BSC 216 Exam 1 Study Guide
BSC 216 Exam 1 Study Guide BSC 216
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This 29 page Study Guide was uploaded by Caroline Laird on Tuesday February 10, 2015. The Study Guide belongs to BSC 216 at University of Alabama - Tuscaloosa taught by Dr. Pienaar in Winter2015. Since its upload, it has received 210 views. For similar materials see Anatomy & Physiology II in Art at University of Alabama - Tuscaloosa.
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AampP II Exam 1 Study Guide 21015 631 PM Define hormone and endocrine system Hormones are chemical messengers that are transported by the bloodstream and stimulate physiological responses in cells of another tissue or organ 0 The endocrine system is made up of glands tissues and cells that secrete hormones to communicate signals from one organ to another Name the organs of the endocrine system Pineal gland Hypothalamus Pituitary gland Thyroid gland Thymus Adrenal gland Pancreas Parathyroid glands Gonads ovary and testis Contrast exocrine with endocrine glands Exocrine Glands o Ductssecrete substances through duct onto an epithelial surface such as the skin or the mucosa of the digestive tract 0 Extracellular effectsdigestion of food Endocrine Glands o No ductsrelease secretions into the bloodstream o Intracellular effectsalter cell metabolism 0 High density of blood capillaries pick up and carry away their hormones o Fenestrated capillariesthese types of capillaries have patches of large pores in their walls that allow for easy uptake of matter from the gland tissue Compare and contrast the nervous and endocrine systems 0 Nervous System Endocrine System Communicates by means of hormones Hormones are released into the bloodstream Sometimes has very general widespread effects Reacts and stops slowly after stimulus ends Adapts slowly 000000 What are neuroendocrine cells 0 Neuroendocrine cells are neurons that release their secretions into the bloodstream Describe the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland The pituitary gland suspends from the hypothalamus by the infundibulum Distinguish between the anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary Anterior lobealso known as the adenohypophysis outgrowth of the pharynx made up of pars tuberalis pars intermedia and pars distalis Posterior lobealso known as the neurohypophysis downgrowth from brain made up of the infundibular stalk and pars nervosa Explain how the pituitary is controlled by the hypothalamus and its target organs 0 Has 8 hormones o 6 regulate adenohypophysis 4 promote secretion of pituitary hormones and 2 inhibit secretion of pituitary hormones o 2 regulate neurohypophysis neuroendocrine reflex arcs in hypothalamus Describe the effects of growth hormone Stimulates mitosis and cellular differentiation to promote widespread tissue growth Be able to list all organs other than the Hypothalamus and Pituitary that produce hormones Pineal gland Thymus gland Thyroid gland Parathyroid glands Adrenal glands Pancreas Gonads Adrenal cortex What tissues and organs have a secondary function of secreting hormones Kidney liver heart and gonads Identify the three chemical classes to which most hormones belong Steroids Monoamines Peptides Describe in general how the three types of hormones are synthesized No need to get into the detail of monoamine synthesis on pages 658660 0 Steroid hormones o Synthesized from cholesterol and differ mainly in the fxnl groups attached to the fourringed steroid backbone Peptide hormones o Synthesized the same way as any other protein 0 The gene for the hormone is transcribed to form a molecule of mRNA and ribosomes translate the mRNA and assemble amino acids in the right order to make the hormone o The newly synthesized polypeptide is an inactive preprohormone Monoamine hormones o Synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine Describe how hormones are transported to their target organs 0 Hormones are transported through the blood from an endocrine cell to a target cell 0 Blood is made up of mostly water How do hydrophilic and hydrophobic hormones differ in their transport 0 Hydrophilic hormones do not have a problem mixing with the blood plasma so they do not experience any problems transporting Hyrdophobic hormones must bind to hydrophilic transport proteins to get to their destination Can bound or unbound hormones leave the blood capillary Only the unbound hormone can leave a blood capillary and get to a target cell Describe how hormones stimulate their target cells 0 Hormones only stimulate cells that have receptors for them The receptors act like switches to turn certain metabolic pathways on or off when the hormone binds to them How do steroid and thyroid hormones stimulate their target cells 0 Hormones enter the targetcell nucleus and act directly on the genes changing targetcell physiology by either activating or inhibiting transcription of the gene for a metabolic enzyme or other protein 0 The receptor associates with the target gene in the nucleus controlling its transcription Are steroid and thyroid hormones hydrophilic or hydrophobic o HYDROPHOBIC In general how do peptides and catecholamines stimulate target cells Are they hydrophilic or hydrophobic To stimulate target cells they bind to cell surface receptors which are linked to secondmessenger systems on the other side of the plasma membrane 0 They stimulate indirectly Hydrophilic What is enzymatic amplification 0 Enzymatic amplification is a mechanism in which one hormone molecule triggers the synthesis of not just one enzyme molecule but an enormous number o This contributes to the potency of hormones because of the idea that one hormone molecule produces thousands of enzymes Therefore target cells do not need a great number of hormone receptors Explain how target cells regulate their sensitivity to circulating hormones 0 Target cells can regulate their sensitivity to circulating hormones by changing the number of receptors for it How does up regulation differ from downregulation In upregulation a cell increases the number of hormone receptors and becomes more sensitive to the hormone Ex in late pregnancy the uterus produces oxytocin receptors in preparation for the surge of oxytocin that will occur during childbirth Downregulation is the process in which a cell reduces its receptor population and thus becomes less sensitive to a hormone Sometimes happens in response to longterm exposure to a high hormone concentration Ex Adipocytes downregulate when exposed to high concentrations of insulin cells of the testis downregulate in response to high concentrations of luteinizing hormone Discuss how hormones are removed from circulation after they have performed their roles 0 most are taken up and degraded by the liver and kidneys and then excreted in the bile or urine 0 some are degraded by their target cells 0 those that bind to transport proteins are removed from the blood much slower than the hormones that do not employ transport proteins Explain some general causes and examples of hormone hyposecretion and hypersecretion Hyposecretion o inadequate hormone release o CAUSE tumors or lesions that destroy and endocrine gland or interfere with its ability to receive signals from another gland autoimmune diseases 0 EXAMPLES Diabetes insipidus chronic polyuria without glucose in the urine Diabetes mellitus Hypersecretion o excessive hormone release 0 CAUSES certain autoimmune disorders tumors formed bc of overgrowth of a functional endocrine tissue like pheochromocytoma excess or longterm clinical administration of hormones such as cortisol o EXAMPLES toxic goiter Briefly describe some common disorders of pituitary and thyroid function Pituitary o Acromegaly thickening of the bones and soft tissues with especially noticeable effects on the hands feet and face 0 Gigantism result of GH hypersecretion o Pituitary dwarfism result of GH hyposecretion Thyroid o Congenital hypothyroidism thyroid hyposecretion present from birth 0 Myxedema caused by severe or prolonged adult hypothyroidism o Endemic goiter abnormality of the thyroid result of a deficiency of dietary iodine o Hypoparathyroidism causes a rapid decline in blood calcium level and leads to fatal tetany within 34 days 0 Hyperparathyroidism excess PTH secretion usually caused by a parathyroid tumor Causes bones to become soft and fragile raises blood levels of Ca and Phospate ions promotes formation of renal calculi In more detail describe the causes and pathology of diabetes mellitus 0 Diabetes Mellitus DM is a disruption of carb fat and protein metabolism resulting from hyposecretion or inaction of insulin o SignsSymptoms the 3 polysquot polyuria polydipsia and polyphagia 0 Pathology kidneys filter blood plasma and convert the filtrate to urine In a healthy person the kidney tubules remove all glucose from the filtrate and return it to the blood so there is little or no glucose in the urine However there is a limit to how fast the glucose transporters of the kidney can work In DM glucose enters the tubules so rapidly that it exceeds the transport maximum and the tubules cannot reabsorb it fast enough The excess passes through into the urine The osmolarity is increased by the glucose an ketones which causes osmotic diuresis which accounts for the polyuria dehydration and thirst What is type 1 What is type 2 What are their causes and treatments 0 Type 1 0 Causes heredity autoimmune immunoglobulins destroy Beta cells in islets of Langerhanslack of insulin 0 Treatments Insulin injection 0 Type 2 0 Causes genetic poor diet target cells become unresponsive O to insulin adipose tissue secretes hormones that interfere with glucose transport into most cells Treatments MAYBE insulin but diet and exercise management most effective Can you name at least 3 major functions of blood and provide examples 0 Transport OOOOO Carrying oxygen from lungs to all body tissues Transporting nutrients from digestive tract to all body tissues Carries metabolic wastes to the kidneys for removal Hormone transport Stem cell transport from bone marrow to tissues for maturation Protection Inflammation limits spread of infection WBC destroy microorganisms and cancer cells Antibodies and other blood proteins neutralize toxins and help to destroy pathogens Platelets secrete factors that initiate blood clotting and other processes for minimizing blood loss Regulation 0 By absorption or giving off fluid blood capillaries help to stabilize fluid distribution in the body By buffering acids and bases blood proteins help to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids Shifts in blood flow help to regulate body temperature by routing blood to the skin for heat loss or retaining it deeper in the body to conserve heat What is a formed element Formed elements are cells and cell fragments including the red blood cells white blood cells and platelets They are suspended in the plasma What is plasma What types of things are dissolved in plasma Plasma makes up the extracellular matrix of blood it is a clear light yellow fluid constituting a little over half of the blood volume A mixture of water proteins nutrients electrolytes nitrogenous wastes hormones and gases are dissolved in plasma These components of plasma are continuously replaced in the body 0 HOW Gamma globulins come from plasma cells Most proteins are produced by the liver Water nutrients and electrolytes are obtained through absorption in the digestive tract Plasma Proteins o Albumin Most abundant plasma protein Functions n Transports various solutes a pH buffering of plasma a Contributes majorly to blood viscosity and osmoarity 0 Due to its effects on these 2 variables changes in albumin concentration can significantly affect blood volume pressure and flow 0 Globulins o Fibrinogen Why is blood not a typical connective tissue 0 it is the only liquid CT it lacks collagen and elastic fibers What are the 3 primary cellular components of blood Erythrocytes Platelets Leukocytes Approximately what volume of blood does plasma occupy 476300 Do erythrocytes have nuclei 0 No What is the benefit of erythrocytes being flattened Maximizes ratio of cell surface area to volume and thereby promotes the quick diffusion of oxygen to all of the hemoglobin in the cell 0 Enables dense slurry of RBCs to flow through the larger blood vessels with a smooth laminar flow that minimizes turbulence Easiest most stable shape for the cell and its cytoskeleton to relax into when the nucleus is removed What is hemoglobin What is it composed of specifically What is its function Transports oxygen 0 Consists of 4 protein chains called globulins Alpha chains 0 Beta chains 0 Each protein chain is conjugated with a nonprotein moiety called the heme group which binds oxygen to a ferrous ion Fe2 at its center 0 Each heme can carry one molecule of oxygen 0 So hemoglobin can transport up to 4 02 Hemoglobin exists in several forms 0 Adult hemoglobin HbA and HbAz 0 Fetal hemoglobin HbF What is hematopoiesis The production of all types of blood cells including formation development and differentiation of blood cells Where is most of the red bone marrow located 0 In flat bones such as hip bone breast bone skull ribs vertebrae and shoulder blades and in the cancellous spongy material at the proximal ends of the log bones femur and humerus Can you describe the process of erythropoiesis including the types of stem cells from which erythrocytes are derived what commitment means what happens during the different phases when they eject the nucleus and why it s important to know how many reticulocytes are being produced Page 686 1 Hemopoietic stem cell becomes an erythrocyte colonyforming unit ECFU which has receptors for the hormone erythropoietin 2 EP0 stimulates ECFU to transorm into an erythroblast which multiplies and synthesizes hemoglobin 3 The nucleus shrivels and is discharged from the cell to form reticulocytes 4 Reticulocytes leave the bone marrow and enter the circulating blood 5 The last of the polyribosomes disintegrate and disappear and the cell is a mature erythrocyte Hemopoletic Ervmrocvte colony Erythroblasts Betlculocytes Emma stem cell forming unit 7 erythropoietin Nucleus Reticulocytes Expressnon of receptors stimulates amp organelles leave bone for Emhmpmetm erythroblasts shrivel and are marrow to multiply expelled from polyribosomes amp produce the cell to dlsmtegrate to hemoglobin form reticulocytes become erythrocytes 9 I K Can you explain why it s important to maintain proper erythrocyte counts in the blood 0 A drop in RBC count may result in a state of hypoxemia which is an oxygen deficiency in the blood 0 To remain in homeostasis Which hormone is responsible for maintaining blood oxygen homeostasis eg correcting for hypoxia How does the process of maintaining blood oxygen homeostasis work Hormone erythropoietin EPO Hypoxemia inadequate 02 transport is sensed by liver and kidneys Liver and kidneys secrete EPO Red bone marrow is stimulated Accelerated erythropoiesis Increased RBC count Increased Oxygen transport PWPWNE How are erythrocytes destroyed Where does the iron go What are the heme pigments transformed into and where do they go for excretion 0 As erythrocytes RBC age their membrane proteins deteriorate and the membrane becomes very fragile 0 They die in the spleen 0 Old cells become trapped broken up and destroyed Hemolysis rupture of RBC 0 Hemoglobin is released and leaves empty plasma membranes Membrane fragments are digested by macrophages in the liver and spleen The iron is broken down for storage reuse and some is lost by menstruation injury etc 0 The heme pigments are transformed into irm and biliverdin o For excretion billiverdin is converted to bilirubin which is converted to bile which is converted to feces to be excreted o For excretion iron is stored reused and excreted through injury menstruation etc What is anemia and can you distinguish between the major types 0 Anemia is a deficiency of either RBCs or hemoglobin o Inadequate erythropoiesis Kidney failure Iron and 812 deficiency Pernicious anemia n Antibodies destroy stomach tissue a Affects elderly Hypoplastic anemia n Caused by a decline in erythropoiesis Aplastic anemia n Caused by complete failure or destruction of the myeloid tissue 0 Hemorrhagic anemia Excessive blood loss Trauma hemophilia menstruation ulcer ruptured aneurysm etc o Hemolytic anemia RBC destruction Sickle cell anemia n HbS low oxygen affinity Agglutination causes sickle shapes 0 Destruction in spleen Malaria n Parasites destroy host cells erythrocytes n Infected cells destroyed in spleen n Adhesive proteins and sequestration Cerebral malaria Do leukocytes possess nuclei and organelles 0 YES What is the main role of leukocytes Protect against infection and other diseases What is diapedesis and how does it relate to the primary function of leukocytes Diapedesis is the ability of WBCs to travel out of capillaries and into tissues inflammatory response 0 Diapedesis allows WBCs to go into tissues so that they can fight off the harmful bacteria cells What is positive chemotaxis and how does it relate to leukocyte behavior 0 Positive chemotaxis is the amoeboid motion triggered by chemical cues that are released by damaged cells 0 Causes leukocytes to move towards harmful cells in order to fight them off and get rid of them How can you identify granulocytes under the microscope Neutrophils o Nucleus usually with 35 lobes in S or Cshaped array Ie They have nuclei of various shapes 0 Fine reddish to violet granules in cytoplasm Eosinophils o Nucleus usually has 2 large lobes connected by thin strand 0 Large orangepink granules in cytoplasm Basophils o Nucleus large and U to Sshaped but typically pale and obscured from view 0 Coarse abundant dark violet granules in cytoplasm What are the 3 major types of granulocytes Their functions Neutrophils o Phagocytize bacteria Ie Respond to bacterial infections 0 Release antimicrobial chemicals 0 Most abundant leukocyte Eosinophils o Phagocytize antigenantibody complexes allergens and inflammatory chemicals 0 Release enzymes that weaken or destroy parasites such as worms Basophils o Secrete histamine a vasodilator which increases blood flow to a tissue 0 Secrete heparin an anticoagulant which promotes mobility of other WBCs by preventing clotting What are the 2 major types of agranuloctyes Their functions 1 Lymphocytes Functions of lymphocytes 0 Destroy cancer cells cells infected with viruses and foreign cells 0 Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system 0 Secrete antibodies 0 Serve in immune memory 2 Monocytes Iargest type of leukocyte found circulating in the blood Functions of monocytes o Differentiate into macrophages 0 Phagocytize pathogens dead neutrophils and debris of dead cells 0 Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system 0 Monocyte count increases during Which types of chemicals trigger Colonystimulating factors CSFs o Secreted by mature lymphocytes and macrophages in response to infections and other immune challenges 0 Each CSF stimulates a different WBC type to develop in response to specific needs Ex a bacterial infection may trigger the production of neutrophils whereas an allergy stimulates eosinophil production each process working through its own CSF Which type of primary stem cell gives rise to ALL leukocytes Hemopoietic stem cells Which type of secondary stem cell gives rise to granulocytes and monocytes Granulocytes Eosinophilic Basophilic and Neutrophilic Colony forming units CFUs Monocytes Monocytic CFU Which type of secondary stem cell gives rise to the lymphocytes 0 Lymphocytic CFU How does the differentiation process differ for granulocytes and monocytes Granulocytes Monocytes How does the differentiation process differ for monocytes and lymphocytes 0 Monocytes Lymphocytes l What are platelets Which hormone triggers their development What kind of stem cell are they derived from What is unique about the megakaryocyte Platelets are not cells but small fragments of marrow cells called megakaryocytes 0 2nd most abundant formed elements Thrombopoietin is the hormone that triggers their development 0 Secreted from the liver and kidneys Platelets are derived from the hemopoietic stem cells Megakaryocyte 0 Upon secretion of thrombopoietin from the liverkidneys meqakaryoblasts are formed which are cells committed to the platelet producing line It duplicates its DNA repeatedly without undergoing nuclear or cytoplasmic division resulting in megakaryocyte a mature cell Gigantic in size Visible to the naked eye Multilobed nucleus Multiple sets of chromosomes Platelets are produced by the shearing of proplatelets from a megakaryocyte OOOOO Define hemostasis Hemostasis is a term for clot formation There are 3 hemostatic mechanisms 1 Vascular spasm temporary 2 Platelet plug formation 3 Fibrin mesh formation aka blood clottingcoagulation traps RBC What is the first step of hemostasis What exactly is a vascular spasm and how does it prevent blood loss 0 Vascular spasm first step of hemostasis o A prompt constriction of the broken vessel 0 Most immediate protection against blood loss 0 HOW Injury stimulates pain receptors so some directly innervate nearby blood vessels amp cause them to constrict The injury to the smooth muscle of the blood vessel itself causes a longerlasting vasoconstriction and platelets release serotonin a chemical vasoconstrictor Ie Vasoconstriction of a broken vessel reduces bleeding How does a platelet plug form What s the role of collagen Platelet plug formation 0 It forms as platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers of the vessel wall the platelet plug temporarily seals the break 1 Contact with collagen of a broken vessel or another rough surface 2 Platelets grow long spiny pseudopods Platelets stick to each other 4 The pseudopods then contract and draw the vessel walls together 5 This mass of platelets forms a platelet plug 0 Role of collagen 0 When a vessel is broke collagen fibers of its wall are exposed to blood So upon contact with collagen platelets grow long U spiny pseudopods that adhere to the vessel and to other platelets o Ie Exposure of collagen fibers provides a surface for platelets to attach What is the general series of events that promotes fibrin mesh formation beginning with the platelet plug and ending with a fibrin clot page 704 1 2 3 The platelet plug forms preventing blood loss Clotting factors are released Fibrin Formation polymerization of fibrinogen catalyzed by thrombin Thrombin helps us convert fibrinogen to fibrin Fibrin fibers form mesh that traps red blood cells Why is important to understand your blood type In case of emergency where a blood transfusion is needed you need to know your blood type so you can have a safe transfusion If you do not know it and you get the wrong blood type it it potentially fatal What is the antigen agglutinogen What is the antibody agglutinin Aqqlutination a method of antibody action in which each antibody molecule binds to 2 or more antigen molecules and sticks them together Agglutinogen are antigens on the surfaces of the RBCs and antibodies agglutinins Agglutinins are antibodies in the blood plasma They interact to agglutinate RBCs in the event of a mismatched transfusion What types of antigens and antibodies are found in people with A B AB and 0 blood types Blood Type Antigens Antibodies A A AntiB B B AntiA AB A B None 0 None AntiA AntiB If asked whether a certain blood type eg A could be donated to a person with another blood type eg AB would you be able to tell me if they are compatibleand why 0 A can donate to AB because AB has no antibodies Antigen letter is same as blood type letter 0 Antibody letter is the opposite than the blood type letter 0 You can t receive something you don t already have 0 EX Type AB blood could not be donated to type A blood because type A blood does not have the B antigen 0 Type O is the universal donor 0 Type AB is the universal recipient Most Common Type O o Rarest Type AB 0 Ex 0 type A can receive A amp O 0 type B can receive B amp O 0 type AB can receive A B AB amp O 0 type 0 can only receive type 0 Could you do the same as in the above bullet when adding Rh antigens into the mix 0 Means you DO NOT have the Rh antigen 0 Have the ability to make the antibody Means you DO have the Rh antigen 0 Do not have the ability to make the antibody 0 Y tibody 0 Ex A can receive A O A can receive A A 0 0 B can receive B O B can receive B B 0 O 0000 AB can receive AB A B O AB can receive all blood types 0 can receive only 0 0 can receive 0 O 0000 Can you describe why it is important to consider Rh factors in couples that plan to have a child 0 Because if the mom is Rh carrying an Rh fetus there are risks of agglutination in future births 0 At time of birth or a miscarriage placental tearing can expose Rh mother to Rh from fetus which would cause her to produce AntiD antibodies so if she had another baby down the road the antiD antibodies produced form the previous birth could pass through the placenta and agglutinate he fetal RBC Agglutinated RBC hemolyze and the baby would be born with a severe anemia hemolytic disease of the newborn HDN or erythroblastosis 0 Important to know so they can take proper precautions to prevent HDN by using Rh immune globulin What is the medial thoracic cavity in which the heart sits Mediastinum What is the membranous sac surrounding the heart 0 Pericardium Where are the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium located 0 Parietal outer wall of pericardium lining the pericardial cavity 0 Visceral AKA epicardium inner wall covering the heart What is the function of serous membranes and associated fluid 0 Functions as lubrication to reduce frictionresistance o Ie To allow the heart to beat with minimal friction Can you identify the right and left atria and ventricles of the heart 0 Right and left atria thin walled superior to ventricles o R and L ventricles inferior to atria o R ventricle most of anterior aspect of heart 0 L ventricle forms the apex and inferoposterior aspect thick myocardium Which internal structures divide the right and left atria and ventricles Atria interatrial septum Ventricles interventricular septum Which external structures can you use to delineate the atria from the ventricles Coronary atrioventricular sulcus Which external structures can you use to delineate the two ventricles of the heart 0 Anteriorposterior interventricular sulci Do atria receive or discharge blood 0 Receive Starting at the right atrium can you describe the flow of blood through each structure of the heart ending at the aorta Distinguish between the pulmonary and systemic circuit carries blood to and from lungs for gas exchange carries blood to and from every organ of the body 1 Blood enters right atrium from superior and inferior vena cava 2 Blood in right atrium flows through right AV valve tricuspid valve into the right ventricle 3 Contraction of the right ventricle forces the pulmonary valve open 7 Blood in left atrium flows through left AV valve bicuspid valve into the left ventricle 8 Contraction of the left ventricle at the same time as contraction of right ventricle step 3 forces the aortic valve open Sequence of blood flow regarding chambers 1 Right atrium 2 Right ventricle 3 Left atrium 4 Left ventricle Pulmonary Circulation vs Systemic Circulation 0 Pulmonary circulation pumps deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart into the pulmonary trunk which divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries R and L pulmonary arteries transport the blood to the air sacs of the lungs where C02 is exchanged for 02 Oxygenated blood then flows by way of the pulmonary veins to the left side of the heart Systemic circulation pumps oxygenated blood from the left side of the heart to the body tissues where 02 is traded for C02 Deoxygenated blood is pumped back to the right side of the heart by way of the superior and inferior vena cava From which veins does the right atrium receive blood And where are these veins bringing blood from 0 Superior and inferior vena cava They are bringing deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body From which veins does the left atrium receive blood And where are these veins bringing blood from 0 Right and left pulmonary veins 0 They bring oxygenated from the lungs Do ventricles receive or discharge blood 0 Discharge Where does the right ventricle pump blood to 0 Through pulmonary valve into pulmonary trunk Where does the left ventricle pump blood to 0 Through aortic valve into ascending aorta What are the papillary muscles Where are they located 0 Muscles that prevent the AV valves from flipping inside out or bulging into the atria when the ventricles contract 0 Located on the floor of the ventricles 0 Each has 2 or 3 basal attachments to the trabecule carneae of the heart wall 0 They govern the timing of electrical excitation of the papillary muscles 0 Provide redundancy that protects an AV valve from complete mechanical failure if one attachment failed Starting at the right ventricle can you take me through the pulmonary and systemic circuits of blood flow 0 Above with pathway of blood flow through heart What is the primary difference between arteries and veins Veins bring blood back to heart Arteries transport blood away from the heart What are the differences in anatomy between the left and right ventricles Why 0 Left ventricle forms the apex and inferoposterior aspect 0 Very thick muscular wall Because it bears the greatest workload of all 4 chambers as it pumps blood throughout the entire body 0 Right ventricle makes up most of the anterior aspect of the heart 0 Moderately muscular wall Why must the heart have its own set of coronary arteries and veins 0 To provide nutrients and oxygen to the heart so it can provide the rest of the body with the same It needs energy Which arteries branch from the left coronary artery 0 Anterior interventricular branch 0 Circumflex branch left marginal branch Which arteries branch from the right coronary artery 0 Right marginal branch 0 Posterior interventricular branch Into which atrium does the coronary sinus empty 0 Right atrium Which vessels merge into the coronary sinus 0 Great cardiac vein 0 Posterior interventricular vein 0 Left marginal vein What causes myocardial infarction Why is it important to catch artery blockage before a heart attack occurs 0 Causes a fatty deposit or blood clot in a coronary artery 0 Important to catch before it occurs because interruption to the blood supply in the heart can cause necrosis within minutes In which direction does blood flow within the heart 0 From the right atrium and comes back in through the left atrium What is the primary function of the atrioventricular AV valves 0 Regulate the openings between the atria and ventricles Where are the AV valves located 0 Between each atrium and its ventricle and there s another at the exit from each ventricle into its great artery What is the main anatomical difference between the tricuspid and mitral valves Tricuspid valve has 3 cuspids Mitral bicuspid valve has 2 cuspids Which of the AV valves is located between the right atrium and right ventricle Tricuspid valves Which of the AV valves is located between the left atrium and left ventricle Mitral bicuspid valves What is the function of the papillary muscles and chordae tendinae heart strings Chordae tendinae connect the valve cusps to papillary muscle 0 They prevent the AV valves from flipping inside out or bulging into the atria when the ventricles contract 0 They are parachute shaped so that they inflate when the pressure underneath the value tissue increases and when they deflate completely block off the passage so nothing can go in and nothing can come out o The cusps are pushed open and closed by changes in blood pressure hat occur as the heart chambers contract and relax Where are the semilunar valves located 0 Where the aortic and pulmonary valves are What is the primary function of the semilunar valves Regulate blood flow from the ventricles into the great arteries Which of the semilunar valves is located between the left ventricle and the aorta 0 Pulmonary valve Which of the semilunar valves is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery 0 Aortic valve How can cardiac muscle be distinguished from skeletal muscle Intercalated disks 0 1 nucleus in the cardiomyocyte What is the function of intercalated discs Desmosomes Gap junctions Intercalated discs connect cardiocytes through folds and junc ons Desmosomes prevent the contracting cardiocytes from pulling apart 0 Gap junctions form channels that allow ions to flow from the cytoplasm of one cardiocyte directly into the next enable each cardiocyte to electrically stimulate its neighbors What is the benefit for cardiac muscle of having lots of mitochondria Bc mitochondira produces ATP energy and the heart needs a lot of energy to continuously supply the body with blood Independent pacemaker What are the 5 locations for autorhythmic cardiac cells Are autorhytmic cardiac cells contractile What is their main function Sinoatrial SA node atrioventricular AV node atrioventricular AV bundle of his purkinje fibers atria Autorhythmic cells are not contractile but they are selfstimulating myogenic and contract without any external stimulation autorhythmic Which ion leaks through open channels in the autorhythmic cardiac cells to generate a slow depolarization current the pacemaker potential Na sodium ions Which ion is responsible for the rapid rise in membrane potential action potential associated with muscle contraction 0 Calcium ions Ca2 Can you take me through the series of events involving authorhythmic cardiac cells that is responsible for propagating impulses from the SA node to the ventricles 1 SA node fires Excitation spreads through atrial myocardium AV node fires Excitation spreads down AV bundle Purkinje fibers distribute excitation through ventricular myocardium The signal slows because the cardiocytes in the AV node are thinner and also because the AV node has fewer gap junctions over which the signal can be transmitted The delay is essential bc it gives the ventricles time to fill with blood before they begin to contract hWN In addition to the authorhythmic cells which other factors influence heart contraction eg the rate and force with which the heart contracts 0 Parasympathetic stimulation slows heart rate Sympathetic nerves stimulation speeds up heart rate Which heart behavior does the Pwave of an EKG correspond to 0 When a signal from the sinoatrial SA node spreads through the atria and depolarizes them the atria o Ie Excitation of the atria atria depolarize and contract Which heart behavior does the QRS complex of an EKG correspond to 0 When the signal from the AV node spreads through the ventricular myocardium and depolarizes the muscle 0 Ie Ventricular depolarization Which heart behavior does the T wave of an EKG correspond to Ventricular repolarization immediately before diastole Can you tell me which authorhythmic regions are associated with the Pwave and QRS complex of an EKG Pwave SA node 0 QRS complex AV node What is systole Contraction What is diastole 0 Relaxation Clicker Quizzes 21015 631 PM The SA node will fire on its own at regular intervals bc of a grad depol of its cells This is called the pacemaker potential and is generated by a steady leaky inflow of sodium ions Ventricular depolarization is identified on an EKG as the QRS complex whereas ventricular repolarization is identified as the L wave Muscular arteries most abundant vasoconstriction
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