Victimology Test 4 Study Guide
Victimology Test 4 Study Guide CCJ 3666
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Victimology Test #4 Study Guide Covers Chapters 1114 Chapter 11 1. What does “patriae potestas” mean? An ancient Roman saying that the fathers had the right to sell, kill, or allow their progeny (kids) to continue to live. 2. Talk about historical practices in the way children were treated. Children were treated no differently from other property owned by the father of the family. Physically deformed newborns were killed off by ancient Greeks, especially Spartans. Those who were raised never experience "childhood," they became "little adults." 3. What does it mean to say that corporal punishment is a parental privilege? A parent is immune from simple battery charges when administering physical punishment in 'good taste.' 4. What contribution did John Caffey make to the field? He published a study in 1946 outlining bone damage of mysterious origin that he found in some of his young patients. This discovery prompted other physicians to conduct similar investigations, which led to the discovery that the parents of the children were responsible for the unspecified trauma. When parents gave outlandish explanations, he suspected parents as the perpetrators. Coined the term "unspecified trauma" in 1957. 5. Who coined the phrase “batteredchild syndrome” and why? Coined by C. Henry Kempe. He coined it to describe "young children who have received serious physical abuse, generally from a parent." 6. What four obstacles impeded the discovery of child maltreatment? 1. Emergency room physicians did not realize the parents were beating the children, they were just focused on the task of healing the patient. 2. Physicians were unable to bring themselves to realize that parents would beat their children or inflict such severe wounds deliberately. 3. Confidential doctorpatient relationships 4. Testifying in court would place physicians in the awkward position of having to defend their medical expertise and diagnosis to laypersons. 7. Give four reasons why radiologists, and not pediatricians, were the ones who discovered child maltreatment? 5. Radiologists examine the xrays and that means they can be more objective because they have no direct contact with the patient. 6. The goal of radiology is to discover new diagnostic categories, whereas direct care providers simply identify a condition and place it into a logical, already existing category. 7. The doctorpatient relationship confidentiality was not a stumbling block because the patient is the person who is being xrayed, 8. Issue of professional control. 8. Explain what “abuse” means. The commission of an act upon the child. Generally refers to any nonaccidental infliction of injury that seriously impairs a child's physical or mental health. 9. Explain what “neglect” means. The omission of a caretaker function. The withholding of life's essentials, the necessary ingredients including food, clothing, shelter, and medical treatment. 10. Why do people use the term “maltreatment?” It is a more encompassing term that both abuse and neglect fall under. Defines maltreatment in terms of three components... 9. The act or failure to take appropriate action must produce an unacceptable risk of serious physical or emotional harm, death, sexual abuse, or exploitation. 10. The target of this maltreatment is a child, usually a person under the age of 18. 11. The perpetrator is a parent or caretaker who bears responsibility for the child's welfare. 11. Explain the six major types of child maltreatment listed in Table 11–2 of your textbook. 12. Physical Abuse 13. Neglect 14. Sexual Abuse 15. Emotional Abuse 16. Abandonment 17. Substance Abuse 12. What is the “shaken baby syndrome?” A type of inflicted traumatic brain injury that happens when a baby is violently shaken. Shaking makes the child's fragile brain bounce back and forth inside the skull and causes bruising, swelling, and bleeding, which can lead to permanent, severe brain damage or death. 13. According to your textbook, what is a “privileged relationship?” Means there is an inviolable, nonintrudable bond between two parties. 14. How did the doctorpatient relationship initially affect the reporting of child maltreatment? The physician could not reveal any information gathered in that confidential capacity without first obtaining the patient's consent. Should a doctor break that trust, he or she could face a civil lawsuit and professional censure. 15. What does the standard “in good faith” have to do with the reporting of child maltreatment? If a person contacts the authorities out of genuine concern for the child's well being, he or she cannot be sued if the allegation turns out to be false. 16. What does legislative immunity mean with respect to reporting child maltreatment? That means they cannot be sued if the allegation turns out to be false. 17. What does “protective custody” mean? In this situation, the worker terminates parental custody for the time being, removes the child from the home, and places him or her in foster care for safekeeping pending judicial review at a later date. 18. What is the purpose behind the central register? The central register is a depository that store records of all allegations of child absue and neglect. The purpose behind this record keeping system is to help in the diagnosis by tracking relevant case histories. 19. Explain some of the problems that remain with identifying and detecting child maltreatment. Definitional aspects, not all states place the same degree of emphasis on child maltreatment, the level of proof required to involve social services, lack of reporting, and finally training that has not received sufficient attention. 20. What does it mean when a report of possible child maltreatment is screened out of the child welfare system? Once a report of child maltreatment is initiated, the child welfare system moves into action. Much like the criminal justice system, the child welfare system is a conglomeration of numerous public and private entities as opposed to a unified model. Some of the system's responsibilities include investigative duties, foster care, medical services, mental health treatment, substance abuse counseling, employment assistance, and welfare options. These activities are united by the same goal of protecting the best interests of the child. 21. What does it mean when a possible maltreatment case has been investigated and determined to be “unsubstantiated?” An unsubstantiated disposition means the allegation is unfounded and the case is closed. AKA, there's not enough evidence to support the claim that the child was maltreated or is at risk of being maltreated. 22. How extensive is child maltreatment? Child maltreatment statistics for 2011 in the US reveal that 3.7 million children were monitored and approximately one out of every five were substantiated as a maltreatment case. 23. What is the purpose of a child fatality review team? These groups combine the expertise of child protective services workers, law enforcement officers, coroners and medical examiners, health care workers, prosecutors, and others to investigate child deaths to determine whether maltreatment was involved. 24. What does the phrase “substantiated allegation” mean? Means that sufficient evidence existed to confirm the reporting person's suspicions 25. Using Figure 11–4 of your textbook, which types of child maltreatment are most prevalent? Neglect and physical maltreatment are most prevalent 26. Select three statistical observations from Table 11–5 of your textbook to illustrate the problem of child maltreatment in the United States. 18. More than 80% of the children who died due to child abuse and neglect were younger than 4 19. More than 75% of victims suffered neglect 20. Two fifths of the victims who received services were removed from their homes and received foster care services. 27. What are some of the estimated costs associated with child maltreatment victimization? One estimate puts the lifetime costs of child abuse and neglect cases that emerge each year at about $124 billion in 2010 dollars. Another estimate is that child maltreatment drains $220 million every day from the national economy. 28. How and why do clinical data and survey data influence child maltreatment research findings? Clinical data usually reveal that the very young are victims. Yet surveys show that child maltreatment spans all ages. Surveys tend to find a high proportion of nonwhite victims, whereas clinical studies do not. 29. What is “surveillance bias,” and how does it affect child maltreatment statistics? Surveillance bias refers to any increased, systematic outcomerelated scrutiny that may exist for some individuals or groups but not others. With respect to families that have been flagged for child abuse or neglect, surveillance bias means that service participants may be more likely to be reported for maltreatment than comparable nonservice participants because they are subject to greater scrutiny by virtue of interacting with service providers and service systems. 30. Does child maltreatment take place mainly in the lower class? If so, why? Yes, child maltreatment mainly takes place within the lower class. It is possible that lower class people resort to violence more often to resolve misunderstandings. Also, I believe the lower class goes through more stress involving money and trying to support their families, causing more built up tension. 31. Why are social service providers sometimes called “gatekeepers?” They are the systems personnel who have the power to confer the label of child maltreatment. 32. Present information about the “typical” child abuser relying upon the information contained in Table 11–6 of your textbook. The 'typical' child abuser is a young adult in his or her mid 20's, no high school diploma, living at or below the poverty level, depressed, and may have difficulty coping with stressful situations. 33. List ten popular coping strategies for dealing with child maltreatment. 21. Home Visitation 22. Education 23. Safe Haven Laws 24. Parents Anonymous 25. Counseling 26. Children's Advocacy Centers 27. Sex Offender Registration and Notification 28. Civil Commitment 29. Amber Alert 30. Legal Reform 34. Explain home visitation as a coping strategy and its limitations. Proponents suggest that public health workers should conduct routine home visits where there are young children and newborns. Criticisms include that it invites unwarranted governmental intrusion, causing false positive errors and false negative errors. 35. What is the difference between a false positive error and a false negative error in the detection of child maltreatment? A false positive error would occur when a worker misclassifies a nonabused child as a maltreatment case. A false negative error entails not diagnosing a child as abused when that child really is a maltreatment victim. 36. What does a “Healthy Families Program” attempt to accomplish? Is part of the Prevent Child Abuse America (PCA), is a nationally credentialed, statewide program that is proven to prevent child abuse and neglect before it ever starts. Healthy Families programs provide voluntary, communitybased home visitation services focused on promoting child health and development and positive parentchild interaction. 37. How is education intended to be a coping strategy for child maltreatment? The education effort aims to demystify child rearing by providing parents with instruction in child development. It reinforces parent awareness through parenting courses offered in hospitals, schools, churches, and Social Service Agencies. 38. Explain what a “safe haven law” is. Safe Haven Laws represent an effort to deal with baby abandonment and infanticide. 39. Do “safe haven laws” work? No 40. What is “Parents Anonymous,” and how does it work? "Parents Anonymous" is a nonprofit national organization with local groups consisting of parents who feel they are currently maltreating, or are in danger of maltreating, their children. The national organization operates a 24 hour hotline that parents can call when they need to vent their frustrations. Modeled after Alcoholics Anonymous. 41. What does counseling offer as a coping strategy for child maltreatment? This response seeks to help both the victim and the offender, often involving the entire family. Most treatment interventions revolve around individual and group counseling. It offers therapeutic intervention and open communication. 42. What is a children’s advocacy center? An umbrella organization, independent of the criminal justice system, that brings together child protective services workers, law enforcement officers, the prosecutors office, educators, mental health counselors, and medical personnel in an effort to provide a coordinated response and seamless service delivery to maltreated children. 43. What services does a children’s advocacy center offer? It's designed to keep children from being shuttled from one agency to the next and to provide a variety of services under one roof. First CAC opened in Huntsville, Alabama in 1985 The goal of a CAC is to minimize the trauma child victims undergo and to provide a safe and comfortable atmosphere. A service CAC's provide is videotaped forensic interviews, reducing the number of future interviews, preserves testimony for later use, documents the tone of the session and the conditions under which the interview took place, and allows an assessment of the child's veracity (accuracy). 44. Explain “Megan’s Law” and its related provisions. "Megan's Law" core requirement calls for public notification whenever a sex offender is released from prison into the community. This gives local authorities the ability to track the whereabouts of sex offenders in the community. The usual requirement is that the state must notify the victim and local law enforcement agencies that the offender has been released and is back in the community. 45. What is a “sexually violent predator?” The most dangerous offered with the most proclivity for recidivism, the highest risk category. 46. What kinds of residency restrictions do sex offenders face? Florida prohibits sex offenders from living within 1,000 feet of a school, day care facility, park, or playground. 47. What is “The Adam Walsh Act?” George W. Bush signed the act in the summer of 2006. This act supersedes all previous federal legislation regarding SORN and introduces a new series of rules and regulations designed to standardize SORN practices and to create the National Sex Offender Registry. 48. What is the importance of the federal Supreme Court decision Smith v. Doe (2003)? Argued the ex post facto clause prohibited Internet posting because they were sentenced prior to passage of this statute. U.S. Supreme Court disagreed with the convicted, arguing that..... Sex offender registry is a civil tool Goal is to protect society, not punish offenders Publicity is necessary for law to work Registry does not restrict a person's movement Registry is a regulation, not a new punishment 49. What is civil commitment and what is the importance of the federal Supreme Court decision Kansas v. Hendricks (1997)? Civil commitment is when an offender is sent involuntarily to the confinement of a mental institution for treatment after completion of the criminal sentence. Kansas v. Hendricks stated that postsentence civil commitment was NOT a punishment, and the Supreme Court upheld the goal to protect society 50. How did Kansas v. Hendricks (1997) raise objections surrounding ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and cruel and unusual punishment? Ex post facto: imposition of additional punishment after adjudication Double Jeopardy: Being punished twice for the same act Cruel and unusual punishment: prospect lifetime punishment 51. What is the significance of the U.S. Supreme Court case U.S. v. Comstock (2010)? This case raised the question of whether the federal government had the power to civilly commit a federal prisoner, considered to be dangerous, after completing a term of incarceration for a sex crime. It determined that the federal government enacting a civil commitment statute to detain an uncured sexual predator exceeds the powers contained in the Constitution. 52. What four conditions must exist in order to activate an Amber Alert? 31. Law enforcement officials must conduct an initial investigation and confirm that a child has been abducted 32. There must be some indication that the child is endangered 33. There must be sufficient information available to make a recovery plausible 34. The case must be entered into the National Crime Information Center, and the FBI computerized index of criminal justice information 53. When is it permissible for a judge to close his or her courtroom to the public? When a victim of a sex offense is testifying. All persons shall clear the room upon the request of the victim, except that parties to the cause and their immediate families. 54. What is the “hearsay rule” and what does it have to do with child maltreatment cases? The "hearsay rule" disallows statements made by a third party because the court cannot evaluate that person's credibility and, thus, the defense is unable to impeach that testimony. 55. What is an “in camera proceeding” in a child maltreatment case? An "in camera proceeding" in a child maltreatment case allows child victims to testify outside the courtroom in less formal, less threatening surroundings. 56. What three objections have critics raised over in camera proceedings in child maltreatment cases? 35. Some defendants have argued that such proceedings violate their constitutional right to confront and cross examine witnesses. 36. The right of the public to have access to the trial, in camera proceedings produce limited access of the public to observe judicial proceedings without jeopardizing the legal process. 37. The defendants right to a public trial Chapter 12 1. How have changes in life expectancy affected the demographic composition of the United States population? The number of elderly still living has increased, and changes in nutrition, healthier lifestyles, the availability of medical resources, and advances in medical knowledge have increased the life expectancies. 2. Use Figure 12–1 to explain what aging trends the United States population has seen and what trends are anticipated. 20% of the American population will be 65 or older by the year 2030. 3. Take Table 12–2 and list four characteristics of older Americans. • Older women outnumber older men at 23.4 million older women to 17.9 million older men • Over half of older women age 75+ live alone • 85+ population is projected to increase from 5.7 million in 2011 and 14.1 million in 2040 • Over one in every eight or 13% of the population is an older American. 4. What role do older Americans play in political action? • Make up the greatest number of voters What are 'Silver Haired Legislatures"? What do they do? • Silver haired legislatures consist of older persons over 60 years old. • Convene periodic meetings to discuss legislative remedies to issues confronting the elderly. • Meet in the state capital chambers, hold a variety of committee hearings, debate new proposals and eventually pass bills aimed at resolving these matters. 5. What is a “gerontologist?” People who study the aging process 6. Explain who the elderly are. Early old age: 6474, advanced old age: 75+ 7. Look at Table 12–3 and determine whether the elderly are overrepresented or underrepresented in victimization statistics? Underrepresented 8.What are 'Silver Haired Legislatures"? What do they do? • Silver haired legislatures consist of older persons over 60 years old. • Convene periodic meetings to discuss legislative remedies to issues confronting the elderly. • Meet in the state capital chambers, hold a variety of committee hearings, debate new proposals and eventually pass bills aimed at resolving these matters. 9. Look at Figure 12–3 of your textbook. Compared to other age groups, what are the actual odds of property victimization for the elderly? It decreases with age, there is an 8.3% victimization rate. 10. Name the two components that make up fear of crime. The actual odds of being victimized, and the subjective or perceived risk of victimization. 11. What impression does Figure 12–4 and Figure 12–5 generate? Since there is a clear negative linear relationship between victimization and age, the impression was that the level of crime had actually increased. 12. What is the “fearcrime paradox?” States there should be a lower level of fear of crime because the actual level of crime is low. When the level of fear of crime is incongruent with the supposed crime, it becomes necessary to find alternative explanations for that fear. 13. What difficulties surround the measurement of fear? Measures of fear can vary by the definition used by different researchers. Fear can be elicited by different events or situations. The elderly may respond to being fearful in situations that don't elicit the same response from younger participants. 14. What does Figure 12–6 show? Whether people were worried or not about a variety of different victimization episodes. Showed... • Two out of every three people were apprehensive about identity theft • Less than half were concerned about their home being burglarized • A third expressed uneasiness about getting mugged, their child's safety at school, and acts of terrorism • One of every five respondents fretted about being sexually assaulted murdered or attacked while driving. 15. Explain what “risk” means. Typically refers to the chances of becoming a victim of crime 16. List four risk factors to which the elderly are exposed. Possible risk factors include economic resources, where they live, whether they live alone, and their diminished physical abilities. 17. Explain what “vulnerability” means. Susceptibility to crime and the harm that accompanies victimization. The ease of being victimized and the impact the crime has on the victim The assumption with vulnerability is that people who would suffer the greatest loss will be the most fearful. For the elderly, vulnerability is a key concern 18. Give three vulnerability factors, and explain how they affect fear of crime among the elderly. 38. Physical attributes: physical strength and increasing health problems contribute much to a sense of vulnerability. Almost all elderly have a chronic health condition. Most common ailments (hypertension, arthritis, heart disease, and cancer) Cannot ward off physical attacks and are more prone to physical injury. Not unusual for crime related injuries to aggravate pre existing health problems. 39. Financial concerns: reduced incomes, much money is coming from fixed sources such as social security, pension funds, and investments. 40. Social connections: social isolation can compound the effects of victimization. Elderly who suffer physical injury will need assistance with normal activities. Social support is important for placing the event in placing the event in perspective. 19. What is “vicarious victimization?” The phenomenon of sustained interest in crime against the elderly that is a result of the influence of mass media. People who have had no actual victimization experiences themselves become aware of those who have been victimized, and begin to think "what if that happened to me". 20. How does vicarious victimization relate to fear of crime? Indirect attribution heightens one's fearfulness even though the actual odds of victimization may be remote. 21. Compare and contrast elderly abuse and elderly neglect. Elderly Abuse Commission of an act. Elderly Neglect Omission of a caretaker function. 22. Explain the various forms of elderly abuse and elderly neglect contained in Table 12–4 of your textbook. 41. Physical Abuse 42. Emotional Abuse 43. Sexual Abuse 44. Exploitation 45. Neglect 46. Abandonment 23.What is polyvictimization? Elderly persons who experience one type of abuse are also likely to be victims of multiple forms of maltreatment. 24. Select two recommendations from Table 12–6 of your textbook and explain what they intend to accomplish. 47. Clarify the definition of abuse and otherwise ensure that states apply that definition consistently and appropriately. 48. Shorten the state survey agencies' time frames for determining whether to include finding of abuse in nurse aide registry files. 25. What four factors contribute to institutional maltreatment? 49. Exogenous Factors reflects the influence of the larger community on institutional operations. 50. Nursing Home Environment 51. Staff Characteristics Younger staff members with less education tend to show less concern for the elderly. 52. Patient Characteristics The older and sicker the patient, the more difficult it is for employees of nursing homes to care for them. 26. What kind of legislative responses has institutional maltreatment triggered? The 1987 Nursing Home Reform Act outlines various forms of prohibited activity, including abuse, neglect, and the unwarranted use of restraints. GAO in 2002 made suggestions for improving the reporting and investigation of abuse in residential facilities as a first step to addressing the problem. 27. Use Table 12–8 of your textbook and explain three rights of nursing home residents. 53. Right to civil and religious liberties 54. Private and uncensored communication 55. Visitation by any individual 28. What are the four pros associated with mandatory elder maltreatment reporting laws? 56. Reporting requirements are restricted primarily to public employees or employees of agencies that would most likely have contact with potential victims, meaning persons not included in these categories have no legal obligation to make a report of suspected abuse. 57. The specificity of who must report suspected abuse varies from state to state. 58. Accepts the 'good faith standard' 59. All privileged communications, with the exception of lawyerclient, are rescinded in cases of elder maltreatment. 29.What is "ageism"? Stereotyping all older individuals as being in need of protection and treating them differently because of their age. 30. Outline three problems that exist with mandatory reporting laws pertaining to elder maltreatment? 60. Laws typically deal only with the reporting of abuse and fail to provide resources to follow up on the reports. 61. Critics claim that these laws intrude into the privacy of the individual. 62. Mandatory reporting is seen as reinforcing ageism by focusing on the victim rather than the offender. 31. What is the role of an adult protective services agency (APS)? The primary task revolves around investigations of abuse and neglect, but APS offices may also be responsible for such disparate activities as licensing nursing homes, funding research, and training social service workers. Chapter 13 1. What is a “hate or bias crime?” A crime committed in a way that constitutes an expression of hatred toward the victims based on their personal characteristics. 2. What is a “trigger event?” Captures attention, promotes public disbelief, and prompts a sustained moral outcry. Ex. a cross burning or heinous biasmotivated death. 3. What is a “moral panic?” A social problem is considered to be so pervasive and damaging that it threatens core values and beliefs. 4. What is the significance in terms of hate crime when a trigger event, moral panic, and potent interest groups intersect? The result is a raucous and extremely cantankerous atmosphere 5. Hate crime legislative provisions address biasmotivated violence. What groups do these provisions typically protect? Minorities, disabled, homeless, homosexuals, etc. 6. Why have some states legislated against crossburning and wearing masks or hoods in public? Because they represent a form of hate crime. 7. How is the federal Civil Rights Act applicable to hate crime? It ensured civil rights protections by guaranteeing equal access to housing. Nobody could be the victim of a hate crime by being turned away because of their characteristics. 8. What is a “sentencing enhancement,” and how does this idea fit in with hate crime? It gives the judge permission to extend a crime penalty if the victim was selected because of their race, color, heritage, sexual orientation, etc. 9. What happened in the U.S. Supreme Court case of Wisconsin v. Mitchell (1993)? Mitchell was sentence to 4 years, 2 for battery and 2 more because he chose his victim because he was white. Mitchell appealed saying the extension was within is 1st Amendment rights. Supreme Court upheld judge's initial decision of 4 years. 10. What issues were involved in the U.S. Supreme Court case of Virginia v. Black (2003)? Ruled that state laws against crossburning, "fighting words" and "true threats" are all within the First Amendment rights. 11. Link the concepts of “fighting words” and “true threats” to the First Amendment. Encompass statements in which the speaker threatens to commit an act of unlawful violence. Laws against these are within First Amendment rights. 12. Why have some legislative bodies addressed “the hangman’s noose?” Refers to the manner in which a rope is coiled and tied prior to executing a person via hanging. Vivid symbol of lynchings. 13. How does the FBI gather information pertaining to hate crime? They compile them into a category of the UCR. 14. According to the FBI, what is the most common form of hate crime? Racial intimidation 15. According to the FBI, what trends are there in hate crime incidents throughout the country? Most hate crimes have been at a steady decline since 2008. 16. Official data sources are haunted by the dark figure of crime. How does the NCVS overcome this obstacle? Because it is a survey, people are more willing to confess to their victimization. 17. What does the NCVS tell us about hate crime victimization? Shows that the majority of hate crimes happen to persons. Show that there has been a steady decline since 2010. 18. Explain the decision process in Table 13–6 pertaining to hate crime victimization. It shows the various factors that should be questioned to determine if the crime could have been hate based. 19. What is a “thirdparty watch group” and what do they do? Independent organizations whose mission is to monitor the activities of various hate crime groups. 20. What is a “false zero” and how does this problem affect reports of hate crime? There are complications as to whether the zero's represent zero hate crimes or nonreporting by non participants. 21. What two strategies has law enforcement pursued with respect to hate crime activity? 63. Provide additional resources to police officers and sheriff deputies; i.e. education on hate crimes in training. 64. Sensitize investigators to some of the more prominent signs or indicators that may accompany a biasmotivated incident. 22. How have prosecution efforts responded to hate crime activity? Because the cases are so difficult and complex to pursue, not many go to trial. Those that do more than likely end with a plea bargain. 23. Talk about the Arrendi case and its outcome. Apprendi fired shots into a black man's house because he was a minority that had recently moved in. In court, the judge sought to extend his term because of a biased statement he made. Apprendi appealed in court and the Supreme Court ruled in his favor. "Any fact that increases a sentence beyond the prescribed maximum must be submitted to a jury and proven beyond a reasonable doubt." Chapter 14 1. According to the routine activities perspective, crime is more likely to occur when three things coincide. What are those three things? 65. A suitable target 66. A motivated offender 67. An absence of guardians 2. What does the term “workplace violence” cover? Violent acts including physical assaults and threats of assaults, directed towards persons at work or on duty. 3. What are some shortcomings to the term “workplace violence?” Fails to address issues of intimidation, harassment, bullying, or verbal aggression, doesn’t address whether the employee is a current or former worker, and there is no clear definition of what 'the workplace' is. 4. Explain the typology of workplace violence that appears in Table 14–1 of your textbook. 68. Criminal Intent 69. Customer/Client 70. Worker on Worker 71. Personal Relationship 5. Relying upon the information presented in Table 14–3 of your textbook, which occupations have a high likelihood of nonfatal workplace violence? Physicians, Technicians, and teaching either elementary, college, or special education. 6. What workplace characteristics are associated with a potentially hazardous work environment? 72. When the job puts workers in situations where there is a great deal of contact with the public 73. Isolation from supervision and or coworkers 74. Dealing with special populations 7. What types of things does the term “workplace bullying” include? Repeated, healthharming mistreatment of one or more persons (the targets) by one or more perpetrators that take one or more of the following forms... Verbal abuse, offensive conduct/behaviors (nonverbal included) which are threatening, humiliating, or intimidating, and work interferencesabotagewhich prevents work from getting done 8. What is the “general duty clause” contained in the Occupational Safety and Health Act? States each employer shall furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees 9. How are the measures presented in Table 14–5 of your textbook intended to reduce occupational violence? Demonstrates the steps the employer and the employee needs to take to prevent workplace violence 10. What five key elements does Braverman focus on for preventing workplace violence? 75. The employer needs to establish clear policies and procedures to guide all elements of the work environment. 76. All members of the workplace need training in those policies and procedures. 77. The employer and the employees need access to medical and mental health expertise in order to assess/address potential problematic situations and individuals. 78. The employer needs to establish clear, commonsense policies and procedures for terminations and layoffs. 79. The employer needs to be able to identify signals for violence in order to take appropriate actions before the violence actually occurs. 11. What are five bases for making a claim of employer negligence in a thirdparty lawsuit? 80. Negligent Hiring 81. Negligent Retention 82. Negligent Supervision 83. Negligent Training 84. Negligent Security 12. Use the information contained in Table 14–7 of your textbook to determine whether lethal violence at school is a problem? Lethal violence at school is relatively rare 13. Use Table 14–9 of your textbook and identify the most common forms of bullying. Made fun of, called names/insulted, subject of rumors, pushed, shoved, tripped, or spit on, and cyberbullying 14. How pervasive is fear of crime among students? A common problem expressed by students. 3.7% of students fear attack at school, and 2.4% fear attack on the way to or from school 15. What kind of avoidance behaviors do students tend to invoke? Staying home from school, going hungry to avoid cafeterias, not using bathrooms, arrive late for class due to avoidance of certain halls, or refraining to take part in extracurricular activities. 16. How does fear of school victimization influence selfprotection behaviors? Students feel they can fight back and/or protect themselves by carrying weapons for protection 17. What findings emerge from the 2011 NCVS School Crime Supplement report? 5.5% of students avoid school, school activities, and/or specific places at school due to fear of attack or harm. 18. Use Table 14–11 of your textbook and discuss any three warning signs for potential violence in schools? 85. Has engaged in violent behavior in the past 86. Has tantrums and uncontrollable angry outbursts abnormal for someone that age 87. Reflects excessive anger in writing projects 19. What are some physical prevention responses to school victimization? Installing metal detectors at entrances, locking all but one door to outsiders, requiring everyone to wear ID badges, installing closed circuit TV monitors, and hiring guards for the halls and the building. 20. Discuss the Clery Act provisions that deal with college campus safety. Colleges/universities forward victimization statistics and other information to the U.S. Department of Education for tabulation 21. What three observations can you make about oncampus crime based on the information contained in Table 14–13 of your textbook? 88. Murder is the least occurring type of on campus violent crimes 89. Burglary is the highest occurring type 90. Public Schools 4 year or above are the most susceptible to murders 22. What are two ways in which sexual harassment differs from other forms of victimization? First, sexual harassment often does not involve an actual physical assault, and secondly, the criminal justice system rarely deals with sexual harassment infractions 23. What does the phrase “quid pro quo sexual harassment” mean? Translates to "this for that" When a person in authority demands sexual favors for employment decisions or expectations. 24. What does the phrase “hostile environment” mean in terms of sexual harassment? Displaying pictures of naked people at work, telling crude sexual jokes, touching a person, or commenting about how "sexy" a person looks in certain clothing. victim is made to feel uncomfortable. 25. Explain the Equal Employment Opportunities Commission definition of sexual harassment that appears in Table 14–15 of your textbook. "Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment, submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual, or that such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individuals work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment." 26. How extensive is sexual harassment? Sexual Harassment is extensive, and rarely documented
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