STUDY GUIDE test 3
STUDY GUIDE test 3 BIOL 2510 - 012
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This 14 page Study Guide was uploaded by Laura Nall on Thursday April 7, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to BIOL 2510 - 012 at Auburn University taught by Jeffrey Goessling in Winter 2016. Since its upload, it has received 152 views. For similar materials see Human Anatomy and Physiology II in Biology at Auburn University.
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Date Created: 04/07/16
BIOL 2510 Study Guide Male Reproductive system 1. Primary sex organs are also known as ________. a. Gonads 2. What are the male and female primary sex organs known as and what do they produce? a. Male = testes produce sperm b. Female = ovaries produce ova 3. Testosterone is to boys as ______ is to girls. a. Estrogen 4. What are the three accessory (secondary) reproductive organs and what are their functions? a. Reproductive tract – ducts and organs that receive, store, and transfer gametes; in females, this is the environment that is for the development of the zygote, embryo, and fetus b. Accessory glands – supply fluids for transfer c. External genitalia – responsible for transmission of gametes 5. Within the scrotum, sperm is approximately how many degrees Celsius below core body temperature? a. 3 degrees Celsius 6. Which muscle is responsible for elevating or suspending testes? a. Cremaster muscle 7. Which muscle is responsible for shrinking (cold) or expanding (hot) the scrotal skin? a. Dartos 8. Where does spermatogenesis (production of spermatozoa AKA sperm) occur? a. Seminiferous tubules 9. The spermatogenic cells are in the _________ walls of seminiferous tubules and give rise to sperm, including spermatogonia, spermatocytes, and spermatids. a. Epithelial 10. Spermatogenesis is a process of producing sperm that goes through 1) mitosis 2) meiosis or 3) mitosis and meiosis? a. Meiosis I and II 11. What are the four types of cells that are located in the seminiferous tubules? a. Spermatogenic cells b. Sertoli cells c. Leydig cells d. Myoid cells 12. What are sertoli cells? a. Bloodtestis barrier b. Nutrients and signaling molecules c. Move spermatogenic cells along to lumen d. Phagocytize defective cells and cytoplasm e. Secrete inhibin and androgenbinding protein (that regulates spermatogenesis) 13. What are Leydig cells responsible for? a. Producing testosterone 14. Which type of cells contract to move sperm through the tubule? a. Myoid cells 15. What are the two types of tunics in the male reproductive system? a. Tunica vaginalis – “sheath”/two layered/derived from peritoneum b. Tunica albuginea – “white coat”/fibrous capsule/septa lobules containing seminiferous tubule 16. What are the steps of “Sperm’s Big adventure”? a. Seminiferous tubules rete testis efferent ductules vas (ductus) deferens ejaculatory duct urethra (3 regions = prostatic, membranous, and spongy) 17. What is the male copulatory organ called that is responsible for delivering sperm to female reproductive tract? a. Penis 18. What are the three parts of the penis? a. Root – attachment to body b. Shaft – contains erectile tissue c. Glans penis – enlarged tip of penis 19. What are the two types of erectile tissue on the shaft of the penis? a. Corpus spongiosum – surrounds spongy urethra/the bulb of the penis at the root b. Corpora cavernosa – paired dorsal erectile tissue that is the most abundant tissue of the penis/the crus of the penis at the root 20. True or false. Corpus spongiosum and corpora cavernosa both are dense connective tissue, smooth muscle and have vascular spaces a. True 21. What is the foreskin called that encloses the glans of the penis? a. Prepuce 22. What is the removal of the prepuce of the penis called? (60% of newborn males in the US have this) a. Circumcision 23. The male reproductive system accessory glands produce ________ which is a milky white mixture of sperm and accessory glands secretions. a. Semen 24. What are the seminal vesicles and what are they responsible for? a. Alkaline fluid that is 70% of semen; enhance sperm motility and fertility; contain fructose citrate and coagulating enzyme 25. What is the prostate gland? a. Slightly acidic fluid that activates sperm; 2030% of semen; contains citrate, enzymes, and prostatespecific antigen 26. What are the bulbourethral glands? a. Thick, clear mucus for lubrication and to neutralize urine 27. Fructose (a carbohydrate) is aerobically metabolized by sperm cells. This means that fructose functions as a(n) ______ source for the sperm. a. Energy 28. What is the name of the hormone that enhances sperm motility? a. Relaxin 29. What provides energy for the sperm? a. Citrate (ATP) and fructose 30. What decreases viscosity of mucus at the cervix and stimulates sperm movement through the female reproductive tract? a. Prostaglandins 31. Sperm is also responsible for the suppression of _______ response in the female reproductive tract. a. Immune 32. These located in sperm destroy some bacteria. a. Antibiotics 33. The ______ factors of sperm cause coagulation to vagina wall. a. Clotting 34. The enlargement or stiffening of the penis is known as ______. a. Erection 35. An erection is controlled by sympathetic or parasympathetic reflex? a. Parasympathetic 36. _______ is released locally that leads to vasodilation of arterioles supplying erecticle tissue and blood fills the vascular spaces. a. Nitric oxide 37. During an erection, why does the corpora cavernosa expand to compresses the drainage veins? a. To maintain the erection 38. What is responsible for keeping the urethra open during ejaculation? a. Corpus spongiosum 39. The propulsion of semen from the male duct system is known as ________. a. Ejaculation 40. Ejaculation is controlled by sympathetic or parasympathetic reflex? a. Sympathetic 41. What sphincter constricts during ejaculation to keep urine and semen separate? a. Bladder 42. After the reproductive ducts and accessory glands contract to empty the contents into the urethra, what reflex triggers muscle contraction and semen release from the urethra? a. Spinal 43. This period is the time after an ejaculation before another erection can be achieved. a. Refractory period 44. What is the process called where body cells divide and at the end of the process there are two identical daughter cells? a. Mitosis 45. What is the process called that occurs in gonads where the end result has a haploid chromosome number? a. Meiosis 46. True or false. Spermatazoa are haploid because they have gone through meiosis and have a chromosomal number of 1n. a. True 47. True or false. Spermatagonia are haploid because they have gone through meiosis and have a chromosomal number of 1n. a. False – spermatoagonia are stem cells that go through mitosis and are diploid 48. Describe how the hypothalamicpituitarygonadal axis uses hormones to secrete testosterone and androgen binding protein. a. Gonadotropinreleasing hormone causes a release of luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary. Leuteinizing hormone causes Leydig cells to secrete testosterone for spermatogenesis, which follicle simulating hormone causes sertoli cells to secrete inhibin and androgen binding protein. 49. Is FSH secretion a negative or positive feedback mechanism and how? a. Negative – testosterone inhibits GnRH and LH secretion, leading to lower T levels 50. What does testosterone from Leydig cells produce in a fetus, neonate, and in puberty? a. Fetus = male external genitalia b. Neonate = brain development and sexual differentiation c. Puberty = secondary sex characteristics such as pubic hair, deepening of the voice, thickening/oily skin, increased bone density, and increased size and mass in skeletal muscles 51. What is the basis of libido in both males and females? a. Libido 52. What is cryptorchidism? a. Hidden testes 53. What is the most common cancer in young men? a. Testicular cancer 54. Orchitis and cryptorchidism are risk factors for what disease? a. Testicular cancer 55. How can one detect testicular cancer on himself? a. Selfexamination; is a solid mass 56. What is the second most common cause of death in men? a. Prostate cancer 57. A fatty diet, genetic predisposition, and retrovirus are all risk factors for what disease? a. Prostate cancer 58. How can one detect prostate cancer on himself? a. Palpation, ultrasound, blood levels of PSA Female reproductive system 1. What are ovaries? a. Produce ovum, or eggs, and secrete hormones such as estrogen and progesterone 2. What are the two layers of the ovary responsible for? a. Cortex – houses forming gametes b. Medulla – large blood vessels and nerves 3. What are the three ligaments associated with the ovaries? a. Ovarian ligament – anchors to uterus b. Suspensory ligament – anchors to pelvic wall c. Mesovarium – encloses and holds ovary in place 4. Immature egg (oocyte) and surrounding cells (follicle cells or granulosa cells) make up the ________ follicles. a. Ovarian follicles 5. The process of producing eggs is known as what? a. Oogenesis 6. Oogonia begin as stem cells that divide through _______ and become primary oocytes. a. Mitosis 7. Once oocytes are formed, they start the process of meiosis but are arrested in late ________ until puberty. a. Prophase I 8. After puberty, one primary oocyte finishes meiosis I, which leads to the first polar body and secondary oocyte, which then begins meiosis 2 but is arrested at metaphase 1 and is __________. a. Ovulated 9. The oocyte deteriorates if no sperm penetrates it, but if a sperm does penetrate, the secondary oocyte finishes ________ which leads to the second polar body and ovum. a. Meiosis 2 10. Describe the 6 parts of follicular development. a. Primordial follicle = primary oocyte and single layer of follicle cells b. Primary follicle = primary oocyte and single layer of enlarged follicle cells c. Secondary follicle = primary oocyte and multiple layers of granulosa cells d. Vesicular (antral) follicle = has a large fluid filled cavity and includes secondary oocyte sitting on stalk of cells; ovulation occurs here e. Corpus luteum = “yellow body” is the ruptured follicle after ovulation; this secretes progesterone and estrogen to maintain the pregnancy until placenta takes over f. Corpus albican = “white body” is the scar left after the corpus luteum regresses if no pregnancy occurs 11. Fill in the blank with male or female: ________ have 1 oocyte each month, and ______ have 20150 million sperm/mL during ejaculation. a. Female; male 12. Fill in the blank with male or female: _______ have continuous production of gametes, and ________ have all the gametes they will ever have at birth, which is about 500 oocytes. a. Male; female 13. Fill in the blank with male or female: ______ have 4 viable gametes, and _____ have 1 viable gamete. a. Male; female 14. Fill in the blank with oogenesis or spermatogenesis: _______ begins in the fetus, while _________ begins at puberty. a. Oogenesis; spermatogenesis 15. Where does the oocyte go once it is ovulated? This is also the site of fertilization. a. Uterine (fallopian) tubes 16. The enlarged distal end of the fallopian tube where fertilization takes place is known as the _________. a. Ampulla 17. Which part of the fallopian tube is the funnelshaped end of the tube with ciliated projections (fimbriae) that drape over the ovary? a. Infundibulum 18. The constructed proximal region where the uterine tube joins the uterus is known as the __________. a. Isthmus 19. The smooth muscle in the fallopian tube is designed to do what? a. Move the oocyte towards the uterus 20. While the ciliated cells in the highly folded mucosa are designed to move the oocyte towards the uterus, what are the nonciliated cells designed for? a. Secreting moist, nutritive fluid 21. What is a uterus? a. Hollow, muscular organ that receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum 22. What are the 3 regions of the uterus? a. Body, fundus, cervix 23. What are the 3 layers of the uterine wall and their function? a. Perimetrium = serous layer b. Myometrium = smooth muscle that expels baby during childbirth c. Endometrium = mucosal lining where embryo implants, but sheds if no implantation occurs 24. What is the vagina? a. Thin walled tube that connects the cervix to body exterior; chamber for sperm deposition 25. What are the 3 layers of the vaginal wall? a. Adventitia, muscularis, mucosa 26. What is a homologous structure? a. Structures that have shared embryonic or evolutionary origin 27. ABP functions to: a. Concentrate testosterone 28. ABP is found mainly in: a. Sertolli cells 29. The part of the female reproductive system that is the rounded fatty area overlying the pubic symphysis. a. Mons pubis 30. The part of the female reproductive system that are the external lateral skin folds (homologous to scrotum). a. Labia majora 31. The part of the female reproductive system that are the external medial skin folds (homologous to ventral penis). a. Labia minora 32. The part of the female reproductive system that is the recess enclosed by the labia minora that contains external urethral and vaginal orifices. a. Vestibule 33. These mucous secreting glands are on the posterolateral sides of the vaginal opening for lubrication (homologous to bulbourethral glands on males). a. Greater vestibular glands 34. The part of the female reproductive system is a partially protruding structure composed of erectile tissue, anterior to urethral orifice, and is homologous to the glans penis. a. Clitoris 35. The _________ is the monthly events associated with the maturation of an egg. a. Ovarian cycle 36. Days 114 in the ovarian cycle are known as the _________. a. Follicular phase 37. In the follicular phase, this part of the phase is where the oocyte enlarges and the follicle cells around the primary oocyte become cuboidal. a. Primordial follicle primary follicle 38. In the follicular phase, this part of the phase is where the follicle cells proliferate into multiple layers, becoming granulosa cells. a. Primary follicle secondary follicle 39. In the follicular phase, this part of the phase is where the formation of the theca folliculai occurs (the layer of connective tissue around the follicle), thecal cells produce androgens, granulosa cells convert to estrogens, and the formation of the zona pellucida occurs (a glycoprotein substance secreted by the oocyte that forms a layer around the oocyte). a. Secondary follicle late secondary follicle 40. In the follicular phase, this part of the phase is where the formation of the antrum occurs (the fluidfilled cavity between the granulosa cells). a. Late secondary follicle vesicular follicle 41. This part of the ovarian cycle is where the vesicular follicle ruptures and the secondary oocyte is expelled into the fallopian tube (about day 14). a. Ovulation 42. Days 1528 in the ovarian cycle are known as the _______. a. Luteal phase 43. In the luteal phase, the remaining follicle (thecal and granulosa cells) form into the ________. a. Corpus luteum 44. What does the corpus luteum secrete? a. Progesterone and estrogen 45. If no pregnancy occurs, the corpus luteum degenerates ~10 days, leaving only the corpus __________. a. Albicans 46. If pregnancy occurs, the corpus luteum produces hormones until the ________ takes over at ~3 months. a. Placenta 47. Days 15 of the uterine cycle are where the uterus sheds all but the deepest part of the endometrium, estrogen/progesterone levels are low, and is known as the _______ phase. a. Menstrual 48. Days 614 of the uterine cycle are where there are rising levels of estrogen, which causes the endometrium to rebuild itself and cervical mucus thins, and is known as the ________ phase. a. Proliferative 49. Days 1528 of the uterine cycle are classifies by rising levels of progesterone, which increases vascularization of the endometrium, prepares it for the implantation of the embryo, endometrial glands enlarge, cervical mucus thickens, and is known as _________. a. Secretory phase 50. What happens to progesterone levels if no pregnancy occurs? a. They fall 51. The Gonadotropinreleasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates what gland to release follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)? a. Anterior pituitary 52. What does FSH stimulate? a. Follicle growth 53. What does LH stimulate? a. Follicle maturation and thecal cells to produce androgens that causes ovulation 54. What are the female sex hormones? a. Estrogen and progesterone 55. Estrogen promotes oogenesis, follicle growth, and endometrial growth (during proliferative phase), as well as induces _____________________ such as growth of breasts, increased fat deposition around hips and breasts, and widening of pelvis. a. Secondary sexual characteristics 56. Early follicular phase, late follicular phase, early luteal phase, or late luteal phase? GnRH causes FSH and LH secretion, FSH binds to receptors on granulosa cells, promoting follicular growth and proliferation, LH causes thecal cells to secrete androgens, and negative feedback of estrogen stop rise of FSH and LH. a. Early follicular phase 57. Early follicular phase, late follicular phase, early luteal phase, or late luteal phase? A dominant follicle begins to secrete high levels of E, granulosa cells start to secrete inhibin and small amounts of P, E now exerts a positive feedback on hypothalamus and pituitary, and there is an LH surge. a. Late follicular phase 58. Early follicular phase, late follicular phase, early luteal phase, or late luteal phase? Corpus luteum secretes E, P, and inhibin, and progesterone prepares endometrium for implantation as well as thickens the cervical mucus. a. Early luteal phase 59. Early follicular phase, late follicular phase, early luteal phase, or late luteal phase? If no fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum degenerates, estrogen and progesterone levels drop, which releases negative feedback, and FSH and LH levels begin to rise. a. Late luteal phase 60. What is the function of the mammary glands? a. Produce milk to nourish newborn 61. Mammary glands: ring of pigmented skin a. Areola 62. Mammary glands: protrusion with openings to lactiferous ducts a. Nipple 63. Mammary glands: 1520 per breast, made up of lobules and ducts a. Lobes 64. Mammary glands: contain alveoli with secretory cells and myoepithelial cells a. Lobules 65. Mammary glands: carry milk to openings in nipples a. Lactiferous ducts 66. Mammary glands: store milk a. Lactiferous sinus 67. An ectopic pregnancy is where the zygote is implanted in the ____________ cavity or distal portion of the tube. a. Peritoneal 68. An infection in the peritoneal cavity, including scarring of the uterine tubes/ovaries and STIs is known as ___________. a. Pelvic inflammatory disease 69. The cancer of the cervix is known as ________________. a. Cervical cancer 70. Breast cancer typically arises in the __________ cells of ducts. a. Epithelial 71. Hormonal contraceptives mimic which hormone? a. Progesterone 72. What is an SRY? a. The sexdetermining region of the male sex chromosome 73. In a 5 to 6 week old fetus, the metanephros are the future female reproductive ducts, while the _________ duct is the future male reproductive ducts a. Wolffian 74. Male development begins in what week of fertilization? a. Week 7 75. When male development begins, the seminiferous tubules form gonadal ridges and join the newly developed Wolffian ducts via the __________ ductules. a. Efferent 76. __________, including the penis and labioscrotal swellings begin developing in week 8. a. External genitalia 77. About 2 months before birth, the testes descend from abdominal cavity in the _______. a. Scrotum 78. If the ______ gene is absent, this stimulates female development because female is the default sex. a. SRY 79. Female development begins at week _______ when the Wolffian ducts regress, the ovaries from gonadal ridges, and the mullerian ducts develop. a. 8 80. What is fertilization? a. Sperm’s chromosomes combine with the chromosomes of the secondary oocyte forming a zygote 81. _______ is viable 1224 hours after ovulation, and ______ is viable 2448 hours after ejaculation. a. Oocyte; sperm 82. How many days per month is a woman fertile? a. 3 days 83. The fate of ______ includes the following: leak out of vagina, destroyed by acidic environment in vagina, blocked at the cervix, phagocytes destroy them, or peristalsis guides them to oocyte and secretions in female reproductive system capacitate them a. Sperm 84. Describe the process of fertilization. a. Sperm enzymes digest junctions between granulosa cells, sperm binds to reeptors on zona pellucida, acrosomal enzymes digest holes through the zona pellucida, one sperm binds and fuses to the plasma membrane of oocyte, cytoplasmic contents of sperm enter oocyte, oocyte completes meiosis II, cortical reaction prevents polyspermy, zona pellucida hardens, and the two nuclei fuse forming the zygote 85. This includes the events that occur from fertilization until the infant is born. a. Pregnancy 86. This is the length of time a woman is pregnant. a. Gestation period 87. This is the time from fertilization until week 8 of pregnancy. a. Embryonic period 88. This is the time from week 9 of pregnancy until birth. a. Fetal period 89. A period of rapid mitotic divisions in embryonic development. a. Cleavage 90. During the first 36 hours of embryonic development, the first cleavage creates 2 identical cells known as _________. a. Blastomeres 91. Once cleavage has helped form 16 or more cells and 72 hours have passed, the embryo is known as a __________. a. Morula 92. During days 45 of embryonic development, the _______ is a cluster of ~100 cells in a fluidfilled cavity and during this time the zona pellucida breaks down. a. Blastocyst 93. Single layer of large, flattened cells that aids implantation and protects the embryo from the mother’s immune system a. Trophoblast 94. The human chorionic gonadotropin (known as _________) stimulates corpus luteum from trophoblast at implantation. a. hCG 95. What develops from the trophoblast and takes over stimulating the corpus luteum after implantation? a. Chorion 96. What are the four extraembryonic membranes and their functions? a. Yolk sac = nutrients to developing embryo b. Amnion = transparent sac that is used for protection and temperature regulation c. Allantois = forms into umbilical cord and urinary bladder d. Chorion = develops chorionic villi that form part of the placenta 97. What are the primary germ layers of gastrulation? a. Ectoderm epidermis, hair, nails, skin glands, brain, spinal cord b. Endoderm epithelial linings of digestive, respiratory, urogenital systems, and associated glands c. Mesoderm everything else 98. What are some developmental milestones for an unborn baby? a. between 23 months – placenta fully formed and functional b. 5 weeks – brain, spinal cord, other organs developing, heart begins beating c. 8 weeks – arms, legs, face developing d. 912 weeks – head dominant, retina of eye forms, genital sex evident, hematopoiesis begins e. 1316 weeks – eyes and ears developing, body growth, bones distinct f. 1720 weeks – movements g. 2130 weeks – substantial weight gain / fetus viable ~24 weeks h. 3140 weeks – slowed weight gain, subcutaneous fat being deposited Mastering Practice Test 1. Which of the following is a primary sex organ? Penis; vagina; ovary; or uterus a. Ovary 2. Which of the following is a secondary sex organ? Testis; vagina; or ovary a. Vagina 3. When cold, the surface area of the scrotum is reduced to conserve heat. The _______ muscle is responsible for this apparent “shrinkage.” a. Dartos 4. What is the site of spermatogenesis? a. Seminiferous tubules 5. The foreskin enclosing the most distal region of the penis, and which is often removed at birth is the: a. Prepuce 6. Relaxin in semen does what? a. Enhances sperm motility 7. What is the human haploid number? a. 23 8. Gonatropinreleasing hormone is produced in and secreted from the: a. Hypothalamus 9. Which layer of the ovary is where gametes are formed? a. Cortex 10. Which ligament anchors the ovary to the uterus? a. Ovarian ligament 11. Which oogenetic cells divide by mitosis? a. Oogonia 12. What is the developmental stage of the developing gamete within a secondary follicle? a. Primary oocyte 13. Progesterone and estrogen levels are not adequate to support a pregnancy within the uterus. This could be due to a failure of which reproductive structure? a. Corpus luteum 14. Which uterine layer receives and nourishes a developing embryo? a. Endometrium 15. Which uterine layer expels the fullterm fetus from the reproductive tract? a. Myometrium 16. The labia majora are homologous to the _______ in males. a. Scrotum 17. What is the reproductive gland in males that is homologous to the greater vestibular gland in females? a. Bulbourethral gland 18. The clitoris in females is homologous to which structure in males? a. Glans penis 19. What is the hormone that stimulates the thecal cells to secrete androgen? a. LH 20. During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle, rising levels of _________ increase vascularization of the endometrium and prepare it for implantation and pregnancy. a. Progesterone 21. Which uterine phase is characterized by lowest levels of estrogen and progesterone, during which the majority of the endometrium is shed and passed out of the body? a. Menstrual phase 22. During the follicular phase, granulosa cells are stimulated by rising levels of _______ and cause follicular _______ in response. a. FSH; growth 23. In the “plasma hormone level” graph, what step is indicated by the topmost point of the graph? a. Ovulation 24. What stage is the gamete in at the ovulation step of the “plasma hormone level” graph? a. Meiosis II 25. Mammary glands are evolved from ______. a. Sweat glands 26. What do myoepithelial cells regulate in mammary glands? a. Milk letdown 27. GnRH directly stimulates the release of: a. FSH 28. Acromegaly is caused by over secretion of ______ once epiphyseal plates are closed. a. GH 29. After childbirth, skintoskin contact and suckling drive a positive feedback that causes the release of _______. This hormone aids in maternal bonding, pair bonding, and causes milk let down. a. Oxytocin 30. Most hormonal contraceptives maintain estrogen and ______ at intermediate levels to trick the HPG axis, thus preventing ovulation. a. Progesterone 31. Which of the following embryonic structures will only develop into male reproductive ducts? a. Wolffian ducts 32. Which of the following hormones form a hormonereceptor complex to affect the target cell? a. Testosterone 33. Which of the following hormones utilizes a secondary messenger to affect the target cell? a. Oxytocin 34. What will happen to a hormone’s response if the hormone concentration remains the same, the binding affinity remains the same, but the receptors are upregulated? a. Increased response 35. Blood calcium is decreased, causing a change in parathyroid hormone secretion. What type of stimulus caused this change in hormone secretion? a. Humoral 36. Which component of the pituitary is mainly composed of neural tissue? a. Posterior 37. The hypophyseal portal system conveys hormones from the hypothalamus to the ________. a. Anterior pituitary 38. What is the connecting stalk between the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus? a. Infundibulum 39. Which thyroid hormone is the most potent form that affects metabolic rate? a. T3 40. Grave’s disease is an autoimmune disease that produces antibodies that mimic: a. TSH 41. The corpus spongiosum is the most abundant erectile tissue and it is generally responsible for maintaining an erection. a. False 42. During meiosis, crossing over occurs at synapses. This process is unique to sexual reproduction and involves the swapping of genetic material between maternal and paternal chromosomes. a. True 43. The seminal vesicles secrete a slightly acidic fluid that activates the sperm and is ~ 20 30% of semen volume. a. True 44. An erection is a parasympathetic response to arousal. a. True 45. Pelvic inflammatory disease can be caused by sexuallytransmitted infections. a. True 46. Ecotopic pregnancies occur when an embryo successfully implants in the endometrium. a. False 47. Troponin is a type of hormone that causes a subsequent hormone release. a. False 48. The presence of an SRY gene causes an embryo to develop into a female. a. False 49. Exocrine glands contain ducts and secrete many different components, such as saliva and digestive enzymes. a. True 50. Lipidsoluble hormones have their effect by directly changing gene transcription. a. True
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