Final Study guide
Final Study guide Nurs 20263
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This 15 page Study Guide was uploaded by Kendall Frenkel on Saturday April 30, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to Nurs 20263 at Texas Christian University taught by Young in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 114 views. For similar materials see Health assessment:concepts in Nursing and Health Sciences at Texas Christian University.
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Date Created: 04/30/16
HEALTH ASSESSMENTS FINAL STUDY GUIDE 20 questions from exam 1, 20 from exam 2, 20 from exam 3, 40 new questions EXAM 1 1. The Concept of health and healing has evolved in recent years. Which is the best description of health? a. Health depends on an interaction of mind, body, spirit within the environment 2. Which best describes evidence-based nursing practice? a. Clinical expertise 3. One of your patients says she is very nervous and nauseated and she feels like she will vomit. This data is what type of data? a. Subjective 4. Which is an example of objective data? a. Scar on the right forearm 5. The nurse uses health promotion activities with a new patient. What would this focus include? a. Empower the patient to choose a healthier lifestyle 6. The major factor contributing to the need for cultural care nursing is: a. Demographic changes 7. The term culturally competent implies that the nurse: a. Possesses knowledge of the traditions of diverse peoples 8. ________ is exhibiting an accurate understanding of the other person’s feelings within a communication context a. empathy 9. A patient asks the nurse, “may I ask you a question?” this is an example of: a. close ended question 10. What demonstrates a good understanding of the interview process? a. Spends more time listening than talking 11. For what or with whom should touch be used during the interview? a. Only if the interviewer knows the person well 12. Knowledge of personal space is helpful for the health care provider. Personal distance is generally considered to be: a. 1 ½ to 4 feet 13. Tom, a patient on your floor tells you “Everyone here ignores me.” You respond, “Ignores you?” This technique is best described as: a. Reflective 14. What does active listening not include? a. Taking detailed notes during the interview 15. You have a reason to question the reliability of the information being provided by a patient. One way to verify the reliability within the context of the interview is: a. Rephrase the same question later in the interview 16. During the initial interview, the nurse says “Mrs. J. tell me what you do when your headaches occur?” This is an example of which type of information? a. Aggravating or relieving factors 17. A genogram is used for which reasons? a. Family history 18. What is the best description of “review of systems” as part of the health history? a. The evaluation of past and present health state of each body system 19. Which finding is considered to be subjective? a. Pain lasting for 2 hours 20. During assessment, which part of the hand is best for detecting vibration? a. Ulnar surface of the hand 21. The bell of the stethoscope is used: a. For soft, low pitched sounds 22. At the conclusion of the patient examination, the examiner should: a. Summarize your findings to the patient 23. For a health assessment, which assessment technique will you use first? a. Inspection 24. You are assessing a patient’s gait. What do you expect to find? a. Gait is as wide as the shoulder width 25. Select the best description or an accurate assessment of a patient’s pulse. a. Begin counting with zero, count for 30 seconds 26. After assessing the patient’s pulse, the nurse determines it is “normal”. This would be recorded as: a. 2+ 27. Select the best description of an accurate assessment of the patient’s respirations. a. Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 b. ? 28. Pulse pressure is described as: a. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure 29. Why is it important to match the appropriate size of the blood pressure cuff to the person’s arm and shape and not to the person’s age? a. Using a cuff that is too narrow will give a false reading that is high b. Using a cuff that is too wide will give a false reading that is low 30. At which phase does the individual become aware of a painful sensation? a. Perception 31. The most reliable indicator of pain in the adult is: a. The patient’s self-report 32. While examining the broken arm of a 4-year old boy, select the appropriate assessment tool to evaluate his pain status. a. Wong Baker test 33. Which is considered a common physiological change that occurs with pain? a. Tachycardia 34. Checking for skin temperature is best accomplished by using: a. The dorsal surface of the hand 35. Assessing a patient’s skin turgor is done to assess which clinical finding? a. Dehydration 36. You not a lesion during a skin assessment. Which is the best way to document the finding? a. Dark brown raised lesion, with irregular border, on dorsum of right foot, 3 cm in size, no drainage 37. You examine the nail beds of a patient. Which finding indicates a normal angle? a. 160 degrees 38. An area of thin shiny skin with decreased visibility of normal skin marking is most likely: a. atrophy 39. A configuration of individual lesions arranged in circles or arcs, occurs with ringworm is described as: a. Annular lesion 40. A risk factor for melanoma is: a. Skin that freckles or burns before tanning 41. Herpes Zoster (shingles) is characterized by: a. Lesion on only one side of the body, does not cross midline 42. Which facial bones articulate at a join instead of a suture? a. mandible 43. Identify the blood vessel that runs diagonally across the sternomastoid muscle. a. External jugular vein 44. The isthmus of the thyroid gland lies just below the: a. Cricoid cartilage 45. If the thyroid gland was enlarged bilaterally, which maneuver would be appropriate for you to assess? a. Listen for a bruits over the thyroid lobes 46. It is normal to palpate a few lymph nodes in the neck of a healthy person. What are the characteristics of these nodes? a. Mobile, soft, nontender 47. Normal cervical nodes are: a. Smaller than 1 cm 48. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year old male marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: Temp 98.6, Pulse 48, Respirations 14, Blood pressure 104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results? a. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult 49. A patient’s blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. He asks the nurse “What do the numbers mean?” The nurse’s best reply is: a. The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts 50. The nurse will perform a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure. The reason for this is to: a. Detect the presence of an auscultatory gap EXAM 2 1. When assessing a patient’s lungs, the nurse recalls that the left lung: a. Consists of two lobes 2. Which statement about the apices of the lungs is true? The apices of the lungs: a. Extend 3 to 4cm above the inner third of the clavicles 3. The nurse is observing the auscultation technique of another nurse. The correct method to use when progressing from one auscultatory site on the thorax to another is _______ comparison. a. Side to side 4. When inspecting the anterior chest of an adult, the nurse should include which assessment? a. Shape and configuration of the chest wall 5. During the assessment of an adult, the nurse has noted unequal chest expansion and recognizes that this occurs in which situation? a. When part of the lung is obstructed or collapsed 6. A patient has a history of COPD. During the assessment, the nurse will most likely observe which of these? a. Anteroposterior to transverse diameter ratio 1:2 7. During auscultation of the lungs of an adult patient, the nurse notices the presence of bronchophony. The nurse should assess for signs of which condition? a. Pulmonary consolidation 8. In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease, which would the nurse want to include when taking a history? a. Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol 9. During the assessment of a healthy adult, where would the nurse expect to palpate the apical impulse? a. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line 10. When listening to heart sounds, the nurse knows that S1: a. coincides with the carotid artery pulse 11. During the cardiac auscultation, the nurse hears a sound immediately occurring after the S2 at the second left intercostal space. To further assess this sound, what should the nurse do next? a. Watch the patient’s respirations while listening for the effect on the sound 12. The nurse knows the normal splitting of the S2 is associated with: a. expiration 13. During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse knows that a thrill is: a. A vibration that is palpable 14. The nurse is examining a patient who has a possible cardiac enlargement. Which statement about percussion of the heart is true? a. Studies show that percussed cardiac borders do not correlate well with true cardiac border 15. Which statement is true regarding the arterial system? a. The arterial system is a high-pressure system 16. The nurse is reviewing blood supply to the arm. The major artery supplying the arm is the __________. a. Brachial artery 17. The nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis artery. Where is the correct location for palpation? a. Lateran to the extensor tendon of the great toe 18. The nurse is preparing to perform a modified Allen test. Which is an appropriate reason for this test? a. To evaluate the adequacy of collateral circulation before cannulating the radial artery 19. In assessing the carotid arteries of an older person with cardiovascular disease, the nurse would: a. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits 20. When examining the eye, the nurse notices the patient’s eyelid margins approximate completely. The nurse recognizes that this assessment finding: a. Is expected 21. During ocular examination, the nurse keeps in mind that movement of the extraocular muscles is: a. Stimulated by Cranial Nerve III, IV, VI 22. The nurse is performing an external eye examination. Which statement regarding the outer layer of the eye is true? a. The outer layer of the eye is very sensitive to touch 23. When examining a patient’s eyes, the nurse recalls that stimulation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system: a. Elevates the eyelid and dilates the pupils 24. The nurse is reviewing causes of increased intraocular pressure. Which of these factors determines intraocular pressure? a. The amount of aqueous fluid produced and resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber 25. The nurse is conducting a visual examination. Which of these statements regarding visual pathways and visual fields is true? a. The image formed on the retina is upside down and reversed from its actual appearance in the outside world 26. The nurse is testing a patient’s visual accommodation, which refers to which action? a. Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object 27. A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes that this reflex indicates that: a. Constriction of both pupils occurs in response to bright light 28. The nurse is reviewing age-related changes in the eye for a class. Which of these physiologic changes in responsible for presbyopia? a. Loss of lens elasticity 29. A patient has been diagnosed with venous stasis. Which of the following findings would the nurse most likely observe? a. Brownish discoloration to the skin of the lower leg 30. The nurse is attempting to assess the femoral pulse in a patient who is obese. Which of these actions would be most appropriate? a. Ask the patient to bend his or her knees to the side in a frog like position 31. The nurse is reviewing the risk factors for venous disease. Which of these situations best describes a person at highest risk for the development of venous disease? a. Person who has been on bed rest for 4 days 32. The nurse is teaching a review class on the lymphatic system. A participant shows correct understanding of the material with which statement? a. The lymph flow is slow compared to that of the blood 33. When performing an assessment of a patient, the nurse notices the presence of an enlarged right epitrochlear lymph node. What should the nurse do next? a. Examine the patient’s lower arm and hand, check for infection or lesions 34. The nurse is reviewing the function of cranial nerves. Which cranial nerve is responsible for conducting nerve impulses to the brain and from the organ of corti? a. CN VIII 35. When assessing a patient who may have hearing loss, which of these statements is true regarding air conduction? a. Air conduction is the normal pathway for hearing 36. A patient has been shown to have a sensorineural hearing loss. During the assessment it would be important for the nurse to: a. Ask the patient what medications he is currently taking 37. A 70-year old patient tells the nurse that he has noticed that he is having trouble hearing especially in large groups. He says that he “can’t always tell where the sound is coming from” and words often sound “mixed up”. What might the nurse suspect as the cause for this change? a. Nerve degeneration in the inner ear 38. A patient in the first trimester of her pregnancy is diagnosed with rubella. Which of these statements is correct regarding the significance of this in relation to the infant’s hearing? a. Rubella can damage the infant’s organ of corti which will impair hearing 39. In performing a breast examination, the nurse knows that examining the upper outer quadrant of the breast is especially important. This is because: a. It is the location of most breast tumors 40. A woman is in the hospital. She tells the nurse that her breasts “change all month long” and that she is worried that this is unusual. What is the nurses’ beast response? The nurse should tell her that: a. Because of changing hormones during the monthly menstrual cycle, cyclic breast changes are common 41. In examining a 70-year old male patient, the nurse notices that he has bilateral gynecomastia. Which of the following best describes the nurse’s best course of action? a. Explain that this condition may be the result of hormonal changes and recommend that he see his health care provider 42. The nurse is reviewing statistics regarding breast cancer. Which women, aged 40 years in the United States, has the highest risk for developing breast cancer? a. Black women 43. The nurse is preparing for a class in early detection of breast cancer. Which statement is true with regard to breast cancer in black women in the United States? a. Black women are more likely to die of breast cancer at any age 44. During an examination of a woman, the nurse notices that her left breast is slightly larger than her right breast. Which of these statements is true about this finding? a. Asymmetry is not unusual, but the nurse should verify that this change is not new 45. The nurse is performing a breast examination. Which of these statements best describes the correct procedure to use when screening for nipple and skin retraction during a breast examination? a. Slowly lift her arms above her head, and note any retraction or lag in movement 46. The nurse is preparing to conduct a mental status examination. Which of these statements is true regarding the mental status examination? a. Gathering mental status information during the health history interview is usually sufficient 47. A woman brings her husband into the clinic for examination. She is particularly worried because after a recent fall, he seems to have lost a great deal of his memory of recent events. Which statement reflects the nurse’s best course of action? a. Perform a complete mental status examination 48. You are conducting a patient interview. Which statement made to you by the patient should you explore more fully during the interview? a. “I never did too good in school” 49. A 19-year old woman comes into the clinic at the insistence of her brother. She is wearing black combat boots, and a black lace nightgown over the top of her other clothing. Her hair is dyed pink with black streaks throughout. She has several pierced holes in her nares and ears and is wearing an earring through her eyebrow and heavy black makeup. The nurse concludes that: a. More information should be gathered to decide whether or not her dress is appropriate 50. The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. The best way for the nurse to do this would be to: a. Give him the four unrelated words test Exam 3 1. The most commonly ordered blood test is: a. The complete blood count 2. Cells circulating in the blood include: a. Platelets, erythrocytes, leukocytes 3. Eosinophils: a. Increase with parasitic and allergic conditions 4. Neutrophils: a. Are considered the body’s first line of defense during an acute infection 5. Which of the following can be noted through inspection of a patient’s abdomen? a. Venous pattern, peristaltic waves, abdominal contour 6. Right Upper Quadrant tenderness may indicate pathology in the: a. Liver, pancreas, or ascending colon 7. Hyperactive Bowel sounds are: a. All of the above (high-pitched, rushing, tinkling) 8. The absence of bowel sounds is established after listening for: a. 5 full minutes 9. Auscultation of the abdomen may reveal bruits of the _____________ arteries. a. Aortic, renal, iliac, and femoral 10. Auscultating the abdomen is begun in the right lower quadrant because: a. Bowel sounds are always normally present here 11. Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the: a. Radius and ulna 12. Examination of the shoulder includes 4 motions. These are: a. Forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction and external rotation 13. The bulge sign is a test for: a. Swelling in the suprapatellar pouch 14. A positive Phalen test and Tinel sign are found in pateint’s with: a. Carpel tunnel syndrome 15. Hematopoiesis takes place in the following: a. Bone marrow 16. To Test for sterognosis, you would: a. Place a coin in the person’s hand and ask him or her to identify it 17. Cerebellar function is assessed by which of the following: a. Coordination – hopping on one foot 18. To elicit the Babinski reflex: a. Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to across the bass 19. A positive Babinski sign is: a. Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all the toes 20. Olfactory a. smell 21. Optic a. vision 22. Oculomotor a. Extraocular movement, pupil constriction, down and inward movement of the eye 23. Trochlear a. Down and inward movement of the eye 24. Trigeminal a. Mastication and sensation of the face, scalp and cornea 25. Abducens a. Lateral movement of the eye 26. Facial a. Tasting anterior two thirds of the tongue, closing eyes 27. Acoustic a. Hearing and equilibrium 28. Glossopharyngeal a. Phonation, swallowing, tasting posterior third of tongue 29. Vagus a. Talking, swallowing, and sensory information from pharynx and carotid sinus 30. Spinal a. Movement of the trapezius and sternomastoid muscle 31. Hypoglossal a. Movement of the tongue 32. The examiner is going to inspect and palpate for a hernia. During the examination, the man is instructed to: a. Bear down when the examiner’s finger is at the inguinal canal 33. During examination of the scrotum, a normal finding would be that: a. The left testicle hangs lower than the right 34. During palpation of the testes, the normal finding would be: a. Firm, rubbery and smooth 35. A 20-year old man has indicated that he does not perform a testicular self-exam. One of the facts that should be shared with him is that testicular cancer, although rare, does occur in: a. 15-34 years of age 36. Which of the following would be a normal sensitivity to pressure for the testes? a. Somewhat 37. The congenital displacement of the urethral meatus to the inferior surface of the penis is: a. Hypospadias 38. Select the best description of the anal canal: a. A 3.8 cm long outlet of the GI tract 39. Which of the findings in the prostate gland suggests prostate cancer? a. Diffuse hardness 40. A patient states that he has frothy foul-smelling stools that float on the surface of the toilet bowl. What type of stool is this patient describing? a. steatorrhea 41. Which is a structure that secretes a thin milky alkaline fluid to enhance the viability of sperm? a. Prostate gland 42. Vaginal lubrication is provided during intercourse by: a. Bartholin glands 43. A woman has come for her first gynecologic exam. Because she hasn’t had any children yet, the examiner expects the cervical os to appear: a. Smooth and circular 44. A woman has come for health care reporting a thick white discharge with intense itching. These symptoms are suggestive of: a. Candidiasis 45. While examining the cervix, the examiner swabs the cervix with a swab soaked in acetic acid. This exam is done to assess for: a. Human papillomavirus 46. In placing a finger on either side of the cervix and moving it side to side, you are assessing: a. Cervical motion tenderness 47. Which of the following is (are) normal common finding(s) on inspection and palpation of the vulva and perineum? a. Labia majora that are wide apart and gaping 48. Which is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted infection in the US? a. Chlamydia 49. What problem is associated with smoking and the use of oral contraceptives? a. Thrombophlebitis and pulmonary emboli 50. The cremastric response: a. Is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates on stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh Final Exam Study Guide 1. Steps of the Nursing Process - Jarvis pg 3 6 Phases: o Assessment- collect data o Diagnosis- interpret data o Outcome Identification- individualize to person the expected outcomes o Planning- establish priorities/develop outcomes/timelines/document plan of care o Implementation-implement in safe and timely manner/evidence- based intervention/provide healthcare teaching o Evaluation- Progress toward outcomes/disseminate results to patient and family 2. Holistic model of nursing - Jarvis pg 7 Consideration of the whole person- views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent and functioning as a whole within the environment Basis of disease is multifaceted originating from both within the person and from the external environment Holistic model assessment factors are expanded to include such things as lifestyle behaviors, culture and values, family and social roles, self- care behaviors, job-related stress, developmental tasks, and failures and frustrations of life. All are significant to health 3. Health Promotion - Jarvis pg 7 Health promotion is a set of positive acts that we can take. In the model the focus of the health professional is on teaching and helping the consumer choose a healthier life style 4. Religion versus Spirituality - Jarvis pg 15 Spirituality is borne out of each person’s unique life experience and his or her personal effort to find purpose or meaning in life Religion refers to an organized system of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe, especially belief in a divine or superhuman power to be obeyed and worshipped as the creator and ruler of the universe 5. Cultural Assessment - Jarvis pg 24 Cultural Assessment includes the cultural formulation model and the heritage assessment o Cultural Formation Model: includes 5 categories- cultural identity of the individual, cultural factors related to psychosocial environment and levels of functioning, and cultural elements of the relationship between the individual and the clinician o Heritage assessment questions: (If the person answers two or more positively, the probability of being more likely to use health practices relevant to their traditional heritage is high Do you mostly participate in social activities with members of your family? Do you mostly have friends from a similar cultural background? Do you mostly eat the foods of your family tradition? Do you mostly participate in the religious traditions of your family? 6. Cultural competency - Jarvis pg 13 7. Purpose of the health history- Jarvis pg 49 Health history provides a complete picture of the person’s past and present health. It describes the individual as a whole and how the person interacts with the environment. It records health strengths and coping skills. 8. Allergies 9. Mental Status Exam - Jarvis pg 68 Usually you can assess mental status through the context of the health history interview. 4 main headings of mental status assessment: o Appearance o Behavior o Cognition o And thought processes 10. Short-term cognitive ability - Jarvis pg 71 To test ask person to remember 4 words, and recall them in a few minutes. o A normal person younger than 60 years is an accurate 4 word recall after 5, 10, and 30 min recall 11. Dementia symptoms - Jarvis pg 71 Disorientation o Lost in this order: first to time, then to place, and rarely to person o Recent memory deficit o Remote memory is lost when cortical storage area for that memory is damaged o Score a 0-1 on word recall o Inattention o Distractibility o Depression 12. Older adult priorities - Jarvis pg 76 13. Drug Addiction, dependency, withdrawal, tolerance, abuse – These are definitions, just know the meanings. Drug addiction: Addiction is defined as a chronic, relapsing brain disease that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite harmful consequences. It is considered a brain disease because drugs change the brain; they change its structure and how it works. Withdrawal: Drug withdrawal is the group of symptoms that occur upon the abrupt discontinuation or decrease in intake of medications or recreational drugs. In order to experience the symptoms of withdrawal, one must have first developed a physical or mental dependence. Tolerance: Tolerance is a person's diminished response to a drug, which occurs when the drug is used repeatedly and the body adapts to the continued presence of the drug. Resistance refers to the ability of microorganisms or cancer cells to withstand the effects of a drug usually effective against them. Abuse: the habitual taking of addictive or illegal drugs. 14. CAGE - Jarvis pg 58 Cutdown, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-Opener o Have you ever been told you should cut down on your drinking? o Have you ever been annoyed by criticism of your drinking? o Have you ever felt guilty about your drinking? o Do you drink in the morning? (eye-opener) 15. Intimate Partner Violence (IPV) - Jarvis pg 103 Four types of IPV: o Physical violence- intentional use of force o Sexual Violence- use of physical force to compel one to engage in a sex act against one’s will; attempted or completed sexual act to a person unable to consent o Threats of physical or sexual violence o Psychological/emotional abuse and/or coercive tactics- when there has been prior physical or sexual abuse- includes name- calling, public embarrassment or humiliation, stalking or harassment 16. Risks associated with IPV - Jarvis pg 74 17. Purpura - Jarvis pg 108 Purpura is related to petechial- minute, pinpoint, nonraised, perfectly round purplish-red spots caused by intradermal or submucous hemorrhage, which later turn blue or yellow 18. Skin turgor - Jarvis pg 211 Turgor is the ability of skin to return to place promptly when released 19. Inspection - Jarvis pg 115 Inspection is concentrated watching. It is close scrutiny, first of the individual as a whole and then each body system. Inspection begins the moment you first meet the person and develop a general survey ALWAYS comes first 20. General survey - Jarvis pg 127 Study of the whole person, covering the general health state and any obvious physical characteristics (Also includes objective parameters) 21. Mean arterial blood pressure, how is it determined - Jarvis pg 137 MAP- is the pressure forcing blood into the tissues averaged over the cardiac cycle. This is not an arithmetic average of systolic and diastolic pressures bc diastole lasts longer. Rather it is a value closer to diastolic pressure plus one third the pulse pressure 22. Neuropathic versus nociceptive - Jarvis pg 161 Nociceptive pain- develops from functioning and intact nerve fibers; it is triggered by events from actual or potential tissue damage Neuropathic pain- does not adhere to typical phases of pain. It is pain caused by a lesion or disease of the somatosensory nervous system. Abnormal processing of pain 23. Pain – subjective - Jarvis pg 166 Pain is always subjective; subjective is the most reliable indicator of pain 24. Rules for Skin Cancer (A, B, C, etc) - Jarvis pg 208 Asymmetry (not regularly round or oval) Border irregularity Color variation Diameter greater than 6mm Elevation or Evolution 25. Clubbing - Jarvis pg 213 Any nail angle greater than 160 degrees 26. Symptoms of Bell’s palsy - Jarvis pg 278 A lower motor neuron lesion (peripheral) producing rapid onset of cranial nerve 7 paralysis of facial muscles o Symptoms: smooth forhead, wide palpebral fissure, flat nasolabial fold, drooling, and pain behind the ear 27. Consensual light reflex - Jarvis pg 285 When exposed to bright light there is a simultaneous constriction of the other pupil 28. cranial nerves (again) I Olfactory Nerve (sensory): smell II Optic Nerve (sensory): vision III Oculomotor (mixed): EOM movements, opening of the eyelids, pupil constriction, lens shape IV Trochlear Nerve (Motor): down and inward movement of the eye V Trigeminal Nerve (Mixed): muscles of mastication, sensation of face and scalp, cornea, mucous membranes of the mouth and nose VI Abducens Nerve (Motor): lateral movement of the eye VII Facial Nerve (Mixed): facial muscles, close eye, labial speech, close mouth, taste, saliva and tear secretion VIII Acoustic Nerve(Sensory): hearing and equilibrium IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve (Mixed): pharynx (phonation and swallowing), taste and gag reflex, parotid gland, carotid reflex X Vagus Nerve (Mixed): talking and swallowing, carotid sinus, carotid reflex, general sensation from carotid body XI Spinal Accessory Nerve (Motor): movement of the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles XII Hypoglossal Nerve (Motor) movement of the tongue
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