Exam 3 Study Guide
Exam 3 Study Guide Psyc 2010-003
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This 40 page Study Guide was uploaded by Alise Robison on Monday April 25, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to Psyc 2010-003 at Clemson University taught by Chong Hyon Pak in Winter 2016. Since its upload, it has received 308 views. For similar materials see Introduction to Psychology in Psychlogy at Clemson University.
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Chapter 10: Intelligence Vocabulary: Achievement Test: a test designed to assess what a person has learned. Aptitude Test: a test designed to predict a person’s future performance; aptitude is the capacity to learn. Cohort: a group of people from a given time period. Content Validity: the extent to which a test samples the behavior that is of interest. Creativity: the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas. Crystallized Intelligence: our accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase with age. Down Syndrome: a condition of mild to severe intellectual disability and associated physical disorders caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21. Emotional Intelligence: the ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions. Factor Analysis: a statistical procedure that identifies clusters of related items (factors) on a test; used to identify different dimensions of performance that underlie a person’s total score. Fluid Intelligence: our ability to reason speedily and abstractly; tends to decrease during late adulthood General Intelligence: a general intelligence factor that, according to Spearman and others, underlies specific mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test. Heritability: the proportion of variation among individuals that we can attribute to genes. The heritability of a trait may vary, depending on the range of populations and environments studied. Intellectual Disability: a condition of limited mental ability, indicated by an intelligence score of 70 or below and difficulty in adapting to the demands of life; varies from mild to profound. (Formerly referred to as mental retardation) Intelligence: mental quality consisting of the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations Intelligence Quotient (IQ): Intelligence Test: a method for assessing an individual’s mental aptitudes and comparing them with those of others, using numerical scores. Mental Age: a measure of intelligence test performance devised by Binet; the chronological age that most typically corresponds to a given level of performance. Thus, a child who does as well as the average 8-year-old is said to have a mental age of 8. Normal Curve: (normal distribution) a symmetrical, bell-shaped curve that describes the distribution of many types of data; most scores fall near the mean, or average (about 68 percent fall within one standard deviation of it) and fewer and fewer near the extremes. Predictive Validity: the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior. (Also called criterionrelated validity.) Reliability: the extent to which a test yields consistent results, as assessed by the consistency of scores on two halves of the test, or on retesting. Savant Syndrome: a condition in which a person otherwise limited in mental ability has an exceptional specific skill, such as in computation or drawing. Standardization: defining meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested group. Stanford-Binet: the widely used American revision (by Terman at Stanford University) of Binet’s original intelligence test. Stereotype Threat: a self-confirming concern that one will be evaluated and based on a negative stereotype. Validity: the extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS): the WAIS is the most widely used intelligence test; contains verbal and performance (nonverbal) subtests. Quiz Questions 1. Which procedure is used to identify different dimensions of performance that underlie people’s intelligence scores? a. Standardization b. Validation c. Heritability estimates d. Factor analysis ANSWER: D 2. Managers who want to foster creativity in the workplace should try to increase the ____ of their employees. a. Convergent thinking b. Factor analysis c. Intrinsic motivation d. Emotional intelligence ANSWER: C 3. When Pheobe strongly disagrees with her sister’s opinion, she effectively controls her own anger and responds with empathy to her sister’s frustration regarding their dispute. Her behavior best illustrates a. Factor analysis b. Analytic intelligence c. Divergent thinking d. Emotional intelligence ANSWER: D 4. The widely used American revision of Alfred Binet’s original intelligence test was developed by a. Charles Spearman b. Howard Gardner c. Lewis Terman d. Robert Sternberg ANSWER: C 5. A 9-year-old who responded to the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency of an average 12-year-old was said to have an IQ score of a. 75 b. 115 c. 125 d. 133 ANSWER: D 6. A test designed to assess whether newly graduated medical students should be granted the legal right to practice medicine would most likely be considered a(n) _______ test. a. G-factor b. Aptitude c. Factor analysis d. Achievement ANSWER: D 7. Before publishing her test of musical aptitude, Professor Reed first administered the test to a representative sample of people. This was most clearly necessary for test a. Standardization b. Reliability c. Heritability d. Validity ANSWER: A 8. When retested on the WAIS, people’s second scores generally match their first scores quite closely. This indicates that the test has a high degree of a. Reliability b. Content validity c. Heritability d. Predictive validity ANSWER: A 9. If course exams assess a student’s mastery of a representative sample of course material, they are said to a. Be reliable b. Have content validity c. Be standardized d. Have predictive validity ANSWER: C 10. Comparing the academic performance of those whose scores are extremely low on intelligence tests with those whose scores are extremely high is an effective way to highlight the tests’ a. Standardization b. Heritability c. Reliability d. Validity ANSWER: D 11. Comparing the intelligence test scores among people from distinctly different age cohorts requires a. Factor analysis b. Cross-sectional studies c. Heritability estimates d. Longitudinal studies ANSWER: B 12. Intelligence test scores are LEAST similar for a. Nontwin siblings reared together b. Fraternal twins reared together c. Identical twins reared together d. Identical twins reared apart ANSWER: A 13. With his concern for “mental orthopedicts,” Alfred Binet would have been most enthusiastic about a. Eugenics b. Factor analysis c. Head Start programs d. The normal curve ANSWER: C 14. Increasing years of schooling over the last half-century have most likely contributed to a. Stereotype threat b. The Flynn effect c. The normal curve d. Savant syndrome ANSWER: B 15. Stereotype threat is most likely to depress female students’ performance on a difficult ____ test and to depress male students’ performance on a difficult ____ test. a. Math problem-solving; verbal fluency b. Verbal fluency; math problem-solving c. Spatial abilities; athletic abilities d. Athletic abilities; spatial abilities ANSWER: A 16. Although diagnosed with autism and hardly able to speak coherently, 18-year-old Andrew can produce intricate and detailed drawings of scenes he has viewed only once. Andrew illustrates a condition known as a. G factor b. Down syndrome c. Emotional intelligence d. Savant syndrome ANSWER: D 17. Superior performance on the WAIS is most likely to be indicative of a. Sternberg’s concept of analytical intelligence b. Gardner’s concept of athletic intelligence c. Thurstone’s concept of social intelligence d. Salovey and Mayer’s concept of emotional intelligence ANSWER: A 18. University students who focus on the interest and challenge of their schoolwork rather than on simply meeting deadlines and securing good grades are especially likely to demonstrate a. Emotional intelligence b. Creativity c. Reliability d. Convergent thinking ANSWER: B 19. To learn whether intelligence is related to information- processing speed, researchers have tested participants to determine how long it takes them to a. Copy the letters of the alphabet b. Calculate intelligence quotients c. Count from 1 to 10 d. Perceive briefly present visual images ANSWER: D 20. The first modern test of intelligence was developed in a. Germany b. Britain c. France d. Italy ANSWER: C 21. A 6-year-old who responded to the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency typical of an average 9-year-old was said to have a mental age of a. 6 b. 9 c. 66 d. 150 ANSWER: B 22. A high school counselor gave Amy a test designed to predict whether she could learn to become a successful architect. Amy most likely took a(n) ____ test. a. Aptitude b. G factor c. Emotional intelligence d. Factor analysis ANSWER: A 23. A score on the WAIS that is higher than all but 2 percent of all scores earns an intelligence score of a. 115 b. 120 c. 130 d. 145 ANSWER: C 24. Some hereditarians have been fearful that higher twentieth-century birth rates among those with lower intelligence scores would shove average intelligence scores progressively downward. This fear has been most directly alleviated by the discovery of a. The normal curve b. The g factor c. Emotional intelligence d. The Flynn effect ANSWER: D 25. Mary’s bathroom scale always overstates people’s actual weight by exactly 6 pounds. This scale has ______ reliability and _____ validity. a. Low; high b. High; low c. Low; low; d. High; high ANSWER: B 26. University grades are used to assess the _____ of the SAT. a. Heritability b. Reliability c. Standardization d. Predictive validity ANSWER: D 27. The extent to which differences in intelligence among a group of people are attributable to genetic factors is known as the _____ of intelligence. a. Normal curve b. Factor analysis c. Predictive validity d. Heritability ANSWER: D 28. Girls are likely to outperform boys in a a. Spelling bee b. Math problem-solving test c. Computer-programming contest d. Chess tournament ANSWER: A 29. Compared with North American students, Asian students perform a. Better on math aptitude and achievement test and they spend less time studying. b. No better on math aptitude and achievements tests and they spend less time studying. c. Better on math aptitude and achievements tests and they spend more time studying. d. No better on math aptitude and achievements tests and they spend more time studying. ANSWER: C 30. Women have been found to score lower on math tests when they are tested alongside men. This best illustrates the impact of a. The Flynn effect b. Intrinsic motivation c. Emotional intelligence d. Stereotype threat ANSWER: D Chapter 11: Motivation and Work Vocabulary Achievement Motivation: a desire for significant accomplishment; for mastery of skills or ideas; for rapidly attaining a high standard. Basal Metabolic Rate: the body’s resting rate of energy expenditure. Drive Reduction Theory: the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need. Estrogens: sex hormones, such as estradiol, secreted in greater amounts by females than by males and contributing to female sex characteristics. In nonhuman female mammals, estrogen levels peak during ovulation, promoting sexual receptivity. Flow: a completely involved, focused state of consciousness, with diminished awareness of self and time, resulting from optimal engagement of one’s skills. Glucose: the form of sugar that circulates in the blood and provides the major source of energy for body tissues. When its level is low, we feel hunger. Homeostasis: a tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry, such as blood glucose, around a particular level. Human Factors Psychology: a subfield of I/O psychology that explores how people and machines interact and how machines and physical environments can be made safe and easy to use. Incentive: a positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior. Industrial Organizational (I/O) Psychology: the application of psychological concepts and methods to optimizing human behavior in workplaces. Instinct: a complex behavior that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned. Motivation: a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior. Organizational Psychology: a subfield of I/O psychology that examines organizational influences on worker satisfaction and productivity and facilitates organizational change. Personnel Psychology: a subfield of I/O psychology that focuses on employee recruitment, selection, placement, training, appraisal, and development. Refractory Period: a resting period after orgasm, during which a man cannot achieve another orgasm. Set Point: the point at which an individual’s “weight thermostat” is supposedly set. When the body falls below this weight, an increase in hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may act to restore the lost weight. Sexual Orientation: an enduring sexual attraction toward members of either one’s own sex (homosexual orientation) or the other sex (heterosexual orientation). Sexual Response Cycle: the four stages of sexual responding described by Masters and Johnson (excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution). Social Leadership: group-oriented leadership that builds teamwork, mediates conflict, and offers support. Structured Interviews: interview process that asks the same job-relevant questions of all applicants, each of whom is rated on established scales. Task Leadership: goal-oriented leadership that sets standards, organizes work, and focuses attention on goals. Testosterone: the most important of the male sex hormones. Both males and females have it, but the additional testosterone in males stimulates the growth of the male sex organs in the fetus and the development of the male sex characteristics during puberty. Quiz Questions 1. After spending years in the ocean, a mature salmon swims up its home river to return to its birthplace. This behavior is an example of a. Homeostasis b. A set point c. A refractory period d. An instinct ANSWER: D 2. Some students work hard in school to attain high grades. This best illustrates the importance of a. Homeostasis b. Set points c. Refractory periods d. Incentives ANSWER: D 3. Which of the following is a hunger-arousing hormone secreted by the hypothalamus? a. PYY b. Ghrelin c. Leptin d. Orexin ANSWER: D 4. In a classic experiment, obese patients whose daily caloric intake was dramatically reduced lost only 6% of their weight. This limited weight loss was due, in part, to the fact that their dietary restriction led to a(n) a. Decrease in their secretion of ghrelin b. Elevation of their set points c. Decrease in their metabolic rate d. Elevation of their blood glucose levels ANSWER: C 5. One gene scan of 40,000 people worldwide identified a variant of a gene called FTO. This gene nearly doubles the risk of a. Neophobia b. A low set point c. Erotic plasticity d. Obesity ANSWER: D 6. During which phase of the sexual response cycle does the refractory period begin? a. The plateau phase b. The resolution phase c. The excitement phase d. Orgasm ANSWER: B 7. The removal of a woman’s ovaries may contribute to decreasing sexual interest because her natural _____ level is _____. a. Testosterone; lowered b. Testosterone; raised c. PYY; lowered d. PYY; raised ANSWER: A 8. The fraternal birth-order effect refers to a factor associated with a. Task leadership b. Achievement motivation c. Eating disorders d. Sexual orientation ANSWER: D 9. When asked what is most necessary for a happy and meaningful life, most people first mention the importance of satisfying their ______ needs. a. Achievement b. Safety c. Sexual d. Belongingness ANSWER: D 10. The stress normally experienced by refugees is lessened by chain migration. This best illustrates the importance of ______ needs. a. Self-actualization b. Physiological c. Belongingness d. Sexual ANSWER: C 11. A completely focused state of consciousness resulting from optimal engagement of one’s skills is called a. Grit b. 360-degree feedback c. Transformational leadership d. Flow ANSWER: D 12. For each performance review, Professor Donnell is evaluated by her students, colleagues, department chair, and research assistants. This best illustrates a. Homeostasis b. The experience flow c. Human factors psychology d. 360-degree feedback ANSWER: D 13. Assessing the impact of different management styles on the motivation and productivity of employees best illustrates the professional concerns of a. Personnel psychology b. Clinical psychology c. Organizational psychology d. Human factors psychology ANSWER: C 14. Managers who build teamwork and effectively mediate employee conflicts are said to excel in a. Structured interviews b. Social leadership c. Achievement motivation d. A directive management style ANSWER: B 15. Human factors psychologists would be most likely to aid in the design of a. Employee weight-reduction programs b. Management training seminars c. User-friendly factory machinery d. Work-skills assessment tests. ANSWER: C 16. By motivating us to satisfy our physical needs, hunger and thirst serve to a. Raise the set point b. Maintain homeostasis c. Lower sex hormone levels d. Shorten the refractory period ANSWER: B 17. Need is to _____ as drive is to _____. a. Food deprivation; hunger b. Motivation; incentive c. Thirst; basal metabolic rate d. Instinct; incentive ANSWER: A 18. Feelings of hunger accompany ____ levels of blood glucose and ____ levels of ghrelin. a. Low; low b. High; high c. Low; high d. High; low ANSWER: C 19. Our weight thermostats are somewhat flexible and are influenced by environmental as well as biological factors. Some researchers have therefore adopted the term a. Relative deprivation b. Drive reduction c. Basal metabolic rate d. Settling point ANSWER: D 20. According to health psychologists, which of the following would be the BEST advice to offer someone who wants to lose excess weight? a. Avoid complex carbohydrates like potatoes and pasta b. Permanent weight loss requires a lifelong change in eating and exercise habits c. Your self-esteem will increase dramatically if you can successfully lose weight d. Once you lose your excess weight, you will experience a big reduction in your appetite for food ANSWER: B 21. Which of the following is indicative of a sexual disorder? a. Nocturnal emissions b. Premature ejaculation c. Erotic plasticity d. Refractory periods ANSWER: B 22. Teenage girls are especially vulnerable to ______ because of their lower levels of protective antibodies. a. Few refractory periods b. Obesity c. Srotic plasticity d. STIs ANSWER: D 23. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to sexual orientation? a. Virtually all cultures in all times have been predominantly heterosexual b. The environmental factors that influence sexual orientation are presently unknown c. Identical twins are somewhat more likely than fraternal twins to share a homosexual orientation d. With the help of a therapist, most people find it easy to change their sexual orientation ANSWER: D 24. Women, more than men, prefer to alternate periods of high sexual activity with periods of very little sexual activity. This best illustrates gender differences in a. Sexual orientation b. Erotic plasticity c. Refractory periods d. The sexual response cycle ANSWER: B 25. In one experiment, deeply-in-love university students experienced _____ when looking at their beloved’s picture. a. Narcissism b. Unit bias c. Ostracism d. Pain relief ANSWER: D 26. Our ______ is said to be a gauge of how socially accepted we feel. a. Set point b. Basal metabolic rate c. Erotic plasticity d. Self-esteem ANSWER: D 27. Work is most likely to be satisfying for employees if it is associated with a. Task leadership b. The experience of flow c. 360-degree feedback d. Unstructured interviews ANSWER: B 28. Personnel psychology is one of the main subfields of a. Organizational psychology b. Industrial-organizational psychology c. Human factors psychology d. Evolutionary psychology ANSWER: B 29. Achievement motivation refers to a. A goal oriented leadership style that builds teamwork b. A desire for significant accomplishment c. A need to feel that the world is organized and predictable d. A focused state of consciousness accompanied by diminished self-awareness ANSWER: C 30. Compared with ineffective managers, those who are effective are more likely to a. Use informal, unstructured interviews when selecting new employees b. Exercise a directive management style for achieving organizational goals c. Celebrate employee productivity by providing them with recognition and rewards d. Do all of these things ANSWER: C Chapter 12: Emotions, Stress, and Health Vocabulary Adaptation-level Phenomenon: our tendency to form judgements (of sounds, of lights, of income) relative to a neutral level defined by our prior experience Aerobic Exercise: sustained exercise that increases heart and lung fitness; may also alleviate depression and anxiety Canon Bard Theory: the theory that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers (1) physiological responses and (2) the subjective experience of emotion Catharsis: emotional release. In psychology, the catharsis hypothesis maintains that “releasing” aggressive energy (through action or fantasy) relieves aggressive urges Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM): as yet unproven health care treatments intended to supplement (complement) or serve as alternatives to conventional medicine, and which typically are not widely taught in medical schools, used in hospitals, or reimbursed by insurance companies. When research shows a therapy to be safe and effective, it usually then becomes part of accepted medical practice Coping: alleviating stress using emotional, cognitive, or behavioral methods Coronary Heart Disease: the clogging of the vessels that nourish the heart muscle; the leading cause of death in many developed countries Emotion: a response of the whole organism, involving physiological arousal, expressive behaviors, and conscious experience Emotion Focused Coping: attempting to alleviate stress by avoiding or ignoring a stressor and attending to emotional needs related to one’s stress reaction Facial Feedback Effect: the tendency of facial muscle states to trigger corresponding feelings such as fear, anger, or happiness Feel good, do good phenomenon: people’s tendency to be helpful when already in a good mood General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS):Selye’s concept of the body’s adaptive response to stress in three phases (alarm, resistance, exhaustion) Health Psychology: a subfield of psychology that provides psychology’s contribution to behavioral medicine James Lange Theory: the theory that our experience of emotion is our awareness of our physiological responses to emotion-arousing stimuli Lymphocytes: the two types of white blood cells that are part of the body’s immune system Polygraph: a machine, commonly used to detect lies, that measures several of the physiological responses accompanying emotion Problem Focused Coping: attempting to alleviate stress directly—by changing the stressor or the way we interact with that stressor Psychoneuroimmunology: the study of how psychological, neural, and endocrine processes together affect the immune system and resulting health Psychophysiological Illness: literally, “mind-body” illness; any stress related physical illness, such as hypertension and some headaches Stress: the process by which we perceive and respond to certain events, called stressors, that we appraise as threatening or challenging Tend and Befriend: under stress, people (especially women) often provide support to others (tend_ and bond with and seek support from others (befriend) Subjective Well Being: self perceived happiness or satisfaction with life. Used along with measure of objective well-being (for example, physical and economic indicators) to evaluate people’s quality of life Two Factor Theory: the Schachter-Singer theory that to experience emotion one must be physically aroused and cognitively label the arousal Type A: Friedman and Rosenman’s term for competitive, hard- driving, impatient, verbally aggressive, and anger-prone people Type B: Friedman and Rosenman’s term for easygoing, relaxed people Relative Deprivation: the perfeption that one is worse off relative to those whom one compares oneself Quiz 1. Evidence that emotion precedes physiological arousal would be most inconsistent with the ________. Evidence that emotion precedes mentally labeling our physiological arousal would be most inconsistent with the ________. a. Relative deprivation principle; adaptation-level phenomenon b. The adaptation-level phenomenon; relative deprivation principle c. James-Lange theory; two-factor theory d. Two-factor theory; the James-Lange theory ANSWER: C 2. When Mr. Morgan misinterpreted his harmless symptoms of autonomic nervous system arousal as indicative of an impending heart attack, he suffered an unusually intense level of fear. His emotional suffering is best understood in terms of the a. Catharsis hypothesis. b. James-Lange theory. c. Relative deprivation principle. d. Two-factor theory. ANSWER: D 3. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system a. Increases salivation and increases blood pressure. b. Decreases salivation and decreases blood pressure. c. Increases salivation and decreases blood pressure. d. Decreases salivation and increases blood pressure. ANSWER: D 4. A lie detector test is used to monitor a person's a. insulin levels. b. stomach contraction. c. brain activity. d. respiration. ANSWER: D 5. Some emotional responses to visual stimuli appear to involve no deliberate thinking. These emotional responses are said to follow a "low-road" pathway that bypasses the a. thalamus. b. amygdala. c. cerebral cortex. d. optic nerve. ANSWER: C 6. The instantaneous and automatic fear response we experience when unexpectedly stumbling upon a snake illustrates the importance of the a. amygdala. b. hypothalamus. c. pituitary gland. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: A 7. We find it especially difficult to detect from other people's facial expressions whether they are a. afraid. b. angry. c. lying. d. disgusted ANSWER: C 8. If you mimic another person's facial expressions of emotion, you probably will feel increasing empathy for that person. This is best explained in terms of a. the catharsis hypothesis. b. relative deprivation. c. the James-Lange theory. d. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ANSWER: C 9. Luciano believes that the best way to get over the anger he feels toward his high school teacher is to scream shameful profanities while hitting a punching bag. His belief best illustrates a. relative deprivation. b. the adaptation-level phenomenon. c. the catharsis hypothesis. d. the guilty knowledge test. ANSWER: C 10. After receiving exciting news about the birth of a healthy grandson, Mr. Haney was easily persuaded to contribute a generous sum of money to a neighborhood church. This best illustrates the a. two-factor theory. b. adaptation-level phenomenon. c. James-Lange theory. d. feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ANSWER: D 11. Professor Crane was ecstatic when he learned that his research study had been approved for publication. His feelings of joy quickly dissipated, however, when he heard a colleague recently had three different research articles accepted for publication. His declining emotional satisfaction is best explained in terms of a. the facial feedback effect. b. relative deprivation. c. the James-Lange theory. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: B 12. The fight-or-flight response is associated with the release of ________ into the bloodstream. a. serotonin b. carcinogens c. lymphocytes d. epinephrine ANSWER: D 13. Type A personality is to Type B personality as ________ is to _______. a. epinephrine; norepinephrine b. obesity; cancer c. time-conscious; competitive d. irritable; calm ANSWER: D 14. After breaking up with her boyfriend, Kathy alleviated her stress by avoiding contact with her ex-boyfriend and by planning recreational activities with her best girlfriend. Kathy's behavior best illustrates a. an optimistic outlook on life. b. spontaneous remission. c. a Type B personality. d. emotion-focused coping. ANSWER: D 15. Religiously active AIDS patients ________ than do their nonreligious counterparts. a. survive longer b. have more depressed moods c. have higher stress hormone levels d. exhibit fewer problem-focused coping skills ANSWER: A 16. Which theory suggests that you would not experience intense anger unless you were first aware of your racing heart or other symptoms of physiological arousal? a. The relative deprivation theory b. The James-Lange theory c. The adaptation-level theory d. The Cannon-Bard theory ANSWER: B 17. Antonio's car stalls in the middle of a railroad crossing just as a train is rapidly approaching. His emotional arousal is likely to be accompanied by a. A decreased blood sugar level. b. A decreased respiration rate. c. Contraction of the arteries. d. Dilation of his pupils. ANSWER: D 18. Exuberant infants and alert, energetic adults are especially likely to show high levels of brain activity in the a. Limbic system. b. Sensory cortex. c. Cerebellum. d. Left frontal lobe. ANSWER: D 19. An approach to lie detection that assesses a suspect's physiological response to details of a crime known only to police investigators is called the a. Relative deprivation principle. b. Catharsis hypothesis. c. Adaptation-level principle. d. Guilty knowledge test. ANSWER: D 20. The arousal that lingers after an intense argument may intensify sexual passion. This best illustrates a. Relative deprivation. b. The spillover effect. c. The adaptation-level phenomenon. d. The feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ANSWER: B 21. Feigned smiles are initiated ________ abruptly and last for a ________ time than genuine smiles. a. More; shorter b. Less; longer c. More; longer d. Less; shorter ANSWER: C 22. The most universally understood way of expressing emotion is through a. Hand gestures. b. Body postures. c. Facial expressions. d. Tone of voice. ANSWER: C 23. If people wrinkle their noses in disgust when presented with a strange-looking food, they are likely to experience an increasingly intense emotional aversion to the food. This best illustrates the a. Cannon-Bard theory. b. Relative deprivation principle. c. Feel-good, do-good phenomenon. d. Facial feedback effect. ANSWER: D 24. A celebrity actress experiences ever-increasing levels of professional acclaim following each successful movie role. Yet with each success, she experiences no more than a temporary surge of subjective well-being. This is best explained in terms of the a. Catharsis hypothesis. b. James-Lange theory. c. Two-factor theory. d. Adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: D 25. One person, alone in a house, dismisses its creaking sounds and experiences no stress; someone else suspects an intruder and becomes alarmed. These different reactions illustrate the importance of a. Biofeedback. b. Stress appraisal. c. Spontaneous remission. d. The general adaptation syndrome. ANSWER: B 26. The second phase of the general adaptation syndrome is characterized by a. Resistance. b. Exhaustion. c. An alarm reaction. d. Low blood pressure. ANSWER: A 27. Who is the best example of a Type A personality? a. Bonnie, a relaxed, fun-loving professor. b. Susan, a brilliant, self-confident accountant. c. Clay, a reflective, open-minded artist. d. Andre, a competitive, easily-angered journalist. ANSWER: D 28. B lymphocytes are formed in the a. Adrenal gland. b. Brainstem. c. Liver. d. Bone marrow. ANSWER: D 29. People tend to use emotion-focused coping rather than problem- focused coping when they a. Believe they cannot change a stressful situation. b. Appraise a stressful event as a challenge rather than a threat. c. Enter the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome. d. Deal with the stress of daily hassles such as obnoxious cell- phone talkers. ANSWER: A 30. Aerobic exercise ________ the body's production of serotonin and ________ its production of the endorphins. a. Decreases; decreases b. Increases; increases c. Decreases; increases d. Increases; decreases ANSWER: B Chapter 13: Personality Vocabulary Collective Unconscious: Carl Jung’s concept of a shared, inherited reservoir of memory traces from our species’ history Defense Mechanisms: in psychoanalytic theory, the ego’s protective methods of reducing anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality Ego: the largely conscious, “executive” part of personality that, according to Freud, mediates among the demands of the id, superego, and reality. The ego operates on the reality principle, satisfying the id’s desires in ways that will realistically bring pleasures rather than pain Empirically Derived Test: a test (such as the MMPI) developed by testing a pool of items and then selecting those that discriminate between groups External Locus of Control: the perception that chance or outside forces beyond your personal control determine your fate Fixation: according to Freud, a lingering focus of pleasure- seeking energies at an earlier psychosexual stage, in which conflicts were unresolved Free Association: in psychoanalysis, a method of exploring the unconscious in which the person relaxes and says whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing Humanistic Theories: view personality with a focus on the potential for healthy personal growth Id: a reservoir of unconscious psychic energy that, according to Freud, strives to satisfy basic sexual and aggressive drives. The id operates on the pleasure principle, demanding immediate gratification Identification: the process by which, according to Freud, children incorporate their parents’ values into their developing superegos Internal Locus of Control: the perception that one control’s his own fate Learned Helplessness: the hopelessness and passive resignation an animal or human learns when unable to avoid repeated aversion events Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI): the most widely researched and clinically used of all personality tests. Originally used to identify emotional disorders, this test is now used for many other screening purposes Opedipus Complex: according to Freud, a boy’s sexual desires toward his mother and feelings of hatred and jealousy for the rival father Personal control: our sense of controlling our environment rather than feeling helpless Personality: an individual’s characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting Personality inventory: a questionnaire on which people respond to items designed to gauge a wide range of feelings and behaviors Positive psychology: the scientific study of optimal human functioning; aims to discover and promote strengths and virtues that enable individuals and communities to thrive Projective test: a personality test, such as the Rorschach or TAT, that provides stimuli to trigger projection of one’s inner thoughts and feelings Psychoanalysis: Freud’s theory of personality that attributes thoughts and actions to unconscious motives and conflicts; the techniques used in treating psychological disorders by seeking to expose and interpret unconscious tensions Psychodynamic theories: Psychosexual stages: the childhood stages of development (oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital) during which, according to Freud, the id’s pleasure-seeking energies focus on distinct erogenous zones Reciprocal determinism: the interacting influences between personality and environmental factors Self-actualization: according to Maslow, the ultimate psychological need that arises after basic physical and psychological needs are met and self-esteem is achieved; the motivation to fulfill one’s potential Self-concept: central to the person’s behavior, consists of a person’s beliefs/feelings about himself at any given time Self-esteem: one’s feelings of high or low self-worth Self-serving bias: a readiness to perceive oneself favorably Social-cognitive Perspective: views behavior as influenced by the interaction between persons and their social context Spotlight effect: overestimating other’s noticing and evaluating our appearance, performance, and blunders Superego: the part of the personality in Freud’s theory that is responsible for making moral choices Terror-management Theory: proposes that faith in one’s worldview and the pursuit of self-esteem provide protection against a deeply rooted fear of death Trait: a characteristic pattern of behavior or a disposition to feel and act, as assessed by self-report inventories and peer reports Unconditional positive Regard: according to Rogers, an attitude of total acceptance toward another person Unconscious: according to Freud, a reservoir of mostly unacceptable thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories. According to contemporary psychologists, information processing of which we are unaware Quizzes: 1. The role of repressed childhood conflicts in personality disorders is most clearly emphasized by the ________ perspective. a. trait b. social-cognitive c. psychoanalytic d. humanistic ANSWER: C 2. Jaydon doesn't realize that his alcohol abuse and neglect of his family is leading to the destruction of both his family and career. A psychoanalyst would suggest that Jaydon shows signs of a a. strong ego. b. weak id. c. strong superego. d. weak ego. ANSWER: D 3. Freud suggested that adults with a passive personality marked by a childlike dependency demonstrate signs of a. an oral fixation. b. an inferiority complex. c. reaction formation. d. an Oedipus complex. ANSWER: A 4. Bryce often acts so daring and overly confident that few people realize he is actually riddled with unconscious insecurity and self- doubt. Bryce best illustrates the use of a defense mechanism known as a. regression. b. projection. c. displacement. d. reaction formation. ANSWER: D 5. Carl Jung emphasized the importance of ________ in personality functioning. a. inferiority feelings b. psychosexual stages c. the collective unconscious d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: C 6. Hermann Rorschach introduced what has become the most widely used ________ test. a. empirically derived b. self-esteem c. factor analytic d. projective ANSWER: D 7. Abraham Maslow suggested that individuals who are open, spontaneous, and not paralyzed by others' opinions illustrate a. extraversion. b. reaction formation. c. self-actualization. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: C 8. Humanistic psychology has been most closely associated with an emphasis on the importance of a. empirically derived tests. b. reciprocal determinism. c. a positive self-concept. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: C 9. Which technique would psychologists use to assess whether a cluster of characteristics that includes ambition, determination, persistence, and self-reliance reflects a single personality trait? a. projective testing b. factor analysis c. empirically derived testing d. free association ANSWER: B 10. During a phone call to the Psychic Network, Mark was told that "you often worry about things much more than you admit, even to your best friends." Mark's amazement at the psychic's apparent understanding of his personality best illustrates a. the spotlight effect. b. an external locus of control. c. the Barnum effect. d. the self-reference phenomenon. ANSWER: C 11. One of the Big Five personality factors is a. reciprocal determinism. b. self-actualization. c. agreeableness. d. free association. ANSWER: C 12. Sarah's optimism is both a contributor to and a product of her successful career accomplishments. This best illustrates a. self-serving bias. b. reciprocal determinism. c. unconditional positive regard. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: B 13. Marcy believes that the outcome of athletic contests depends so much on luck that it hardly pays to put any effort into her own athletic training. Her belief most clearly illustrates a. the spotlight effect. b. the Barnum effect. c. the false consensus effect. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: D 14. Although she is intelligent and a good athlete, Abigail believes that her low grades in school and losing the quarter-mile race are reflections of her own intellectual and athletic incompetence. Her conclusion best illustrates a. the false consensus effect. b. reciprocal determinism. c. the spotlight effect. d. a pessimistic attributional style. ANSWER: D 15. When Vanessa noticed that she was wearing mismatched socks, she overestimated the extent to which others would also notice. Her reaction best illustrates a. the spotlight effect. b. defensive self-esteem. c. reciprocal determinism. d. the Barnum effect. ANSWER: A 16. Freud thought that the part of a dream that we remember is a censored version of a. unconditional positive regard. b. the spotlight effect. c. unconscious wishes. d. self-serving bias. ANSWER: C 17. Although Alex has frequently been caught stealing money and other valuables from friends as well as strangers, he does not feel guilty or remorseful about robbing these people. Alex most clearly demonstrates a(n) a. inferiority complex. b. external locus of control. c. weak superego. d. oral fixation. ANSWER: C 18. According to psychoanalytic theory, boys' fear of castration is most closely associated with a. an oral fixation. b. free association. c. the spotlight effect. d. the Oedipus complex. ANSWER: D 19. Bonnie is afraid to express anger at her overbearing and irritating supervisor at work, so she is critical of her children instead. A psychoanalyst would suggest that Bonnie's reaction to her children illustrates a. identification. b. reaction formation. c. displacement. d. projection. ANSWER: C 20. Children who have witnessed a parent's murder report memories that most clearly challenge Freud's concept of a. erogenous zones. b. reaction formation. c. displacement. d. repression. ANSWER: D 21. According to Maslow, the desire for identity, meaning, and purpose beyond the self refers to the motive for a. reciprocal determinism. b. the reality principle. c. self-transcendence. d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: C 22. Who emphasized the importance of unconditional positive regard in healthy personality development? a. Gordon Allport b. Albert Bandura c. Carl Rogers d. Alfred Adler ANSWER: C 23. The MMPI was originally developed to identify a. a hierarchy of needs. b. psychosexual stages. c. unconditional positive regard. d. emotional disorders. ANSWER: D 24. Around the world, people describe others' personality traits in terms that are consistent with a set of factors called a. defense mechanisms. b. psychosexual stages. c. the hierarchy of needs. d. the Big Five. ANSWER: D 25. The stability of personality during adulthood best illustrates the value of a. unconditional positive regard. b. an internal locus of control. c. factor analysis. d. trait theories. ANSWER: D 26. We can better predict drivers' behavior at traffic lights from knowing the color of the lights than from knowing the drivers' personalities. This best illustrates the importance of a. collectivism. b. the spotlight effect. c. self-transcendence. d. situational influences. ANSWER: D 27. The social-cognitive perspective highlights the interaction of personal traits with our environment, a process that Albert Bandura called a. free association. b. self-actualization. c. reciprocal determinism. d. reaction formation. ANSWER: C 28. After experiencing prolonged and seemingly inescapable physical abuse from her husband, Kayla became increasingly depressed and hopelessly resigned to her suffering. Her reaction best illustrates a. the spotlight effect. b. an Electra complex. c. learned helplessness. d. defensive self-esteem. ANSWER: C 29. Students perceive themselves as less likely than the average classmate to develop drinking problems or drop out of school. This best illustrates a. the Barnum effect. b. the spotlight effect. c. the false consensus effect. d. unrealistic optimism. ANSWER: D 30. Card players who attribute their wins to their own skill and their losses to bad luck best illustrate a. unconditional positive regard. b. reciprocal determinism. c. the spotlight effect. d. self-serving bias. ANSWER: D Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders Vocabulary Anorexia nervosa: an eating disorder in which a person maintains a starvation diet despite being significantly underweight Antisocial Personality Disorder: a personality disorder in which a person exhibits a lack of conscience for wrongdoing, even toward friends and f amily members. May be aggressive and ruthless or a clever con artist Anxiety Disorder: psychological disorders characterized by distressing, persistent anxiety or maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD): a psychological disorder marked by the appearance by age 7 of one or more of three key symptoms (extreme inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity) Binge eating Disorder: significant binge eating episodes, followed by distress, disgust, or guilt, but without the compensatory purging, fasting, or excessive exercise that marks bulimia nervosa Bipolar Disorder: a mood disorder in which a person alternates between the hopelessness and lethargy of depression and the overexcited state of mania (formerly called manic depressive disorder Bulimia Nervosa: an eating disorder in which a person alternates binge eating (usually of high-calorie foods) with purging (by vomiting or laxative use), fasting, or excessive exercise Delusions: false beliefs, often of persecution or grandeur, that may accompany psychotic disorders Dissociative Disorders: disorders in which conscious awareness becomes separated from previous memories, thoughts, and feelings Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID): a rare dissociative disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct and alternating personalities. Formerly called multiple personality disorder DSM IV TR: the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, with an updated “text revision”’ a widely used system for classifying psychological disorders Generalized Anxiety Disorder: an anxiety disorder in which a person is continually tense, apprehensive, and in a state of autonomic nervous system arousal Major Depressive Disorder: a mood disorder in which a person experiences, in the absence of drugs or another medical condition, two or more weeks of significantly depressed moods or diminished interest or pleasure in most activities, along with at least four other symptoms Mania: a mood disorder marked by a hyperactive, wildly optimistic state Medical Model: the concept that diseases, in this case psychological disorders, have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated and, in most cases, cured often through treatment in a hospital Mood Disorders: psychological disorders characterized by emotional extremes Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD): an anxiety disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/or actions (compulsions) Panic Disorder: an anxiety disorder marked by unpredictable, long episodes of intense dread in which a person experiences terror and accompanying chest pain, choking, or other frightening sensations Personality Disorders: psychological disorders characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning Phobia: an anxiety disorder marked by a persistent, irrational fear and avoidance of a specific object, activity, or situation Post Traumatic Growth: positive psychological changes as a result of struggling with extremely challenging circumstances and life crises Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD): an anxiety disorder characterized by haunting memories, nightmares, social withdrawal, jumpy anxiety, and/or insomnia that lingers for four weeks or more after a traumatic experience Psychological Disorder: deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional patterns of thoughts, feelings, or behaviors Psychosis: a psychological disorder in which a person loses contact with reality, experiencing irrational ideas and distorted perceptions Schizophrenia: a group of severe disorders characterized by disorganized and delusional thinking, disturbed perceptions, and inappropriate emotions and behaviors Quiz Questions 1. At one time, disordered people were simply warehoused in asylums. These were replaced with psychiatric hospitals in which attempts were made to diagnose and cure those with psychological disorders. This best illustrates one of the beneficial consequences of a.psychoanalytic theory. b.the DSM-IV-TR. c.the medical model. d.linkage analysis. ANSWER: C 2. A current authoritative scheme for classifying psychological disorders is known as the a.DID. b.medical model. c.DSM-IV-TR. d. biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: C 3. Lenore is unexplainably and continually tense and is plagued by muscle tension, sleeplessness, and an inability to concentrate. Lenore most likely suffers from a. a phobia. b. a dissociative disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: D 4. Years after he barely survived a terrorist attack that killed his wife and two children, Mr. Puskari suffers recurring flashbacks and frequent nightmares of the event that render him incapable of holding a steady job. Mr. Puskari is most clearly showing signs of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. post-traumatic stress disorder. d. dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: C 5. Andrea experiences extreme anxiety when approaching any lake. Her therapist suggests that her fear results from a traumatic boat accident she experienced as a child. The therapist's suggestion reflects a ________ perspective. a. psychoanalytic b. biological c. learning d. humanistic ANSWER: C 6. Elaine feels that her life is empty, has lost all interest in her career and hobbies, and wonders if she would be better off dead. She is most likely suffering from a. a dissociative disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. a mood disorder. d. agoraphobia. ANSWER: C 7. An overabundance of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine is most likely to be associated with a. a manic episode. b. schizophrenia. c. a dissociative disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: A 8. Mr. James believes that people are constantly laughing at him and that FBI agents are trying to steal his life savings. Mr. James is most clearly suffering from a. compulsions. b. catatonia. c. delusions. d. hallucinations. ANSWER: C 9. Which of the following best illustrates a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. hallucinations b. delusions c. social withdrawal d. inappropriate rage ANSWER: C 10. Catatonia is characterized by a. periods of immobility or excessive, purposeless movement. b. offensive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person. c. hyperactive, wildly optimistic states of emotion. d. delusions of persecution. ANSWER: A 11. Therapeutic drugs that block dopamine receptors are most likely to reduce a. hallucinations. b. depression. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: A 12. The relationship between the season of the year in which people are born and their subsequent risk of schizophrenia best highlights the role of ________ in this disorder. a. genetic influences b. viral infections c. oxygen deprivation d. learned helplessness ANSWER: B 13. A sudden loss of memory is a symptom of a. bipolar disorder. b. a dissociative disorder. c. panic disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: B 14. Melissa uses laxatives in an attempt to lose some of the weight she gained from binge eating. Melissa most clearly demonstrates symptoms of a. anorexia nervosa. b. agoraphobia. c. bulimia nervosa. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: C 15. Kyle is extremely manipulative and can look anyone in the eye and lie convincingly. His deceit often endangers the safety and well-being of those around him, but he is indifferent to any suffering they might experience as a result of his actions. His behavior best illustrates a. schizophrenia. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: D 16. Brian often interrupts his teacher while she is speaking and frequently forgets to complete his homework assignments. He also has difficulty taking turns in playground games with classmates. Brian most clearly exhibits symptoms of a. DID. b. OCD. c. PTSD. d. ADHD. ANSWER: D 17. An integrated understanding of psychological disorders in terms of stressful memories, evolutionary processes, and gender roles is most clearly provided by a. linkage analysis. b. a biopsychosocial approach. c. the medical model. d. the learning perspective. ANSWER: B 18. After participants in one study were informed that a videotaped interviewee was a psychiatric patient, they characterized the person with phrases such as "a passive, dependent type" and "frightened of his own aggressive impulses." This study best illustrated the a. dangers of dissociative identity disorder. b. unreliability of the DSM-IV-TR. c. biasing power of diagnostic labels. d. shortcomings of the social-cognitive perspective. ANSWER: C 19. Symptoms that may be misperceived as a heart attack are most characteristic of a. bipolar disorder. b. panic disorder. c. dissociative disorders. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: B 20. Although Mark realizes that his behavior is unreasonable, he is so alarmed by high bridges or expressway overpasses that he avoids them by taking an unnecessarily lengthy route to and from work each day. Mark appears to suffer from a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. a mood disorder. c. a phobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: C 21. Without success, Maxine spends hours each day trying to suppress intrusive thoughts that she might have forgotten to lock her house when she left for work. Her experience is most symptomatic of a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. a histrionic personality disorder. ANSWER: B 22. Mr. Hoffman has always been cautious with his money, but over the past two weeks he has developed grandiose plans to bet his entire life savings on a single horse race. With unrestrained exuberance he has also been giving everybody he sees unsolicited advice on how to make millions in the stock market. Mr. Hoffman's behavior is most indicative of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. mania. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: C 23. Amanda's therapist suggests that her depression results from mistakenly blaming herself rather than a slumping economy for her recent job loss. Her therapist's suggestion best illustrates a a. DSM-IV-TR diagnosis. b. linkage analysis. c. medical model. d. social-cognitive perspective. ANSWER: D 24. Mrs. Higgins believes that aliens from another planet have removed her stomach and are watching her to see how long it takes her to grow another one. Mrs. Higgins is most likely suffering from a. agoraphobia. b. bipolar disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: C 25. Michael complains that threatening voices are constantly telling him that he is so evil he should drown himself. Michael is experiencing a. a panic attack. b. catatonia. c. flat affect. d. hallucinations. ANSWER: D 26. Oxygen deprivation at the time of birth is a known risk factor for a. panic disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. bipolar disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: B 27. The suggestion that dissociative identity disorder symptoms are created as defenses against the anxiety caused by one's own unacceptable impulses best illustrates the a. psychodynamic perspective. b. biopsychosocial approach. c. medical model. d. social-cognitive perspective. ANSWER: A 28. Lindsey is extremely afraid of becoming obese even though she is underweight. She often checks her body in the mirror for any signs of fat and refuses to eat most foods because she insists they are fatty or high in calories. Lindsey most clearly demonstrates symptoms of a. bulimia nervosa. b. agoraphobia. c. anorexia nervosa. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: C 29. Low levels of anxiety are most characteristic of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. major depressive disorder. ANSWER: A 30. Symptoms of schizophrenia begin to appear at a median age of about a. 5. b. 12. c. 20. d. 32. ANSWER: C Chapter 14: Social Psychology Vocabulary Cognitive Dissonance: a highly motivating state in which people have conflicting cognitions, especially when their voluntary actions conflict with their attitudes Cohesiveness: solidarity, loyalty, and a sense of group membership Conformity: the tendency for people to adopt the behaviors, attitudes, and opinions of members of a group Deindividualism: occurs when group members lose their sense of personal identity and responsibillty and the group assumes responsibility for their behavior Diffusion of responsibility: weakening of each group member’s obligation to act when responsibility is perceived to be shared with all group members Discrimination: a negative action taken against an individual based on membership of a group Dispositionism: the tendency to attribute behavior to internal factors such as genes and personality Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE): the tendency to ignore external factors and emphasize internal cause Matching hypothesis: the prediction that most people find friends and lovers that are on the same “level” of attractiveness Principle of Proximity: the notion that we are more attracted to those nearby us Self Serving Bias: one takes credit for success but denies responsibility of failure Similarity principle: the notion that people are attracted to people most similar to them Situationalism: the view that environmental conditions influence people as much or more than their personality Social context: the combination of people, activities, interactions, setting, and expectations that influence behavior Social distance: the perceived difference or similarity between oneself and another person Social Psychology: the branch of psychology that studies the effects of social variables and cognitions on individual behavior and social interactions
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