Mastering Biology Chapters 27, 19, 11, 12, 16,17, 18, 43
Mastering Biology Chapters 27, 19, 11, 12, 16,17, 18, 43 BIL 150
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Biology Test 2 CHAPTER 27 BACTERIA AND ARCHAEA o What is the function of a bacterial endospore To facilitate persistence in temporarily harsh enviroments 0 Some prokaryotes stick to their substrate or to one another by means of hairlike appendages each called a fimbria 0 An F bacterial cell acts as a donor during conjugation Which of the following is not one of the most common prokaryotic cell shapes Cuboidal 0 Which of the following characteristics is a reason why a Gramstain to distinguish grampositive from gram negative bacteria is an important tool in a medical diagnosis of a bacterial infection All of the listed characteristics are reasons why a Gramstain is important in medicine The outer membrane of a gramnegative bacterium helps protect it from the body s defenses The cell walls of many gramnegative bacteria are toxic Certain grampositive bacteria are resistant to antibiotics What is the structural feature of grampositive bacteria that results in their retaining a crystal violet dye stain and thereby being distinguished from gramnegative bacteria in a Gramstain technique Grampositive bacteria have thicker cell walls Bacteria that use light for their energy source and C02 for their carbon source are called photoautotrophs 0 Which of the following is nota true statement concerning bacterial agella Bacteria agella are homologous to the agella in eukaryotic cells 0 Bacteria function primarily in which ecological role Bacteria are common in all of the listed ecological roles Plasmids all replicate independently of the main chromosome are transferred from one bacterium to another by conjugation often contain antibiotic resistance genes Allow bacteria to survive adverse conditions Antibiotics administered in human medicine work against bacterial infections by interfering with an aspect of bacteria metabolism or structure that differs from that of eukaryotic cells In an experiment a microbiologist put equal numbers of each of the following organisms into a ask of sterile broth consisting mostly of sugar and a few amino acids She then placed the ask in the dark Which of the following organisms would be most likely to survive Chemoheterotrophic bacteria Choose the list below that contains the substances required by typical nitrogen xing cyanobacteria carbon dioxide nitrogen water light and some minerals Which of the following does not contribute to bacteria39s ability to evolve rapidly Sexual reproduction Why is salt a good preservative to use for foods such as pork and sh Prokaryotes cels living in the food will shrink from their cell walls impacting their ability to reproduce Which group of bacteria is unusual in that they lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls Chlamydias Which of the following statements about cyanobacteria is true Some are single cells whereas others live in lamentous colonies They are the only prokaryotes that perform plantlike oxygenic photosynthesis It can be said that nitrogen xing cyanobacteria are the most selfsufficient of all organisms Some species may carry on nitrogen xation Which subgroup of proteobacteria contains many species that are predators of other bacteria Delta Which of the following is a structure that bacteria archaea and eukaryotes have Plasma membrane What is a difference between the cell walls of prokaryotes and the cell walls of eukaryotes The cell walls of prokaryotes are made of molecules different from those comprising the cell walls of eukaryotes 0 Which of the following is a disease caused by bacteria Tuberculosis 0 Prokaryotes found inhabiting the Great Salt Lake would be extreme halophiles o Portions of the genomes of certain prokaryotic species are very similar to portions of the genomes of distantly related prokaryotes The process that most likely accounts for this genetic similarity is hotizontal gene transfer 0 What are bio lms Cooperative colonies of bacteria 0 Which of the following mechanisms isare a means of genetic recombination in prokaryotes Conjugation transduction and transformation 0 Bacterial agella have a very complex structure composed of 42 distinct proteins What is the most likely explanation for the evolution of these complex structures Exaptation 0 The Desulfovibrio bacterium breaks down organic matter which it must have and uses sulfate not oxygen as an electron acceptor As a result it produces hydrogen sul de H25 accounting for the quotrotten eggquot smell of swamp muck Oxygen is a deadly poison to Desulfovibrio We would call Desulfovibrio an obligater anaerobic chemoheterotroph 0 Acquiring an R plasmid would allow a bacterium to do what Resist antibiotics o Bacteria that are photosynthetic tend to have abundant internal membranes 0 Which subgroup of proteobacteria contains many species that are closely associated with eukaryotic hosts in mutualistic or parasitic relationships Alpha CHAPTER 19 VIRUSES Reverse transcription carried out by retroviruses is the process by which RNA information is copied into DNA Circular RNA molecules that function like a virus in plants are termed viroids Candidates for the original source of viral genomes include plasmids and trandposons Animals that harbor and can transmit a particular virus but are generally unaffected by it are said to act as a natural reservoir for that virus Why can areups of herpes virus infection recur throughout a person39s life Herpes virus can leave its DNA behind as minichromosomes in nerve cell nuclei Stress can trigger another round of virus production producing characteristic blisters and sores Prions are abnormally shaped proteins that are thought to cause disease by including similar but normally shaped proteins in the brain to adopt the abnormal form A widespread outbreak of a viral disease is called an epidemic and a global outbreak is called an pandemic How does a retrovirus like HIV enter a host cell Glycoproteins on the viral envelope bind to receptors on the host cell The viral envelope fuses with the host cell s plasma membrane facilitating uptake of the virus by the host cell The phage reproductive cycle that kills the bacterial host cell is a lytic cycle and a phage that always reproduces this way is a virulent phage Viruses can vary with respect to all of the following characteristics except the presence or absence of metabolic machinery Which of the following statements correctly describes one difference between virulent phages and temperate phages Virulent phages replicate through the lytic cycle only and temperate phage replicate using both the lytic and the Iysogenic cycles How does a retrovirus like HIV enter a host cell Glycoproteins on the viral envelope bind to receptors on the host cell The viral envelope fuses with the host cell s plasma membrane facilitating uptake of the virus by the host cell Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission of a virus in plants An infected plant produces seeds that contain the virus giving rise to infected progeny How do prions propagate and replicate themselves Prions convert normal proteins into the misfolded prion version Class IV viruses are characterized by which of the following types of genomes Singlestranded RNA that serves as mRNA Why are viruses often considered to be no living Viruses do not carry out metabolic processes a primary characteristic of living organisms When comparing DNA and RNA viruses which mutate more quickly and why RNA viruses because no proofreading is done on RNA molecules HIV the virus that causes AIDS only infects certain cells within the immune system This is because the virus bind to speci c receptors that are present only on certain immune cells Some viruses have membranous envelopes Where do viral envelopes typically originate from Membranes form the host cell Restriction enzymes help defend bacteria against viral infections by cutting viral DNA once it has entered the cell How are retroviruses different from other types of viruses Retroviruses use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to transcribe a copy of DNA from their own RNA Which of the following events occurs during the lytic life cycle of phages The host cell usually dies releasing many new copies of the virus Which of the following is nota class I virus Parvovirus A phage that inserts itself into the host DNA is called lysogenic When a virus infects an E coli cell what part of the virus enters the bacterial cytoplasm Only the nuclei acid Vaccines for viral diseases are harmless derivatives of pathogenic viruses and help prevent infection by stimulating the immune system to mount a defense against the actual pathogen The avian u virus H5N1 is considered a greater long term threat than the swine u virus H1N1 because it has a signi cantly higher mortality rate Viruses that infect bacteria are called bacteriophages Viral DNA incorporated into a bacterial chromosome is known as a prophage Genomes of viruses may consist of which of the following types of nucleic acids Doublestranded DNA doublestranded RNA singlestranded RNA singlestranded DNA CHAPTER 11 CELL COMMUNICATION How is nitric oxide different from other signal molecules It s a gas The stage of cell signaling in which a chemical signal is quotdetectedquot when the signaling molecule binds to a receptor protein located at the cell39s surface is called reception Second messengers tend to be watersoluble and small This accounts for their ability to rapidly move throughout the cell by diffusion What happens during the process of paracrine signaling Numerous cells simultaneously receive and respond to the molecules of growth factor produced by a single cell in their vicinity How does adenylyl cyclase help transmit signals within a cell It converts ATP to cAMP which then broadcasts the signal to the rest of the cell What did Sutherland discover about glycogen metabolism in liver cells The hormone epinephrine binds to a speci c receptor on the plasma membrane of the liver cell What effect does ligand binding have on receptor tyrosine kinase proteins Ligand binding causes them to phosphorylate and form dimers A G protein is active when GTP is bound to it Which of the following statements best describes the process of hormonal signaling Specialized cells released hormone molecules which travel via circulatory system to other parts of the body where they reach target cells that can recognize and respond to the hormones Gproteinlinked receptors are not enzymes whereas receptor tyrosine kinases have enzymatic function A small molecule that speci cally binds to a larger molecule is called an ligand Which of the following statements describes the function of inositol trisphosphate IP3 as a second messenger lnositol triphosphate binds to and lP3gated calcium channel causing the release of calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum The stage of cell signaling in which the signal is converted to a form that can bring about a response in the cell is called transduction After a signaling molecule binds to a G proteincoupled receptor what activates the associated G protein GTP displaces GDP on the G protein Ras a small G protein located at the plasma membrane is often mutated in different types of cancer Ras normally signals to a cell that it should divide Cancer cells divide uncontrollably Which of the following changes to Ras would you expect to see in a cancer cell that has mutated Ras present A mutation than means Ras cannot hydrolyze GTP to GDP Testosterone and estrogen are lipidsoluble signal molecules that cross the plasma membrane by simple diffusion If these molecules can enter all cells why do only speci c cells respond to their presence Nontarget cells lack the intracellular receptors that when activated by the signal molecule can interact with genes in the cell s nucleus Certain yeast cells secrete a molecule called the facton The purpose of this molecule is to stimulates an a yeast cell to grow toward the cell In a phosphorylation cascade protein kinanes phosphorylate proteins and protein phosphates dephosphorylate them Evidence that cell signaling evolved early in the history of life comes from the similarity of the mechanism in organisms that have a very distant common ancestor IP3 inositol trisphosphate is produced as a result of the cleavage of a certain kind of phospholipid in the plasma membrane In which part of cell are calcium ions usually found Endoplasmic reticulum Which of the following statements describes what happens to cells undergoing apoptosis Cell shrink and form lobes which are evenctually shed as membrane fragments When a platelet contacts a damaged blood vessel it is stimulated to release thromboxane A2 Thromboxane A2 in turn stimulates vascular spasm and attracts additional platelets to the injured site In this example thromboxane A2 is acting as a local regulator Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because they amplify the original signal manyfold Why does testosterone not affect all cells in the body Only certain cells have cytoplasmic receptors for testosterone In liver cells epinephrine stimulates the breakdown of glycogen As the signaltransduction pathway progresses the signal is ampli ed A difference between the mechanisms of cAMP and Ca2 in signal transduction is that cAMP is synthetized by an enzyme in response to a signal and Ca2 is released from intracellular stores cAMP usually directly activates protein kinase A The process of phosphorylation is very important as a cellular mechanism for regulating protein activity Phosphorylation does this by activating or inactivating proteins What is the general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to other molecules Protein Kinase CHAPTER 12 THE CELL CYCLE Which of the following events occurs during telophase of mitosis Two distinct daughter nuclei form in the cell Which of the following events does not occur during interphase of the cell cycle Separation of the sister chromatids You would know a dividing cell was a plant cell rather than an animal cell if you saw that it had formed a cell plate DNA replication occurs in the S phase of interphase in both somatic and reproductive cells Checkpoints in the cell cycle control system regulates the cell cycle through a variety of stop and go signals The spread of cancer cells to other locations in the body is known as metastasis Which of the following events occurs during prometaphase of mitosis The nuclear envelope fragments Which of the following phases of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prometaphase in terms of the nuclear envelope Telophase Which event or events occur during anaphase The centrioles are opposite poles the centromeres divide identical chromatids move to opposite poles a spindle made of microtubules is present Which of the following events occurs during anaphase of mitosis The sisters chromatids are pulled apart toward opposite sides of the cell During interphase the genetic material of a typical eukaryotic cell is dispersed in the nucleus as long strands of chromatin Which of the following statements correctly describes the differences between mitosis and binary ssion Binary ssion involves the replication and division of a single chromosome whereas mitosis involves the division of multiple replicated chromosomes During binary ssion in a bacterium the origins of replication move apart The complex of DNA and protein that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome is properly called chromatin Which of the following statements describes a cell that undergoes mitosis but not cytokinesis The cell contains more than one nucleus How many chromatids does a human somatic cell contain after interphase and just prior to mitosis 92 The region of a chromosome holding the two double strands of replicated DNA together is called a centromere The function of the mitotic cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell assuming no mutation has occurred Which of the following structures isare part of the mitotic spindle Kinetochore microtubules the aster nonkinetochore microtubules and centrosome A cell contains 40 chromatids at the beginning of mitosis How many chromosomes will it contain at the completion of cytokinesis 20 Which of the following events does not occur during prophase of mitosis The mitotic spindle breaks down What is the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor Cells of benign tumors do not metastasize those of malignant tumors do Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells do not exhibit densitydependent inhibition Chromatids are identical copies of each other if they are apart of the same chromosome In animal cell mitosis the cleavage furrow forms during which stage of the cell cycle Cytokinesis A cell biologist examined the DNA content of a cell from a fruit y larva during the G1 phase and determined that it had 150 units of DNA After measuring the DNA content of the same type of cell after the G2 phase it was discovered that the cell had 300 units of DNA How is this possible The DNA was replicated during the S phase of interphase which occurs between the two G phases 0 How does the process of mitosis differ between most eukaryotes and other eukaryotes such as diatoms and dino agellates The nuclear envelope fragment in most eukaryotes but remains intact in diatoms and dino agellates Which of the following events occurs during metaphase of mitosis The chromosomes align along the metaphase plate of the cell 0 One event occurring during prophase is the beginning of the formation of a spindle apparatus 0 Cytokinesis refers to the division of the cytoplasm CHAPTER 16 The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 0 Telomeres are repeating noncoding sequences at the ends of linear eukaryotic chromosomes 0 One strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence 539 ATAGGT339 The complementary base sequence on the other strand of DNA will be 339TATCCA539 A virus that infects bacteria is called a bacteriophage which is made up of the macromolecules DNA and protein 0 Which description of DNA replication is correct Helicases separate the two strands of the double helix and DNA polymerases then construct two new strands using each of the original strands as templates 0 Chargaff analyzed DNA and found that the numbers of adenine molecules is approximately equal to the numbers of thymine molecules and that the numbers of guanine molecules is approximately equal to the numbers of cytosine molecules 0 The role of DNA polymerases in DNA replication is to attach free nucleotides to the new DNA strand 0 Who is credited with explaining the structure of the DNA double helix Watson and Crick Xray diffraction images produced by Franklin showed that DNA is a double helix DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3 end of the leading strands and to the 3 end of the lagging strands Okazaki fragments In the famous Hershey and Chase quotblender experimentquot radioactive sulfur was used to label protein and radioactive phosphorus was used to label DNA demonstrating that the genetic material of a bacteriophage is DNA The two sugarphosphate strands that form the rungs of a DNA double helix are joined to each other through hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases Evidence to support that DNA strands run antiparallel to each other includes all of the following exceptthat the sugarphosphate backbones are to the inside of the molecule Proteins that are involved in packaging the eukaryotic chromosome into quotbeadsquot called nucleosomes are histones Why were many of the early experiments on DNA carried out on viruses and bacteria They have short generation times They can interact with each other They have relatively small genomes Their chromosomes have a simpler structure The 539 end of a DNA strand always has a free phosphate group while the 339 end always has a free hydroxyl group Grif th showed that dead pathogenic cells transforms living nonpathogenic cells into living pathogenic cells In DNA the two purines are adenine and guanine and the two pyrimidines are thymine and cytosine In DNA replication the next nucleotide is incorporated into the growing polymer at the 3 hydroxyl end of the molecule by an enzyme called DNA polymerase The information in DNA is contained in the sequence of nucleotides along the length of the two strands of the DNA molecule What is the major difference between bacterial chromosomes and eukaryotic chromosomes Bacteria have a single circular chromosome whereas eukaryotes have several linear chromosomes The overall error rate in the completed DNA molecule is approximately 1 error per 10000000 nucleotides Replication of the lagging strand of DNA is accomplished by repeatedly making short RNA primers followed by 1000 2000 nucleotide segments called Okazaki fragments DNA replication begins at a site called the origin of replication forming a bubble which is followed by a replication fork where parental strands are unwound by heHcases In bacterial DNA replication of the lagging strand DNA polymerase III is required for the synthesis of a new DNA strand whereas DNA polymerase I is required for removing the RNA primer and replacing it with DNA nucleotides The unwinding of DNA at the replication fork causes twisting and strain in the DNA ahead of the fork which is relieved by an enzyme called topoisomerase When thymidine dimers form after an exposure to ultraviolet UV light a nucleotide excision repair enzime can remove the damaged nucleotides and replace them with normal nucleotides The experiments of Meselson and Stahl showed that DNA replicates in semiconservative fashion Of the three alternative models of DNA replication which are the conservative semiconservative and dispersive models the one that explains how DNA replicates is the semiconservative model In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample which result would be consistent with the base pairing rules A G C T Which of the following components is required for DNA replication RNA primer CHAPTER 17 THE GENE EXPRESSION Translation is the synthesis of a polypeptide using information in the mRNA The function of tRNA during protein synthesis is to deliver amino acids to their proper site during protein synthesis Polysomes may be de ned as group of ribosomes Transcription is the synthesis of RNA using information in the DNA What is a key difference in gene expression between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells In prokaryotic cells the mRNA transcript is immediately available as mRNA without processing The structures called snRNPs are part of a spliceosome Who formulated the one geneone enzyme hypothesis Beadle and Tatum Genetic information of eukaryotic cells is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in the form of RNA The quottriplet codequot refers to the fact that three nucleotides code for a single amino acid Gene expression is the process by which DNA directs the synthesis of proteins What is the proper order of the following events in the expression of a eukaryotic gene Transcription RNA processing translation modi cation of protein How many nucleotides are needed to code for a protein with 450 amino acids At least 1350 Which of the following is a posttranslational modi cation of a polypeptide Cleavage of a polypeptide into two or more chains An exception to the one geneone enzyme hypothesis is that not all genes code for enzymes some genes code for structural proteins such as keratin One strand of a DNA molecule has the following sequence 3AGTACAAACTATCCACCGTC5 In order for transcription to occur in that strand there would have to be a speci c recognition sequence called a promoter to the left of the DNA sequence indicated The type of point mutation that results in a premature stop codon is called a nonsense mutation Because the bacterial cell39s DNA is not surrounded by a nuclear envelope coupled transcription and translation occurs Eukaryotic processing of the primary transcript includes the addition of a 539 cap a 339 polyA tail and the splicing out of introns In eukaryotic cells a signal peptide by a signalrecognition particle targets a growing peptide to the endoplasmic reticulum The bonds that hold tRNA molecules in the correct three dimensional shape are hydrogen bonds Bacteria can transcribe and translate human genes to produce functional human proteins because the genetic code is nearly universal Which of the following catalyzes the linkage between ribonucleotides to form RNA during gene expression RNA polymerase Stop codons are unique because they do not code for amino acids that allow a releasing factor to bind to the A site of the ribosome The TATA box is a and that allows for the binding of Which of the following best describes the arrangement of genetic information in a DNA molecule The three nucleotide words of a gene are arranged in a nonoverlapping series on the DNA template strand The sicklecell Bglobin mutation is an example of a missense mutation Insertions and deletions are called frameshift mutations When RNA is being made the RNA base U always pairs with the base A in DNA RNA molecules that function as enzymes are called rybozomes By bombarding the fungus Neurospora crassa with Xrays Beadle and Tatum were able to study nutritional mutants and characterize enzymes in a biochemical pathway CHAPTER 18 Regulation of Gene Expresion In general operons that encode the enzymes of a biosynthetic anabolic pathway such as the trp operon are repressive and those encoding the enzymes of a catabolic pathway such as the lac operon are inducible Both repressible and inducible operons control gene expression at the level of transcription Which of the following best describes the makeup of the human genome Genes for noncoding RNA make up the majority of meaningful genetic information in the human genome Small noncoding RNAs ncRNAs called piwiinteracting RNAs or piRNAs induce the formation of heterochromatin and block the expression of movable DNA elements called transposons In addition to a promoter eukaryotic genes have control elements called proximal control elements and distal enhancers What gene has been called the quotguardian angel of the genomequot p53 MicroRNAs binding to complementary sequences on an mRNA results in either blocking translation or degrading the targeted mRNA Speci c cells that appear undifferentiated under the microscope but are already fated to become muscle cells are called myoblast Chemotherapeutic treatment for breast cancer depends on the absence or overexpression of the ERa PR and HER2 genes In the trp tryptophan operon the repressor protein binds to the product of the trp operon synthesis pathway called tryptophan forming the active corespressor In prokaryotic genomes groups of functionally related genes along with their promoters and operators are found together in an operon The trp tryptophan operon is an example of a repressible operon The lac operon is an example of an inducible operon Gene expression in bacteria is regulated primarily by controlling the transcription of genes into mRNA In a eukaryote activating transcription factors may stimulate gene expression by binding to a DNA site called an enhacer In Drosophila development pattern development in the late embryo larva and adult is controlled by homeotic genes A cancer cell does not respond to the chemical signals that control cell division Although the number of genes in the human genome is surprisingly low compared to less complex organisms the number of possible products from those genes is greatly ampli ed by alternate arrangements of exons from a primary transcript Cytoplasmic determinants are RNAs proteins and other substances produced by the mother and deposited in the egg The control of gene expression is more complex in multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because in a multicellular eukaryote different cells are specialized for different functions In eukaryotes histone acetylation promotes transcription In addition to a promoter eukaryotic genes have control elements called Posttranscriptional processing of a premRNA allows for differential cell expression by a process called alternative splicing What is the role of proteasomes They are giant protein complexes that recognize ubiquitin and degrade the tagged proteins What two genes are often mutated in colon cancer Ras and p53 In an inducible operon the inducer is often the subtrate in the pathway being regulated the inducer binds to the thusrende ngit MyoD promotes muscle cell development by turning on the expression of multiple musclerelated genes In addition to a promoter eukaryotic genes have control elements called proximal control elements and distal enhancers Cell typespeci c transcription is accomplished by speci c enhancer control elements interacting with cell typespeci c transcription factors Cytoplasmic determinants are RNAs proteins and other substances produced by the mother and deposited in the egg In the lac operon the inducer is allolactose the isomer of lactose CHAPTER 43 Immune Svstem Why is the development and distribution of a new u vaccine required every year The in uenza virus undergoes frequent mutations and evolves rapidly Histamine is an important signaling molecule in the immune system that directly triggers blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable Which of the following cells are part of the innate second line of defense Macrophages Passive immunity differs from active immunity in that passive immunity is conferred by antibodies produced by another individual Antibodies belong to which class of proteins Receptor Which of the following cell types carries out humoral immunity B cells Which of the following is nota characteristic of innate immunity It is present only in vertebrates In insects which of the following is analogous to mammalian epithelial tissue in that it serves as a rst line of defense against infection A chitinous exoskeleton In a series of immune system experiments the thymus glands were removed from baby mice Which of the following would you predict as a likely result The mice readily accepted tissue transplants Which of the following functions of plasmacell secreted antibodies promotes phagocytosis of foreign bacteria Opsonization Our immune system does not usually attack our own healthy tissues because lymphocytes that target quotselfquot tissue are destroyed or rendered nonfunctional The proliferation of the B lymphocyte to which a speci c antigen binds is referred to as clonal selection Lysozyme plays a role in immunity through breaking down bacteria cell walls Who is credited with performing the rst documented immunization Edward Jenner Herpes simplex viruses such as those that cause cold sores can evade the immune system and persist in the body by infecting cells and then entering a largely inactive state Which of the following is nota disease caused by actions of the immune system Rheumatoid arthritis lupus ulcerative colitis crohn s disease Which of the following cells does not play a role in immunity through the phagocytosis of pathogens Natural killer cells Which of the following is a speci c mechanism by which antibodies function in immunity Opsonization of bacteria activation of complement system neutralization of viruses recruitment of natural killer cells to destroy virusinfected body cells What role do major histocompatibility complex MHC molecules play in immunity Presenting antigens to T cells Vaccination led to the eradication of the disease smallpox The idea behind vaccination is to induce the primary immune response without requiring the vaccinated individual to get sick B lymphocytes multiply and make antibodies that circulate in blood and lymph Which of the following classes of immunoglobins crosses the placenta and confers passive immunity to the fetus lgG Which of the following organisms would produce antibodies as part of an immune response Whale In humans the rst line of defense against infection is the skin and mucous membranes When searching for a donor for an organ transplant doctors try to match the MHC proteins of the donor and recipient as closely as possible Someone infected by chicken pox as a child is unlikely to suffer from this disease a second time This is due to immunological memory a reservoir of what type of cells that were generated following the initial exposure Both T and B cells Besides helper T cells what are two other types of cells that HIV infects Macrophages and brain cells Which statement describes what would most likely happen to microbes in the blood They are phagocytosed by macrophages in the spleen Anaphylactic shock is a lifethreatening condition in which in ammatory chemicals released from mast cells lead to an inability to breathe and a lack of blood ow
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