW  interactions 30) Which of the following molecules would have unusually high heat capacities?  anything that contained water? 31) The hybridization of the water molecule is: sp3 hybridized 32)  The strongest type of non covalent force is ionic interactions 33) Which of the following ions would have the strongest tendency to form an ion pair  with carboxylate groups the surface of a protein?  34) Which of the following species would form a buffer with HPO ? 42PO4­ 35) Water can form how many hydrogen bonds 2 36) Which of the following solutions will be isotonic with 3M sucrose?  37) Which of the following molecules is hydrophobic? nonpolar substances 38) In biological systems buffers usually contain an excess of  __________.conjugate  base 10 39) The tendency of nonpolar molecules to aggregate in a water medium is called  ________. hydrophobic effect 40) The high heat of fusion of water is due to  its _______________. hydrogen bonding 41) Which of the following is a role of water in the body? roles = thermal regulation,  cooling mechanism, biochemical processes 42) Which of the following species can form a buffer system The concentration of the  buffer is defined as the sum of the concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate  base 43) Which of the following are unusual properties of water that suit it to be the matrix of life? chemical stability, solvent properties, biochemical reactant, thermal  properties 44) What percentage of the world’s water is drinkable? 3% 45)  The immediate effect of deforestation is disruption of the water cycle 46) Which of the following is not an effect of hydrogen bonding on the  physical properties of water hydrogen bonding = high boiling/melting points, heat of  vaporization, heat capacity, surface tension, viscosity CHAPTER FOUR ENERGY 1) The course of chemical reactions is determined by three factors. These are enthalpy,  entropy and free energy  2) Which of the following statements is true of an open system? matter and energy are  exchanged between the system and its surroundings  3) Which of the following statements is true of a closed system? only energy can be  exchanged with the surroundings  4) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is a state function? temperature,  pressure, enthalpy, entropy, free energy  5) The first law of thermodynamics is described by which of the following equations?  11 deltaE= q + w  6) Which of the following statements is true of a spontaneous process? physical or  chemical changes that occur with the release of energy  7) Which of the following is not a standard condition for standard free energy? 25  degrees, 1 atm, solute concentrations of 1 M  8)  The ionization constant of acetic acid is 1x10 . What is G  for the reaction?  deltaG = ­RTlnKeq deltaG = (8.315J/molK)(298K)ln(1x10^5) deltaG = 27071 = 27.1kJ/mol Under the conditions specified for deltaG (i.e 1M concentrations for all  reactants including H+) the ionization of acetic acid is not spontaneous, as indicated  by the positive deltaG 9) Under standard conditions is the ionization of a carboxylic acid spontaneous or not? A  typical carboxylic acid has a pK aof 4. pKa = ­log [H+] so [H+] = 10^­4 = 1.0 x 10^­4 not sure about this one, but I found this in the book about acetic acid (an acid that  is similarly weak) “When the pH value is 7, however, the reaction becomes  spontaneous. A low [H+] makes the ionization of a weak acid such as acetic acid a  more likely process, as indicated by the negative deltaG” pg 111 10) In order for two reactions to be coupled what conditions must be met? they must  have a common intermediate  11) When water and hydrophobic molecules are mixed all of the following are true: the  molecules disrupt the water’s energetically favorable h­bonds, so there is a decrease  in entropy (delta S is negative) and free energy is unfavorable (delta G is positive)   12) The oxidation of food molecules to form CO  an2 H O is2a(n) _______ process.  Produced from ADP and Pi with energy released by the breakdown of food  molecules and the light reactions of photosynthesis, ATP drives processes of several  types. (ATP driven) (pg 115). 13)  The most important direct source of energy in the body is: ATP  14)  The law of the conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or  12 destroyed, only stay constant.  15) Which of the following is a low quality energy source Electromagnetic radiation,  electrical energy, and chemical energy are high quality energy sources whereas heat  is lower quality energy. (pg 103) 16) Which of the following statements regarding free energy changes is true? free energy is energy available to do chemical work and a measure of spontaneity of chemical  reactions, equation is: deltaG = deltaH ­ TdeltaS, when deltaG is negative, the  reaction is spontaneous (exergonic) and when it is positive, the reaction is non  spontaneous (endergonic)  17) Which of the following compounds would liberate the most free energy on  hydrolysis? ATP will release a lot of energy  18) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is the most useful criterion of  spontaneity? delta G (free energy)  19) For a reaction to be spontaneous which of the following statements must be true?  Delta G must be negative (delta H is negative and delta S is positive, or delta H a  small positive number and delta S is a large positive number, or delta H is a large  negative number and delta S is a small negative number)  20) Which of the following processes are driven by the hydrolysis of ATP? biosynthesis  of biomolecules, active transport of substances across cell membranes, mechanical  work such as muscle contractions  21) The study of reaction rates is called ___________. kinetics  22) Which of the following is described by the first law of thermodynamics total amount of energy in universe is constant, it cannot be created of destroyed.  23) Which of the following is described by the second law of thermodynamics disorder  in the universe always increases. chemical and physical processes only happen when  the disorder of the universe increases  24) What type of bond is being cleaved during the conversion of ATP to ADP?  phosphoanhydride bond  25) The tendency of ATP to undergo hydrolysis is called __________. phosphoryl  group transfer potential  13 26) The products of the hydrolysis of ATP are more stable than ATP itself. This  circumstance is due to __________. resonance stabilization  27) A living organism is what type of thermodynamic system? open systems  28) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is pathway dependent? work, heat (anything with lower case letters)  29) A Kelvin is _________. 273 degrees Celsius  30) The rate of a reaction can be determined from which of the following? As with other thermodynamic functions, deltaG provides no information about reaction rates.  Reaction rates depend on the precise mechanism by which a process occurs and are  dealt with under the study of kinetics (Chapter 6). 31) To maintain a system far from equilibrium a constant input of _______ is required.  heat  32) Systems far from equilibrium are referred to as _________ systems. dissipative  33) An organism at equilbrium is said to be __________. dead  34) The following statement is made by which law of thermodynamics? “At absolute zero the disorder of a perfect crystal approaches zero”. third law  35) A measure of a system’s internal energy is enthalpy  36) In living organisms where does the increase in entropy takes place? does not take  place in organism, organism’s surroundings increase in entropy instead  37) How many molecules of oxygen are required to completely oxidize one mole of  stearic acid  ( 17H35OOH)? C18H36O2 + 26O2 → 18CO2 + 18H2O 26 moles  38) Given the following H values calculate the H for the complete combustion of stearic  acid. H (kal/mol)                   Compound ­211.4                 C17 C35 0 Oxygen ­94 Carbon dioxide 14 ­68.4 Water 39) Magnesium ion (Mg ) forms complexes with ATP. What would happen to the  stability of ATP if the magnesium was removed? the negative charges between the  three phosphate groups would repel each other even further, leading the ATP to be  less stable  40)  Choose the molecule with the highest phosphate transfer potential. phosphorylated  compounds with high negative deltaG values of hydrolysis (ex:  phosphoenolpyruvate, carbamoyl  phosphate, glycerate­1,3­biphosphate,  phosphocreatine)  41) Biogeochemical cycles are pathways driven by which of the following? solar and  geothermal energy  42) Which of the following moves through a system in a biogeochemical cycle? carbon  (one example)  43) In classical thermodynamics which of the following is true?  44)  A Benard cell is an example of a dissipative system  45) The evolution of living organisms is driven by the size of the energy gradient to be  dissipated  46) A process is spontaneous when energy is released (deltaG is negative)


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Bentley McCaw University of Florida

"I was shooting for a perfect 4.0 GPA this semester. Having StudySoup as a study aid was critical to helping me achieve my goal...and I nailed it!"

Kyle Maynard Purdue

"When you're taking detailed notes and trying to help everyone else out in the class, it really helps you learn and understand the I made $280 on my first study guide!"

Jim McGreen Ohio University

"Knowing I can count on the Elite Notetaker in my class allows me to focus on what the professor is saying instead of just scribbling notes the whole time and falling behind."


"Their 'Elite Notetakers' are making over $1,200/month in sales by creating high quality content that helps their classmates in a time of need."

Become an Elite Notetaker and start selling your notes online!

Refund Policy


All subscriptions to StudySoup are paid in full at the time of subscribing. To change your credit card information or to cancel your subscription, go to "Edit Settings". All credit card information will be available there. If you should decide to cancel your subscription, it will continue to be valid until the next payment period, as all payments for the current period were made in advance. For special circumstances, please email


StudySoup has more than 1 million course-specific study resources to help students study smarter. If you’re having trouble finding what you’re looking for, our customer support team can help you find what you need! Feel free to contact them here:

Recurring Subscriptions: If you have canceled your recurring subscription on the day of renewal and have not downloaded any documents, you may request a refund by submitting an email to

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Please Note: Refunds can never be provided more than 30 days after the initial purchase date regardless of your activity on the site.