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AU / Psychology / PSYC 3560 / What is multisystemic theory?

What is multisystemic theory?

What is multisystemic theory?


School: Auburn University
Department: Psychology
Course: Abnormal Psychology
Professor: Fix
Term: Spring 2016
Tags: psych and psych 3560
Cost: 50
Name: Abnormal Psychology
Uploaded: 04/30/2016
10 Pages 25 Views 2 Unlocks

Abnormal Psychology Final Study Guide 

What is multisystemic theory?

This is a study guide for Dr. Nowell’s PSYC 3560 final. The final will be on  Tuesday May 3rd at 8am, in Thach 112. It will be over the topics covered in Chapters  13-16.  

1) True or False. Abnormal behavior in children is developmentally  determined; that is, normal at one age is abnormal at another.  

2) Externalizing disorders include all of the following except:

a- Conduct disorder

b- Social withdrawal


d- Noncompliance

3) In a recent study of instant messaging and attention deficit/ hyperactivity  disorder, children with ADHD were more likely to IM statements that were  more _________________ than other children.  Don't forget about the age old question of What happens during menopause?

a- Friendly and nonsensical

b- Hostile and nonsensical  

Neurological studies have found abnormalities in which part of the brains of autistic individuals?

c- Friendly and off topic

d- Hostile and off topic

4) Girls with ADHD

a- Are more likely to be depressed than girls without ADHD

b- Show deficits in planning and problem solving

c- Are likely to have symptoms of an eating disorder by adolescence d- All of the above Don't forget about the age old question of What is the formula for financial leverage?

5) The association between nicotine and ADHD is that ____________________. a- Maternal smoking may play a role in ADHD in offspring

b- Nicotine in pill form reduces the side effects of Ritalin If you want to learn more check out Direct comparison means what?

c- Children’s smoking can cause attention problems

d- The combination of Ritalin and nicotine has been shown to have  dangerous effects in adults with ADHD

6) A disorder that includes behaviors that violate the basic rights of others  and violate societal norms is labeled as ____________ in the DSM-5. a- Internalizing disorder

What is an early sign of alzheimer’s?


c- Conduct disorder

d- Reactive anxiety

7) True or False. Both genetic and environmental theories of the etiology of  conduct disorder have empirical support.

8) Which of the following has been shown to be the most promising  treatment for conduct disorder?

a- Juvenile justice programs

b- Covert desensitization  

c- Medication

d- Parent management training

9) What is Multisystemic Theory?

a- Focuses solely on the conduct disordered child

b- Based upon intervention in ecologically valid settings  

c- A combination of medication and individual therapy

d- Multifaceted in the sense that multiple approaches to family  intervention are applied We also discuss several other topics like What is the formula for velocity of money?

10) A recent randomized clinical trial comparing Prozac, CBT and both for  teenagers with depression found that____________________________. a- Combined treatment was most effective in reducing depressive  symptoms

b- CBT alone resulted in more suicide attempts

c- CBT alone was more effective in reducing depressive symptoms d- Prozac alone was more effective in reducing depressive symptoms 11) Which of the following symptoms manifest in children with PTSD, but  not usually in adults with PTSD?

a- Extreme temper tantrums

b- Hopelessness

c- Sleep problems

d- Flashbacks Don't forget about the age old question of Phosphagen system means what?

12) True or False. Intellectual development disorder is diagnosed upon  psychological test scores.

13) “Fragile X” is commonly due to______________________.\ a- Metabolic disorder

b- Mutation in the X chromosome

c- Fragile psychological state that leads to intellectual disability  d- Brief period where there was limited exposure to oxygenated air 14) True or False. Autism Spectrum is more common among boys.  15) A “high functioning” individual with autism spectrum disorder most  likely has____________.

a- A very good long term memory

b- An IQ score over 80

c- An IQ score over 130

d- A peer group and is able to attend regular schools

16) The following conversation is an example of what Don't forget about the age old question of What is the meaning of wellbeing?

Mother: “Would you like to play this?”

Child: “Would you like to play with this?”

a- Extreme autistic aloneness

b- Echolalia

c- Pronoun reversal  

d- Alogia

17) Neurological studies have found abnormalities in which part of the  brains of autistic individuals?

a- Limbic system  

b- Prefrontal cortex

c- Cerebellum

d- Left hemisphere language centers

18) Which of the following age ranges is considered old-old? a- 65-74

b- 75-84

c- 85-94

d- 95+

19) Compared with young people, people over the age of 60 tend to  ________________.

a- Report more somatic symptoms

b- Experience more negative emotion

c- Experience more physiological reactivity in response to emotionally  charged topics

d- Experience less negative emotion

20) True or False. Delirium is state of great mental confusion.  21) Longitudinal studies involve ______________.

a- Testing one cohort at a time

b- Testing the effects of time of measurement

c- Testing several different age groups on two or more measures d- Testing age effects vs cohort effects in a population

22) What is an early sign of Alzheimer’s?  

a- Loss of sensation or motor control on one side of the body b- Clouded states of consciousness

c- Difficulty remembering new material  

d- Difficulty comprehending speech

23) What are plaques?

a- Protein deposits outside neurons

b- Cholesterol deposits from a poor diet

c- Equivalent to neurofibrillary tangles

d- Serotonin and fatty acid deposits

24) What are the subtypes of dementia with Lewy Bodies?  a- Occurring with Alzheimer’s or occurring with Parkinson’s  b- Occurring with Parkinson’ s or occurring without Parkinson’s c- Occurring with Alzheimer’s or occurring without Alzheimer’s  d- None of the above

25) True or False. Psychological treatments for individuals with Alzheimer’s  focus on helping patients and families deal with the effects of the disease. 26) True or False. Delirium that is not treated can be fatal. 27) Which of the following is not an established intervention for depression in older adults?

a- St. John’s Wort

b- Electroconvulsive therapy  

c- Psychotherapy

d- Antidepressant medication

28) One of the most common triggers of delirium is _____________. a- Surgery

b- Loneliness

c- Loss of employment

d- None of the above

29) What is the difference between dementia and delirium? a- Dementia is a gradual deterioration

b- Delirium has rapid onset

c- Delirium is not explained by any other medical condition  d- All of the above

30) The DSM-5 criteria for delirium include all of the following except: a- Symptoms caused by Alzheimer’s Disease

b- Disturbance in attention and awareness

c- Evidence that symptoms are caused by a medical condition  d- Change in cognition, not better accounted for by dementia

31) True or False. The idea that some people may be able to compensate  for neurocognitive diseases by using alternative brain networks or  cognitive strategies such that cognitive symptoms are less pronounced is  called cognition reserve.

32) Depression in older adults is often linked to ___________________. a- Dopamine changes

b- Retirement

c- Social isolation

d- Medical illnesses

33) Depression in older adults differs from depression in younger adults by  having higher levels of ______________________.

a- Suicidal ideation

b- Hostility  

c- Agitation

d- Cognitive symptoms

34) Adults with diagnoses of psychological disorders are more likely to die  earlier due to ________________.

a- Substance abuse

b- Cardiovascular disease

c- Compromised immune functioning

d- All of the above

35) More than __________ percent of older adults with generalized anxiety  disorder reported that their anxiety symptoms began before the age of 65. a- 97

b- 70

c- 75

d- 67

36) Unusual and eccentric thoughts and behavior (psychoticism),  interpersonal detachment, and suspiciousness are characteristics of the  DSM-5 __________ personality disorder.

a- Borderline

b- Narcissistic

c- Schizotypal

d- Avoidant

37) The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for avoidant personality disorder include all of the following EXCEPT:

a- positive sense of oneself.  

b- inhibition in establishing social relationships.  

c- fear of disapproval.  

d- preoccupation with criticism or rejection.

38) Antisocial personality disorder has previously been referred to as  ______________.

a- none of these other answers are correct.  

b- psychopathy/sociopathy.  

c- evilness.  

d- antiempathic.

39) In research on response modulation and psychopathy, psychopaths  won or lost money depending on what playing cards appeared. In this  research, the impulsivity of psychopaths was studied by _______________.

a- making them wait before deciding to continue the game.  b- having them estimate the amount of money they had won.  c- ratings of their verbal statements during the game.  

d- all of these other answers are correct

40) Which neurotransmitter system has been implicated in anger control  and has been used for borderline personality?

a- serotonin  

b- dopamine  

c- GABA  

d- Norepinephrine

41) Two primary features of Linehan’s diathesis-stress theory of borderline  personality disorder are _____________________.

a- ego functioning and transference.  

b- cognitive bias and attribution error.  

c- object representation and cognitive style.  

d- emotional dysregulation and experiences of invalidation. 42) Paranoid personality disorder differs from paranoid schizophrenia in  that _________________.

a- paranoid personality is more strongly associated with different  delusions than schizophrenia.

b- paranoid personality is not associated with hallucinations.  c- paranoid personality is not associated with unreasonable paranoia.  d- paranoid personality is not likely to be present with depression.

43) Schizotypal, but not schizoid, personality disorder involves  _________________.

a- interpersonal problems and few friends.  

b- flat affect and emotional indifference  

c- odd, eccentric beliefs and behaviors.  

d- social anxiety and fear of others.

44) A primary characteristic of histrionic personality disorder is  _____________.

a- multiple, vague physical complaints.  

b- overly dramatic and attention-seeking behavior.  

c- avoidance of others.  

d- inability to make realistic life plans.

45) According to the social-cognitive model of narcissistic personality  disorder, people with this disorder place a high value on interpersonal  interactions because ________________.

a- interpersonal interactions are central for reinforcing their self-esteem.  b- they are very concerned about the quality of their friendships.  c- they yearn for interpersonal closeness and warmth  

d- they have such high self-esteem.

46) Karl relies on his wife to make every decision, from what kind of suits  he should buy to which people at work he should get to know better. He  feels that he must rely heavily on his wife because he feels he is not  competent to carry out these tasks. Which of the following personality  disorders would fit Karl?

a- schizoid  

b- avoidant

c- borderline  

d- Dependent

47) Drug treatment for borderline personality disorder ________________. a- has been shown to be ineffective for treating the symptoms of the  disorder.  

b- must be conducted with weekly consultations from a neurologist.  c- must be done with care as people with the disorder often abuse  drugs.  

d- has been researched too little to make any general statements.  48) According to a recent meta-analysis, psychological treatment of  psychopathy can be successful if __________________________. a- conducted in a controlled setting.  

b- the patient is older.  

c- family members are involved.  

d- it is intensive and long-term.

49) The most challenging client for a therapist is one diagnosed with  __________ personality disorder.

a- avoidant  

b- schizotypal  

c- obsessive-compulsive  

d- Borderline

50) Carla has a difficult time maintaining friendships. She is generally  suspicious of the motives of other people, often misinterpreting the  behavior of her friends. Based on this information, the most likely  personality disorder diagnosis for Carla would be ____________. a- dependent personality disorder  

b- avoidant personality disorder  

c- histrionic personality disorder  

d- paranoid personality disorder

51) Chayenne is overly dramatic. She speaks with exaggerations, such as,  “That was the most incredible movie I’ve ever seen,” yet wouldn’t be able  to describe why she liked it. In addition, she is hyper-concerned about her  appearance and dresses in provocative and unusual ways. Assuming she  met the rest of the criteria, the most likely personality disorder diagnosis  based on this description would be ________________.

a- anti-social personality disorder  

b- histrionic personality disorder  

c- borderline personality disorder  

d- narcissistic personality disorder

52) The three clusters of personality disorders are _______________. a- odd/eccentric, anxious/fearful, and dramatic/erratic  

b- odd/avoidant, anxious/fearful, and dramatic/attention-seeking  c- odd/avoidant, anxious/fearful, and attention-seeking/erratic  d- odd/eccentric, anxious/withdrawn, and dramatic/erratic

53) Those individuals with schizophrenia share several characteristics with  those individuals diagnosed with _________________.

a- schizotypal personality disorder.  

b- borderline personality disorder.  

c- avoidant personality disorder.

d- dependent personality disorder.

54) The key feature of _______________ is overly dramatic and attention seeking behavior.

a- paranoid personality disorder  

b- schizoid personality disorder  

c- avoidant personality disorder  

d- histrionic personality disorder

55) The clinical case of Joe, the man who lived alone and was referred to  treatment by his general practitioner, describes the personality disorder of _________________.  

a- avoidant personality disorder  

b- schizoid personality disorder  

c- paranoid personality disorder  

d- narcissistic personality disorder

56) Criminal and civil commitment can be best distinguished by  ____________.

a- whether a crime has been committed by the individual.  b- the severity of the symptoms and the crime committed.  c- the type of police intervention necessary.  

d- whether the one being committed is insane.

57) The insanity defense is used in less than __________ percent of legal  cases.

a- 5  

b- 1  

c- 8  

d- 0.1

58) When a person’s criminal act is a result of severe mental illness or  defect that prevents the person from understanding the nature of his or  her crime, it is addressed by the ____________.

a- Irresistible impulse rule.  

b- Insanity Defense Reform Act.  

c- American Law Institute Guidelines.  

d- M’Naghten rule.

59) A primary purpose of the American Law Institute guidelines for defining the insanity defense was to _______________________.

a- avoid specifying symptoms of mental illness that might later become  obsolete.

b- allow greater leeway for expert witnesses to define the concept of  mental illness.

c- be more specific and informative to lay jurors.  

d- open the defense to the full range of mental illnesses.

60) What verdict has been proposed most recently for mentally ill persons  who commit crimes?

a- not guilty by reason of temporary insanity  

b- guilty but mentally ill  

c- not guilty by reason of insanity  

d- guilty (no allowance made for mental illness)

61) The Jones v. United States case illustrated which problem with the  insanity defense?

a- People deemed to be insane may be treated for longer than they would have been imprisoned.

b- People may have been insane at the time of the crime but still  competent to stand trial.

c- Mentally ill people may still be guilty of crimes.  

d- Committed patients have a right to refuse treatment.

62) Simon has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He is accused of  murder, and his lawyers have suggested that he is not competent to stand trial. He is then administered Haldol:, his symptoms remit significantly and he stops experiencing paranoid ideas and delusions. What is likely to  happen next?

a- His lawyers would have to reconsider their insanity defense.  b- He would continue to be considered incompetent to stand trial as the  medication produced the effects.

c- He would be considered competent to stand trial.  

d- He would not be tried in court.  

63) In the Jackson v. Indiana case, it was decided that a person judged  incompetent to stand trial could be committed to a prison hospital  _________________.

a- for an indeterminate period, as long as the accused is still judged to be insane.

b- only until it is determined whether or not the accused will ever  become competent.

c- only if the competence of the accused is dependent on medication  (“synthetic sanity”).

d- for an indeterminate period, as long as the accused is still considered  a danger to others.

64) In which Supreme Court ruling did the state of Virginia define  intellectual disability as consisting of an IQ score of 70 or less along with  difficulties in self-care and social interaction?

a- Atkins v. Virginia  

b- all of these cases apply to the decision.  

c- Robinson v. Illinois  

d- Mannis v. Virginia

65) Which of the following statements is true regarding violence and the  mentally ill?

a- 90% of psychotic patients are non-violent.  

b- Nearly 25% of the violence in the United States is linked to mental  illness.  

c- None of these other answers are correct.  

d- People with mental illnesses who are violent typically lash out in  crowded public places.

66) The prediction of dangerousness is probably best in which of the  following situations?

a- When the person is experiencing hallucinations.  

b- If there is violence in the person’s distant past, and it was a single but very serious act.

c- Following extended hospitalizations.  

d- After a period of relative calm.

67) Issues that have come up after the original Tarasoff ruling have  included ________________.

a- protection when the threat of harm is implicit, not just when explicit  threats have been made.

b- both a and b  

c- warning family members of harmfulness, not just the one towards  whom threats have been made.

d- identifying potentially dangerous individuals to newspapers. 68) Deinstitutionalization policies have inadvertently led to which of the  following outcomes?

a- the release of many dangerous individuals.  

b- higher numbers of mentally ill in other institutions, such as jails and  nursing homes.

c- increased costs of treatment.  

d- insufficient research participants.

69) When subjects in research studies are told about the potential risks  and are free to decline participation, it is called ______________________. a- freedom of choice.  

b- parens patriae.  

c- mens rea.  

d- informed consent.

70) Which of the following rights of clients has a legal (not just ethical)  basis?

a- informed consent  

b- choice of goals  

c- privileged communication  

d- Confidentiality

71) Which of the following relationships does not typically involve  privileged communication?

a- medical doctor − patient  

b- husband − wife  

c- friend − confidante  

d- pastor – confessor

72) Confidentiality is based on __________, whereas a privileged  communication is __________.

a- the ethical code of a profession; based on law.  

b- the therapist’s obligation not to disclose information; the client’s  obligation not to disclose opinions about the therapist.

c- state law; decided on by the individual therapist.  

d- verbal report in therapy; a written report of the therapist’s impression of a client.

73) Human subjects committees and institutional review boards for  reviewing the ethics of proposed experiments are made up of  ________________________.

a- all of these other answers are correct.  

b- behavioral scientists.  

c- lawyers.  

d- citizens of the community.  

74) Fifty years ago, medical research with human subjects _____________.

a- was used as a way of punishing mentally ill prisoners.  b- was monitored by review boards in the institutions where the  research was being conducted.

c- was generally more ethical than mental health research.  d- frequently led to serious, harmful consequences to participants.

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