NTR 241- Final Study Guide
NTR 241- Final Study Guide NTR 241
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This 11 page Study Guide was uploaded by SunDevil_21 on Tuesday May 10, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to NTR 241 at Arizona State University taught by Miller in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 18 views. For similar materials see Human Nutrition in Nutrition and Food Sciences at Arizona State University.
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Date Created: 05/10/16
Final Exam NTR 241, Spring 2016 Study Guide 1. Define “wellness”. a. A multidimensional, lifelong process that includes physical, emotional, and spiritual health. b. Traditionally, wellness is defined simply as the absence of disease. c. Wellness is not an end point in our lives but rather is an active process we work with every day. 2. What are the chronic diseases that are strongly associated with poor nutrition? a. Obesity, cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and various cancers. b. Of the ten leading causes of death in US in 2010, three—heart disease, stroke, and diabetes—are strongly associated with poor nutrition. 3. What is the leading cause of death in the United States? a. Diseases of the heart, cancer, chronic respiratory disease, stroke, unintentional injuries, Alzheimer’s disease, diabetes mellitus, inflammatory kidney disease, influenza/pneumonia, and suicide. 4. What are the goals of Healthy People 2020? a. Attain highquality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death. b. Achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve the health of all groups. c. Create social and physical environments that promote good health for all. d. Promote quality of life, healthy development, and healthy behaviors across all life stages. 5. Define “nutrient”. Why isn’t alcohol a nutrient? a. Foods are composed of many chemical substances, some of which are not useful to the body and other of which are critical to human growth and function. Nutrients are the critical chemicals to human growth and function b. The six groups of nutrients found in foods are: carbohydrates, lipids (including fats and oils), proteins, vitamins, minerals, and water. c. Carbs, lipids, and proteins provide energy d. Alcohol is not a nutrient because it is not useful or critical to human growth and function. 6. Why were the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) established? a. US had Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) and Canada had Recommended Nutrient Intakes (RNIs). These standards defined recommended intake values for various nutrients and were used plan diets for both individuals and groups. They were adopted with the goal of preventing nutrient —deficiency disease, but in developed countries like the US and Canada, these disease are now extremely rare. b. Nutrition scientists developed a new set of reference values aimed at preventing and reducing the risk of chronic disease and promoting optima health. c. These standards include and expand upon the former RDA values. 7. What is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for fat? Be able to calculate the percentage of fat in the diet when given the total number of calories in the diet and the number of grams of fat in the diet. a. Fat AMDR: 2035%; Carbs AMDR: 4565%; Protein: 1035% 1 b. 9 calories of fat per gram 8. What is the AMDR for carbohydrate? What does it mean? a. Carbs AMDR: 4565% b. 4 calories of fat per gram c. The AMDR has a lower and upper boundary; if we consume nutrients above or below this range, there is a potential for increasing our risk for poor health. 9. Define different types of research studies: case controlled study, clinical trial, observational study, and animal study. a. Observational Study: used in assessing nutritional habits, disease trends, and other health phenomena. These studies can only indicate relationships between factors; they do not prove or suggest that the data are linked by cause and effect. b. Case Controlled Study: more complex observational studies with additional design features that allow scientists to gain a better understanding of things that may influence disease. They involve comparing a group of individuals with a particular condition to a similar group without this condition. Suggests a significant relationship between two factors c. Clinical Trial: tightly controlled experiments in which an intervention is given to determine its effect on a certain disease or health condition. Interventions include medications, nutritional supplements controlled diets, and exercise programs. Experimental group given the intervention, but people in control group do not get intervention. (Includes randomized trials and singleblind and doubleblind experiments) 10. What is the difference between a primary deficiency and a secondary deficiency? a. Primary deficiency is a deficiency that occurs when not enough of a nutrient is consumed in the diet. b. Secondary deficiency is a deficiency that occurs when a person cannot absorb enough of a nutrient, excretes too much of a nutrient from the body, or cannot utilize a nutrient efficiently. 11. What kind of information does the hypothalamus collect in order to know whether to send hunger or satiety signals? a. Integrating signals from nerves cells in other body regions and from chemical messengers called hormones. Even the amount/type of food we eat influence the hypothalamus. b. The role of nerve cells: special cells lining the stomach and small intestine that detect changes in pressure according to whether the organ is empty or distended with food. c. The role of hormones: When we have not eaten for a while, our blood glucose levels fall, prompting a change in the levels of insulin and glucagon. This chemical message is relayed to the hypothalamus, which then prompts us to eat in order to supply our bodies with more glucose. d. The role of amount/type of food: foods containing protein have the highest satiety value, followed by highfat meals, then highcarb meals. Also, fiber/water in meals can affect fullness. 12. What are the required components of a food label? (Not the Nutrition Facts Panel) a. A statement of identity, the net contents of the package, ingredient list, the name and address of the food manufacturer/packer/or distributer, nutrition information. 13. Be able to name foods that are high in carbohydrates. a. Unhealthy high carbohydrate foods include sugary cereals, crackers, cakes, flours, jams, preserves, bread products, refined potato products, and sugary drinks. Healthy high carbohydrate foods include vegetables, legumes (beans), whole grains, fruits, nuts, and yogurt. 2 14. What is a nutrient that is often present in large quantities in highly processed foods? a. Sodium (is a mineral which is a nutrient) and added sugars 15. Are observational studies designed to find cause and effect relationships between two variables, or to determine the nature of associations or links between two variables? a. Not designed to find cause/effect relationships b. Designed to find relationships between two variables 16. What is the recommendation for the amount of vegetables that adults should eat every day? a. About 2 ½ cups every day for a 2,000 calorie diet 17. What stimulates the gallbladder to release bile? a. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is released in the small intestine in response to the presence of proteins and lipids. This hormone signals the gallbladder to contract. The gallbladder is located beneath the liver and stores greenish fluid, bile, produced by the liver. Contraction of the gallbladder sends bile through the common bile duct into the duodenum. Bile then emulsifies the lipids; that is, it reduces the lipids into smaller globules and disperses them so they are more accessible to digestive enzymes. 18. What organ secretes disaccharides to break down the disaccharides so they can be absorbed? a. Additional enzymes found in the microvilli of the mucosal cells that line the small intestinal tract work to break down disaccharides into monosaccharides. Maltose is broken down into glucose by the enzyme maltase. Sucrose is broken down into glucose and fructose by the enzyme sucrase. The enzyme lactase breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose 19. What is gut flora? In what organ are they found? (found answer from Wikipedia) a. Gut flora or, more appropriately, gut microbiota, consists of a complex community of microorganisms that live in the digestive tracts of animals. The gut microbiota comprises the largest and most diverse reservoir of mutualistic microorganisms associated with animals. In this context gut is synonymous with intestinal, and flora with microbiota and microflora. An associated term, sometimes used interchangeably with gut microbiota, is gut microbiome, which refers to the aggregate of all the genomes of gut microbiota. Found in large intestine! 20. What are the federal recommendations regarding foods and nutrients that Americans should eat MORE of and foods and nutrients they should eat LESS of? Think about whole grains, refined grains, unsaturated fat, saturated fats, trans fats, omega3 fatty acids, soda, and added sugars. a. MORE: whole grains, unsaturated fat, omega3 fatty acids b. LESS: refined grains, saturated fats, trans fat, soda, and added sugars 21. What gets produced from the incomplete breakdown of body fat to use as fuel when the diet is inadequate in carbohydrate? a. Ketone bodies 22. What foods contain dietary fiber? a. Dietary fiber is the nondigestible parts of plants that form the support structures of leaves, stems, and seeds. b. Whole grains, spinach, tea 3 23. What kind of fiber is best for reducing constipation? a. Insoluble fiber: whole grains, such as wheat, rye, and brown rice, as well as in many vegetables. 24. Why doesn’t carbohydrate digestion occur in the stomach? a. Carb digestion starts in mouth because of salivary amylase. Then as the bolus enters the stomach, all digestion of carbs ceases because the acid in the stomach inactivates the salivary amylase enzyme. The majority of carb digestion occurs in the small intestine. As the contents of stomach enter the small intestine, an enzyme called pancreatic amylase is secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine. Pancreatic amylase continues to digest any remaining starch into maltose. Additional enzymes found in the microvilli of the mucosal cells that line the intestinal tract work to break down disaccharides into monosaccharides. 25. What hormones are involved in regulating blood glucose? a. Insulin: When we eat a meal, our blood glucose level rises. But glucose in our blood cannot help the nerves, muscles, and other tissues to function unless it can cross into their cells. Glucose molecules are too large to cross the cell membranes of our tissues independently. To get in, glucose needs assistance from the hormone insulin, which is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas. Insulin is transported in the blood to the cells of tissues throughout the body, where it stimulates special carrier proteins, called glucose transporters, located in cells. The arrival of insulin at the cell membrane stimulates glucose transporters to travel to the surface of the cell, where they assist in transporting glucose across the cell membrane and into the cell. Insulin can thus be thought of as a key that opens the gates of the cell membrane, enabling the transport of glucose into the cell interior, where it can be used for energy. Insulin also stimulates the liver and muscles to take up glucose and store it as glycogen. b. Glucagon: When you have not eaten for some period of time, your blood glucose level declines. This decrease in blood glucose stimulates the alpha cells of the pancreas to secrete another hormone, glucagon. Glucagon acts in an opposite way to insulin: it causes the liver to convert its stored glycogen into glucose, which is then secreted into the bloodstream and transported to the cells for energy. Glucagon also assists in the breakdown of body proteins to amino acids so the liver can stimulate gluconeogenesis (or “generating new glucose”), the production of glucose from amino acids. c. Growth hormone d. Epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol, and growth hormone are additional hormones that work to increase blood glucose. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the adrenal glands and nerve endings when blood glucose levels are low. They act to increase glycogen breakdown in the liver, resulting in a subsequent increase in the release of glucose into the bloodstream. They also increase gluconeogenesis. These two hormones are also responsible for our “fight or flight” reaction to danger; they are released when we need a burst of energy to respond quickly. Cortisol and growth hormone are secreted by the adrenal glands to act upon liver, muscle, and adipose tissue. Cortisol increases gluconeogenesis and decreases the use of glucose by muscles and other body organs. Growth hormone decreases glucose uptake by the muscles, increases our mobilization and use of fatty acids stored in our adipose tissue, and also increases the liver’s output of glucose. 26. What is the MOST common source of added sugar in the U.S. diet? a. Sugarsweetened beverages (soda) 27. Describe type 2 diabetes. a. In type 2 diabetes, body cells become resistant (less responsive) to insulin. This type of diabetes 4 develops progressively, meaning that the biological changes resulting in the disease occur over a long period of time. Obesity is the most common trigger for a cascade of changes that eventually results in the disorder. It is estimated that 80% to 90% of the people with type 2 diabetes are overweight or obese. Specifically, the cells of many obese people are less responsive to insulin, exhibiting a condition called insulin insensitivity (or insulin resistance). The pancreas attempts to compensate for this insensitivity by secreting more insulin. 28. What type of fuel do red blood cells and the brain need for energy? a. Glucose 29. After reaching the liver, what happens to newly absorbed galactose or fructose? a. Converted to glucose b. If needed immediately for en ergy, the glucose is released into the bloodstream, where it can travel to the cells to provide energy. If glucose is not immediately needed by the body for energy, it is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles. 30. What are the daily fiber recommendations for an adult man and for an adult woman? a. 38 grams per day for men ages 19 to 50 and 30 grams of fiber each day for men ages 50 and older. b. 25 grams per day for women ages 19 to 50 and 21 grams of fiber per day for those ages 50 and older, according to the Institute of Medicine. 31. What is the recommended daily limit for added sugars, according to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2015? a. Less than 10% of daily intake 32. In general, do most Americans get enough protein or not? a. Most Americans get more than enough protein each day, and may be getting too much of this nutrient from animal sources, like meat, poultry, and eggs. Although important in the diet, extra protein will not help you build more muscle or make you stronger 33. In which organ or area of the body are most triglycerides stored? a. Adipose tissue 34. How can you use the Nutrition Facts Panel and the ingredient list to determine if there are any trans fats in the product? a. “Trans fat” or “hydrogenated oil” listed 35. What are some food sources of monounsaturated fatty acids? a. Plant based liquid oils: olive oil, canola oil, peanut oil, safflower oil, sesame oil 36. Which types of fatty acids are considered to be hearthealthy fats, and what are some food sources rich in those fats? a. Unsaturated fats and omega3 fatty acid b. Fish, algae, fish oil, walnuts, flaxseed, brussel sprouts, spinach, parsley, avocados, olives, nuts, sunflower/sesame/pumpkin seeds, nonGMO soymilk/tofu 37. What are some food sources that are high in the omega3 fats EPA and DHA? a. Fish that naturally contain more oil, such as salmon and tuna, are higher in EPA and DHA 5 than lean fish such as cod or flounder. 38. How does eating trans fatty acids affect a person’s health? a. In addition, eating a diet high in saturated fats, trans fats, and cholesterol is linked to an increased risk for heart disease. 39. Are diets that are plantbased higher or lower in saturated fats than diets high in animal products? a. Vegetarians naturally low in saturated fat, but high in fiber. 40. What are the parts of an amino acid? a. All amino acids include five basic parts: a central carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, an amino group consisting of a nitrogen atom and two hydrogen atoms, a carboxyl group consisting of a carbon atom, two oxygen atoms, and one hydrogen atom, and an Rgroup or side chain consisting of varying atoms b. 41. What the process of transferring the amine group from one amino acid to another? a. transamination 42. What is a complete protein? What are some food sources? a. Foods that contain all nine essential amino acids. b. Most complete protein sources are foods derived from animals and include egg whites, meat, poultry, fish, and milk. Soybeans are the most complete source of plant protein. 43. What is an incomplete protein? What are some food sources? a. Foods that do not contain all of the essential amino acids in sufficient amounts to support growth and health. b. Legumes, nuts, seeds, whole grains, and veggies 44. What are some health problems that have been associated with high protein intake? a. High protein intakes may be harmful and can lead to increased blood cholesterol levels, increased calcium excretion, and increased risk for kidney disease in people who are susceptible to kidney problems. 45. What is kwashiorkor? Why does the belly appear swollen? a. Kwashiorkor often occurs in developing countries when infants are weaned early due to the arrival of a subsequent baby. This deficiency disease is typically seen in young children (1 to 3 years of age) who no longer drink breast milk. Instead, they often are fed a lowprotein, starchy cereal. Unlike marasmus, kwashiorkor often develops quickly and causes the person to look swollen, particularly in the belly. This is because the low protein content of the blood is inadequate to keep fluids from seeping into the tissue spaces. 46. What is a highquality protein? a. Proteins that have all nine essential amino acids in sufficient quantities b. Also considered complete quality proteins c. Most complete protein sources are derived from animals: egg whites, meat, poultry, fish, and milk. Soybeans in plants. 6 47. What is a complementary protein pairing? Name examples. a. Mutual supplementation: combining two or more incomplete proteins to make a complete protein pair b. Provide all nine essential amino acids when combined c. Legumes + grains +nuts and seeds= rice and beans, peanut butter and bread, tortilla and beans d. Legumes + grains + nuts and seeds + vegetables= tofu and broccoli with almonds e. Nuts and seeds + legumes= sesame seeds with mixed bean salad 48. What are the recommendations for lowering cardiovascular disease risk? a. Improve blood lipid levels, lower fat intake. b. Maintain total fat intake to within 2035% of energy. c. Decrease dietary saturated fat to less than 7% of total energy intake d. Decrease cholesterol intake to less than 300mg per day e. Keep trans fatty acid to absolute minimum (<1%) f. Increase intake of omega3 fatty acids g. Increase whole grains, fruits, and vegetables so that total dietary fiber is 20 to 30 g per day, with 10 to 25 g per day coming from fiber h. Consume 400 μg/day of folate to maintain low blood levels of homocysteine. i. Maintain blood glucose and insulin concentrations within normal ranges. j. Eat throughout the day instead of eating most of your calories in the evening before bed. k. No more than two alcoholic drinks per day for men and one drink per day for women. l. Maintain an active lifestyle. m. Balance calorie intake and physical activity to achieve or maintain a healthful body weight. n. Decrease salt intake by selecting and preparing foods with little or no salt to help keep blood pressure normal 49. What is denaturation of a protein? a. Changes in shape of protein b. Proteins can uncoil and lose shape when exposed to heat, alcohol, acids, bases, heavy metal c. Does not affect primary structure of protein, loss of function 50. What are some dietary changes that result in increased blood levels of highdensity lipoproteins (HDLs)? a. Lower sugar intake, lower glycemic index b. Moderate alcohol intake can increase HDL c. Consume omega3 fatty acids d. Participation in physical activity and exercise 51. Why does alcohol cause fluid and electrolyte imbalances? a. Dehydration b. Can cause high blood pressure 52. Define “moderate” alcohol consumption. a. One drink per day for women, and two drinks per day for men 53. Describe the nature of the primary metabolic processes occurring in the body after a meal has been consumed and its nutrients have been absorbed. a. Glucose oxidation (fuel source for cells), anabolism (muscle and liver glycogen), fatty acids 7 (anabolism) b. Fatty acids anabolism (adipose triglycerides) c. Amino acids fatty acids (anabolism), anabolism (body proteins) 54. Where in the body is alcohol absorbed? a. Stomach and small intestine b. Does not require digestion prior to absorption 55. What are the products of oxidative phosphorylation metabolism? a. Electron transport chain and occurs in the inner membrane of mitochondria b. NADH and FADH are oxidized and electrons are donated to O , which is reduced to H O. 2 2 c. The energy released from the reduction of O2 to water is used to phosphorylate mitochondrial ADP to ATP, thereby capturing the metabolic energy in ATP’s highenergy phosphate bonds. 56. What is the category of nutrients that supports oxidationreduction reactions that produce energy? a. Vitamins? 57. What are the circumstances that will result in a buildup of ketones in the blood? a. Substances produced during the breakdown of fat when carbohydrate intake is insufficient to meet energy needs. Provide an alternative energy source for the brain when glucose levels are low. Dehydration and acetone breath. 58. What is the molecule that all carbohydrates, fatty acids, amino acids and alcohol break down into? a. Glucose? 59. How does the body maintain blood glucose levels while sleeping overnight? a. The body relies on gluconeogenesis. Normally, the amount of body protein used for gluconeogenesis is low, but it increases dramatically during times of illness, fasting, or starvation. 60. What is the process of converting carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into triglycerides for storage? a. Lipogenesis? 61. Describe the process of synthesizing nonessential amino acids. a. The body typically makes the carbon skeleton of NEAAs from carbohydrate or fatderived metabolites. The amine group can be provided through the process of transamination, where it is donated by one amino acid and accepted by a keto acid. When the keto acid accepts the donated amine group, it becomes a newly formed amino acid. The synthesis of nonessential amino acids occurs only when the body has enough energy and nitrogen to complete the necessary anabolic steps. 62. What hormone is involved in glycogenolysis? a. Cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine 63. What is the most common cause of vitamin toxicity? a. Overconsumption of vitamin supplements 64. What is the range of absorption rates of minerals that enter our digestive tract? a. 310% 8 65. What are some dietary strategies for increasing absorption of nonheme iron? a. If the meal is paired with high Vitamin C foods 66. What is homocysteine, and what are the micronutrients related to keeping homocysteine levels low? a. An amino acid that requires adequate levels of Folate, Vitamin B , and Vitamin B for its 12 6 metabolism. High levels are associated with an increased risk for CVD. b. A byproduct of incomplete methionine metabolism. c. Folate, Vitamin B , a12 Vitamin B reduc6s homocysteine blood levels 67. What are the functions of iodine in the body? a. Synthesis of thyroid hormones, temperature regulation, reproduction and growth 68. What are some foods that are rich in Bvitamins? a. Vitamin B (Th1 min) pork and ham, sunflower seeds, beans, oat bran, mixed dishes that contain whole or enriched grains and meat, tuna fish, soymilk, and soybased meat substitutes are also good sources. Enriched and whole grain foods, including fortified readytoeat cereals, are rich in several Bvitamins, including thiamin. b. Vitamin B (Ri2 flavin) In addition to dairy products, foods considered good sources of riboflavin include eggs, meats, including organ meats, broccoli, enriched bread and grain products, and ready toeat cereals. c. Vitamin B (N3acin) meat, fish, poultry, enriched bread products, and readytoeat cereal d. Vitamin B meat, fish (especially tuna), poultry, and organ meats, enriched readytoeat cereals, 6 white potatoes and other starchy vegetables, bananas, and fortified soybased meat 69. Can the body utilize energy from carbohydrates, proteins, and fats without an adequate supply of B vitamins? a. Yes? But not a lot? 70. What role do the Bvitamins play in enabling the human body to perform physical activity? a. Provides energy Vitamin B deficiency can deplete performance. Reduced ability to perform physical activity. 71. Describe the percentage of the human body that is made up of fluid (this is a range). a. 5070% of human body is made of fluid b. Intracellular fluid c. Extracellular fluid: Interstitial fluid flows between cells that make up a tissue or organ, Intravascular fluid water in blood stream & lymph 72. What are the causes of hypertension? a. Alcohol, kidney disease, sleep apnea (510%) b. 95% of causes are unknown 73. What is the connection between potassium in the diet and blood pressure? a. Diets with a good source of potassium and low sodium may reduce risk of hypertension and stroke b. Helps with fluid balance 74. What is the connection between diets rich in fruits and vegetables and health risks of chronic diseases? a. Dietary fiber, phytochemicals 9 b. Growing evidence that consuming fruits and vegetables more may reduce risks of chronic disease 75. What type of research studies have been used to demonstrate the benefits of phytochemical intake? a. Epidemiologic studies b. Labs phytochemicals have antioxidant properties 76. What happens to the vitamin E content in foods when they are cooked at a high heat? a. Vitamin E is destroyed by exposure to oxygen, metals, ultraviolet light, and heat. Although raw (uncooked) vegetable oils contain vitamin E, heating these oils destroys vitamin E. 77. What is the relationship between smoking and vitamin C needs? a. Smoking increases a person’s Vitamin C needs. 35mg more per day than nonsmokers. 125 mg/day for men, 110 mg/day for women. 78. How do antioxidants act to reduce damage from free radicals? a. Protect cells from damage caused by oxidation (loss of electrons) b. Antioxidant vitamins work independently by donating their electrons or hydrogen molecules to free radicals to stabilize them and reduce the damage caused by oxidation c. Antioxidant minerals act as co factors within complex antioxidant enzyme systems that convert free radicals to less damaging substances that are excreted by the body. They also work to break down fatty acids that have become oxidized, thereby destroying the free radicals associated with them. d. Other compounds such as betacarotene and other phytochemicals help stabilize free radicals and prevent damage to cells and tissues. 79. What are the functions of vitamin A in relation to vision? a. Enables us to react to changes in the brightness of light, and it enables us to distinguish between different wavelengths of light; in other words, to see different colors 80. What micronutrient enables or increases the absorption of calcium? a. Vitamin D 81. Describe the factors that influence calcium absorption. a. Consuming calcium at the same time as iron, zinc, magnesium, or phosphorus has the potential to interfere with the absorption and utilization of all of these minerals b. When diets are generally high in calcium, absorption of calcium is reduced c. The body cannot absorb more than 500 mg of calcium at any one time d. It is critical to consume calciumrich foods throughout the day rather than relying on a single high dose supplement 82. Who is at risk for a vitamin D deficiency? a. Older adults b. People that don’t get enough sun 83. How does location or geography affect vitamin D deficiency risk? a. However, vitamin D synthesis from the sun is not possible during most of the winter months for people living in places located at a latitude of more than 40°N or more than 40°S. This is because at these latitudes, the sun never rises high enough in the sky during the winter to provide the direct sunlight needed. 10 84. What are common sources of folate/folic acid? Where do most Americans get their folate? a. Readytoeat cereals, bread, and other grain products are among the primary sources of folate in the United States; however, you need to read the label of processed grain products to make sure they contain folate. Other good food sources include liver, spinach, lentils, oat meal, asparagus, and romaine lettuce. 85. What is the most common mineral deficiency worldwide? a. Iron deficiency 86. What is the “meat factor”? a. A special factor found in meat, fish, and poultry that enhances the absorption of nonheme iron. 87. What micronutrient should women of childbearing age take to lower the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect? a. Folate 88. What is the effect of inadequate protein intake and inadequate calorie intake on the immune system? a. Malnutrition increases the risk for infection; infection depresses appetite and often causes vomiting and diarrhea; decreased appetite, vomiting, and/or diarrhea cause malnutrition, which increases vulnerability to infection b. Diminish ability of immune system to respond to antigens c. Reduced production of antibodies and diminished capacity to react to antigens 89. How do vitamins C and E protect cell membranes from damage? a. Both act as antioxidants b. Like vitamin E, it donates electrons to free radicals, thus preventing the damage of cells and tissues c. Vitamin C also regenerates vitamin E after it has been oxidized. This occurs when ascorbic acid donates electrons to vitamin E radicals, becoming dehydroascorbic acid. The regenerated vitamin E can now continue to protect cell membranes and other tissues. 90. What is the effect of obesity on the immune system? a. Associated with increased incidence of infection, delayed wound healing, and poor antibody response to vaccination. b. Lower ability of B and T cells to multiply 11
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