Bio 1510 Study Guides
Bio 1510 Study Guides Bio 1510
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This 41 page Study Guide was uploaded by SusanaNucce on Friday May 13, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to Bio 1510 at Wayne State University taught by Dr. Nataliya Turchyn in Spring 2016. Since its upload, it has received 16 views. For similar materials see (LS) Bas Life Mch in Biology at Wayne State University.
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Date Created: 05/13/16
1. What are the first and second Laws of Thermodynamics? a. Energy can’t be created or destroyed in an isolated system b. Entropy of any isolated system always increases 2. What is entropy? a. entropy= is a measure of the disorder of a system 3. What is a calorie vs. a kilocalorie vs. a Calorie? a. 1 kilocalorie = 1000 Calories b. calorie= amount of heat equal to 4.184 joules 4. When a molecule is oxidized or reduced, what happens to its energy level? a. OIL RIG b. Reduced molecule contains more energy c. Oxidized molecule moves closer to nucleus 5. What is the difference between an endergonic vs. exergonic reaction? a. Endergonic-requires input of energy to proceed (photosynthesis) b. Exergonic- release energy (cellular respiration) 6. What is activation energy and how is it affected by enzymes? a. Minimum energy required to start a chemical reaction b. Enzymes lower activation energy 7. Know the following about enzymes: a. Substrate: Sucrose b. active site: region of enzyme where substrate bind c. Ribozyme: RNA molecules that catalyze chemical reactions d. allosteric site: place on an enzyme where a molecule that is not a substrate may bind e. competitive inhibitor: interferes with active site of enzyme so substrate cannot bind f. noncompetitive inhibitor: allosteric inhibitor changes shapes on enzyme so it cannot bind to substrate g. Activator: molecules that bind to enzymes and increase their activity 8. How do temperature and pH affect enzymes? a. Temperature: higher temperature increases rate of reaction b. pH: may change the shape or charge properties of the substrate 9. What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism? a. anabolic=energy in b. catabolic=energy out c. Help with metabolism 10. What is a positive feedback? Negative feedback? (Know the examples of each). a. Positive feedback i. Process in which final (end) product increases its own production 1. Release of oxytocin during childbirth b. Negative feedback i. Process in which final (end) product inhibits its own production 1. Higher concentration of ATP inhibits the production of more ATP 11. Why do we need ATP? a. WORK 1. Know the names and be able to identify the functional groups illustrated in Figure 3.2 2. What is the difference between a polymer and a monomer? ● Monomers are building blocks of polymers. ● Many monomers make up polymers ● Polar covalent bonds held together by amino acids. 3. How are polymers synthesized and broken apart? Dehydration Synthesis: Forms polymers and its to bond formation. ● Water must be removed, and covalent bond must be created ● Hydrolysis: Breaks polymers. ● H2O must be added and two covalent bonds must broken 4. What monomers are proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and lipids made of? ● Monomers of Carbohydrates = Monosaccharides or simple sugars ● Monomers of Nucleic Acids = Cytosine, thymine, Adenine, Guanine ● Monomers of Proteins = Amino acids ● Monomers of Lipids = Glycerol and fatty acids 5. How are monosaccharides linked together? ● They are linked together by a covalent bond 6. What is the difference between a disaccharide and a polysaccharide? What monomers are used to make sucrose, lactose, and maltose? ● Two monosaccharides for disaccharide, and many monosaccharides form polysaccharides (Starch) ● Lactose = Glucose + Galactose ● Maltose = 2 Glucose ● Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose 7. What is the difference between starch and cellulose? What are they made of and what are their functions? ● You can eat starch but can’t digest cellulose ● Starch = Stores energy ● Cellulose = provides structural support ● Made of carbohydrates = Monosaccharides and Polysaccharides 8. Be able to compare amylose to amylopectin to glycogen. Know their overall structures and where they are found. 9. What is chitin and what is its function? ● Provides structural support and it's in the exoskeleton of lobsters and fungi 10. What are DNA and RNA abbreviations for? 11. What are the 3 components of a nucleotide? ● Nucleotide = Phosphate Group, Sugar and Nitrogenous Base. 12. Which component is different between nucleotides found in RNA vs. DNA? ● RNA has U and DNA has T 13. Which component is different between all of the nucleotides? 14. How are nucleotides linked together? ● Covalent bonds 15. What holds the nitrogenous bases together in DNA? ● Weak hydrogen bonds 16. What is the shape of DNA? ● Double Helix 17. What are the differences between DNA and RNA? (overall structure and function) ● DNA: Nitrogenous Bases: Adenine, Guanine, Thymine, Cytosine. Bonds: Phosphodiester and hydrogen bonds ● RNA: Nitrogenous Bases: Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, Uracil. Bonds: Phosphodiester bonds 18. What is the overall structure and function of ATP? ● ATP is the energy currency of the cell. ● Triphosphate group, a 5 carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base (Adenine) 19. What is the basic structure of an amino acid? ● Two carbon added a carboxyl group 20. What holds two amino acids together? ● Peptide bonds 21. Be able to identify amino acids in different chemical classes. 22. What is so special about proline, methionine, and cysteine? ● Methionine : First amino acid to make proteins ● Proline: causes the poly peptide bonds to bend ● Cysteine: sulfur atom that participates in the formation of a disulfide bridge. 23. What are alpha helixes and beta pleated sheets? ● Alpha Helix: Secondary and Hydrogen bonds (spiral) ● Beta Pleated Sheets: Secondary and Hydrogen bonds (sheets) 24. Understand the bonds occurring during the different stages of protein folding ● Hydrogen Bonds- Disulfide Bridge- Ionic Bond-Vanderwal’s attraction-Hydrophobic Exclusion 25. What is the difference between tertiary and quarternary structures? Does every protein have a quarternary structure? ● Teritiary has the overall 3d shape of a polypeptide ● Quarternary is an arrangement of two or more polypeptide chains (subunits) in space. ● NO! 26. What is the function of a chaperone? ● Aide in the proper folding of other proteins 27. What happens when a protein denatures? Dissociates? ● Secondary and Tertiary are altered and it will go back to primary structure. ● Dissociates: large or complex protein made up of several different subunits in which the protein breaks apart and back into its separate subunits. 28. What is a triglyceride? ● FATTTTT 29. What is the major function of fats? ● Backup source of energy 30. What is the difference between unsaturated and saturated fats? ● Unsaturated Fat= liquid at room temperature ● Fatty acids have double bonds, preventing them from packing closely together ● Saturated Fat= Solid at room temperature ● No double bonds 31. What is cholesterol? ● Found in animal cell membrane, a steroids. ● Makes up membrane less permeable to water soluble molecules 32. What are phospholipids made of? ● Two fatty acids 33. Why do cells need so many phospholipids? ● Allows the membrane to have a store of lipid in the center and the allows the lipid soluble molecules in the cell. 34. What is the difference between a micelle and a lipid bilayer? ● Monolayered structures that form by adding detergents to water. ● Phospholipid bilayer= More complicated structure where 2 layers form: ● Hydrophilic heads point outward ● Hydrophobic tails point inwards toward each other 1. What is the difference between: a. paracrine signaling: short-lived ligands that affect nearby target cells; involved in wound healing b. endocrine signaling: long-lived ligands that travel through circulatory system to induce changes in several distance target cells c. synaptic signaling: nerve cell releases short-lived ligands into the gap which forms between nerve and target cells d. autocrine signaling: cells send signals to itself e. direct contact signaling: molecule on the plasma membrane of one cell contacts the receptor molecule on an adjacent cell (think about the types of ligands each use and what biological processes they are used for) 2. What happens when the following types of receptors bind their ligands: a. gated ion channels:open to let specific ions such as Na+,K+,ca2+,Cl- to pass through the membrane in response to the binding of a ligand b. intracellular receptors (also know what type of ligands these bind): Hormones cross plasma membrane and bind to cytoplasmic receptors, hormone binding alters receptor conformation so it no longer binds inhibitor, Hormone-receptor complex translocates to nucleus, and then binds to DNA (turn on the transcription), cellular response is a change in gene expression. c. enzyme receptors: have enzymatic activity, become active when ligand binds to C+ d. G protein linked receptors: most common receptors found in our plasma membrane consists of 7 Alpha Helices. 3. Know how nitric oxide affects blood vessels: a. what cells produce it: everything! b. how are smooth muscles affected by it: arteries and veins have smooth muscle cells that regulate diameter by making them larger (vasodilation) or constricting them (vasoconstriction) c. how is blood flow affected by it: when smooth muscle cells relax--> blood vessels dilate--> increased blood flow 4. What is the difference between a tyrosine kinase and serine/threonine kinase? a. Tyrosine kinase: Influence cell cycle, cell migration, cell metabolism, and cell proliferation. B. Serine/ threonine: protein kinase; they can make proteins active or inactive 5. What type of receptor is the insulin receptor and how does it affect blood glucose levels? a. Belong to RTKs (receptor tyrosine kinases) b. Is activated by insulin which lowers blood glucose levels 6. What is the best way to “amplify” a signal? a. MAP kinases amplify the signal because a few signal molecules can elicit a large cell response 7. How is Ras activated? What is the overall effect when it is activated? a. Activated by receptor tyrosine kinase b. 8. What happens when adenylyl cyclase is activated? a. It produces cyclic AMP (cAMP)=2nd messenger 9. What happens when phospholipase C is activated? a. Cleaves phosphatidylinositol-4,5 b. Biphosphate (PIP2) to inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) i. Both act as 2nd messengers 10. What are second messengers? What are the most common second messengers? a. Intracellular signals b. Cyclic AMP is a derivative of ATP 1. What is the difference between autotrophs and heterotrophs? a. Autotrophs: producer of complex organic compounds from simple substances b. Heterotrophs: consumer of organisms for nutritional requirements 2. What is dehydrogenation and how does it relate to oxidation? a. Dehydrogenation is a type of oxidation reaction which involves the removal of an hydrogen atom(H) from a molecule or compound. 3. What is the difference between aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation? a. Aerobic: with oxygen b. Anaerobic: without oxygen c. Fermentation: converts sugars to acids, gases or alcohol 4. What is the function of NAD and FAD? a. NAD+= Electron carriers, accepts ONE hydrogen b. FAD= Electron carriers, accepts electron pair from succinate 5. What is the difference between producing ATP by substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation? a. Oxidative phosphorylation: produces the largest amount of ATP and occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane. b. Phosphorylation: making ATP glycolysis and krebs cycles, happens in cytoplasm and mitochondria 6. Compare glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the Krebs Cycle a. What is the starting material for each? i. Glycolysis: Glucose ii. Pyruvate Oxidation: Glycolysis iii. Krebs Cycles: Oxaloacetic acid and Acetyl Coenzyme A b. Where do they occur? i. Glycolysis: Cytoplasm ii. Pyruvate Oxidation: Mitochondrial matrix iii. Krebs Cycles: Mitochondrial matrix c. What are the products? How many ATP, NADH, and FADH 2 are generated? i. Glycolysis: Two pyruvate and two ATP, and two NADH ii. Pyruvate Oxidation: Coenzyme A, acetyl CoA iii. Krebs cycle: 6 NADH + H, 2 FADH2, 4 carbon dioxide, 2 ATP 7. What is a kinase? a. An enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group form ATP to a specified molecule. 8. What is an isomerase? a. An enzyme that catalyzes a specified compound to an isomer, used in glycolysis. 9. What are the three overall phases of the Krebs cycle? a. Acetyl Coenzyme production b. Acetyl Coenzyme oxidation c. Electron Transfer 10. What are the proton (H ion) pumps and electron carriers in the electron transport chain? a. Three H pumps + 2 mobile electron carriers (Q+C) b. NADH dehydrogenase, BC one complex, and Cytochrome oxidase complex c. Pumps H+ ions UP the concentration gradient using energy from e- 11. How does ATP synthase work? a. Phosphorylates ADP to form ATP using energy from a proton (H+) gradient 12. What is deamination? a. Removal of amino group from amino acid 13. What is b-oxidation? a. Fatty acid oxidation b. Occurs in the mitochondrial matrix c. Produces acetyl CoA. NADH, and FADH2 14. Why don’t carbohydrate rich diets work? a. Glucose molecule lead to formation of Acetyl CoA b. React with glycerol = gain weight 1. What are the four components of phospholipids? a. Glycerol, 2 fatty acids, and phosphorous 2. How is the plasma membrane organized (what types of molecules are found on the extracellular side vs. the cytoplasmic/intracellular side)? a. Phopholipid bilayer, cell surface markers-extracellular b. Transmembrane proteins and interior protein networks- intracellular 3. What are transmembrane proteins? a. Proteins that extend across the bilayer as single alpha helix, multiple alpha helices, or B-barrel 4. Where are carbohydrates found on the plasma membrane (extracellular side or cytoplasmic/intracellular side)? a. Found in outer surface of all eukaryotic cell membranes and are attached to membrane proteins or sometimes phospholipids 5. What are peripheral membrane proteins? a. Don’t extend; found on outside/inside of cell membranes b. Interact with membrane by being connected with transmembrane protein 6. What are glycoproteins? a. Found outside of cell membrane i. Only face extracellular fluid b. Involved in cell identity (transplants) 7. What functions do the membrane proteins perform? a. Transports molecules and ions b. Catalyses chemical reactions c. Cell-surface identity marker 8. What is the difference between a phospholipid-anchored protein vs. a transmembrane protein? (a helix vs. b barrel and multiple a helices) a. Phospholipid-anchored proteins: attached to either side of the bilayer by covalent attachment to one or more lipid molecules b. Peripheral proteins interact with the membrane via noncovalent binding to other membrane proteins 9. Be able to explain the following: a. simple diffusion- it allows molecules to cross the membrane without the aid of membrane proteins b. facilitated diffusion- with the help of membrane proteins c. active transport-movement of molecules up their concentration gradient with the help of energy 10. What is the difference between channel proteins vs. carrier proteins? a. Channel proteins: integral proteins that create hydrophilic pore through which specific ions diffuse b. Carrier proteins:integral proteins that change their shape to allow polar molecules to pass through the membrane 11. What happens when an animal cell is put into a hypertonic, hypotonic, vs. isotonic solution? a. referring to the example during lecture: i. if the extracellular solution is hypertonic compared to the cytoplasm of the cell, then the cytoplasm of the cell is hypotonic compared to the extracellular solution ii. always remember that tonicity refers to the concentration of solutes iii. if the concentration of solutes is high in a given area, the concentration of water molecules is low in that same area iv. water molecules move to an area where the concentration of water molecules is low and the concentration of solutes is high 12. What happens when a plant cell is put into a hypertonic, hypotonic, vs. isotonic solution? a. Hypertonic: shriveled b. Isotonic: flaccid c. Hypotonic: swollen 13. What structure does water use to move across the plasma membrane? a. Osmosis-diffusion of water down its concentration gradient 14. How does the sodium-potassium pump work: a. How many sodium ions are pumped across the membrane during each cycle? i. 3 b. How many potassium ions are pumped across the membrane during each cycle? i. 2 c. Are the ions moving from high to low concentration or from low to high concentration? i. Low to high-against concentration gradient d. What does the pump use for energy to move the ions? i. ATP directly→ creates high concentration of Na ions outside of cell 15. What is the difference between cotransport vs. countertransport (sodium-glucose transporter vs. sodium-hydrogen exchanger)? a. Cotransport: i. 2 molecules move to same side of cell 1. Na/ glucose both move into the cell b. Countertransport i. 2 molecules move opposite side of cell membrane 1. Na/Ca v Na/H 16. What is endocytosis and how does it work? a. Energy using process by which cells import substances from the external medium b. Used by protists and white blood cells 17. What is the difference between phagocytosis and pinocytosis? a. phagocytosis: i. Ingestion of large particles such as microorganisms and cell debris b. Pinocytosis: i. Uptake of fluid and small molecules 18. What is the receptor-mediated endocytosis? a. It requires receptor to bring specific molecules into the cell 19. What is exocytosis and how does it work? a. Energy using process by which cells export substances to the extracellular environment b. Active transport 1. What is the difference between heterochromatin and euchromatin? ➢ Heterochromatin: tightly packed form on DNA ➢ Euchromatin: contains less DNA compared to heterochromatin 2. What are histones? ➢ Any group of basin protein found in the chromatin 3. What are nucleosomes? ➢ A structural unit of a eukaryotic chromosome, consisting of a length of DNA coiled around a core of histones 4. What is the function of a condensin and when is it needed during cell division? ➢ A large protein complexes that play a central role in chromosome assembly and segregation during mitosis and meiosis 5. What is the function of cohesins and when are they needed during cell division? ➢ Chromosome cohesins enables accurate chromosome segregation in mitosis and meiosis 6. What is the difference between diploid and haploid? ➢ Diploid= two ➢ Haploid = one 7. What are homologous chromosomes? ➢ Similar but not identical chromosomes 8. What is the difference between autosomes and sex chromosomes? ➢ Autosome: Everything except for the sex chromosomes ➢ Sex Chromosome: XY 9. What is a karyotype? ➢ The number and appearance of chromosome in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. 10. What occurs during the following phases of the cell cycle? ➢ G0: cell is neither dividing nor preparing to divide ➢ G1: Growth ■ Increase in size ■ New proteins and organelles made ➢ G2: Growth and preparation of cell division ➢ S phase: Produce two similar daughter cells, complete DNA instructions in the cell must be duplicated. DNA REPLICATION ➢ M phase: Interphase, Mitosis,and cytokinesis 11. What occurs during the following phases of mitosis? ➢ Prophase: first phase of mitosis ■ Mitotic Spindle begins to form ■ Chromosomes are tightly packer condensed due to condensin ■ Nuclear envelope is still present ➢ Prometaphase: The cell still has 2 centrosomes ■ Nuclear envelope breaks apart ■ Kinetochore microtubules are attached to each sister chromatid of the chromosome; thru kinetochore ➢ Metaphase: The cell has 2 centrosomes ■ Mitotic spindle brings all chromosomes to the middle of the cell ■ Chromosomes are aligned on the metaphase plate. ■ All kinetochore microtubules are about the same length ➢ Anaphase: The cell still has 2 centrosomes ■ Cohesin proteins are destroyed ■ Sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell ● Now called called chromosomes ■ Kinetochore microtubules decrease in length, while polar microtubules become longer ■ Condensin proteins are still present ➢ Telophase: The cell still has 2 centrosomes ■ Mitotic Spindle disassemble ■ Condensin proteins are destroyed ■ Nuclear envelope reforms around each set of chromosomes 12. What is a cleavage furrow and what type of cells is it formed in? ➢ Cleavage Furrow: indentation in the cell surface ➢ Animal cell cleavage forms 13. What is the difference between cytokinesis in plants and animals? ➢ Plant cells have cell walls and animal cells do not 14. When do the three checkpoints occur during the cell cycle? ➢ Cell division ■ G2/M checkpoint: Cell assesses success of DNA replication and centrosome duplication ● Makes a commitment mitosis ■ Spindle Checkpoint: Cell ensures that all chromosomes are aligned on metaphase plate and attached to mitotic spindle ■ G1/S checkpoint: Cell ensures that DNA is not damaged ● Primary point for external signal influence 15. How are cyclins controlled? ➢ CDK=Cyclin dependent kinase = enzyme that phosphorylates proteins 16. How are cyclin dependent kinases controlled? ➢ Inhibitory phosphate ➢ Activating phosphate = activates CDS 17. What is the difference between proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes? ➢ Proto-oncogenes: code for proto-oncogene proteins that stimulate cell division ( RAS protein and SRC kinase) ■ They become oncogenes when mutated ■ Oncogenes can cause cancer (Uncontrolled growth of cells) ➢ Tumor-suppressor genes: encode tumor-suppressor proteins that inhibit cell division (p53 protein and Rb protein) 18. What is the function of p53? ➢ Stops cell division---> Rb/P53---> mutation and can’t prevent cells with damaged DNA from dividing. 1. What are the three components of nucleotides? ❏ A sugar, a phosphate, and one the four bases ❏ Which component varies between the different nucleotides? ❏ The base varies between the different nucleotides (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine) 2. What is at the 5’ end and the 3’ end of DNA? ❏ 5’ end of the DNA is a free phosphate group, where the 3’C terminal attached (5 C’ phosphate group) + 3’ Hydroxyl group is OH 3. What are the rules of nucleotide pairing? ❏ A---->T and C---->G 4. Who are Rosalyn Franklin, Maurice Wilkins, James Watson, and Francis Crick? ❏ Performed on X-ray diffraction + that DNA has a helix shape with two diameter of 2 manometers. ❏ James Watson and Francis Gick ❏ DNA is double helix ❏ 2 strands of nucleotides bases point inwards and form base pairs, purines pairing with pyrimidines ❏ Strands are antiparallel 5. What bonds hold the sugar-phosphate backbone together in DNA? ❏ Phosphodiester bonds= forms between the 5’ phosphate group of one sugar and 3’ hydroxyl group of the adjacent sugar. Sugar-Phosphate backbone. 6. What bonds hold the pairing nucleotides together in DNA? ❏ Hydrogen bond between nitrogenous bases for nucleotides together. 7. How is DNA synthesized? ❏ The nucleotide that is to be incorporated into the growing DNA chain in selected by base pairing with the template strand of the DNA 8. What is the function of: ❏ DNA polymerase III: build a strand of DNA using DNA as a template ❏ Helicase: opens up the helix- responsible for separating two strands of parent DNA molecules apart ❏ Gyrase: stops DNA from twisting ❏ Primase: RNA polymerase, constructs on RNA ❏ Ligase: attaches Okazaki fragments to lagging strand ❏ DNA polymerase I: removes RNA primers and fills gap 9. What is the difference between the leading and lagging strand? ❏ Leading Strand: replicates, TOWARD replication fork, Synthesized continuously ❏ Lagging Strand: elongates, FROM replication fork, synthesized discontinuously, products of Okazaki fragments 10.What are Okazaki fragments? ❏ Lagging daughter strand is synthesized discontinuously in small segments called okazaki fragments 11.What is the function of telomerase? ❏ Enzyme that reverses transcription ❏ Does not serve as a template for telomere lengthening 12.What are telomeres? ❏ Compound structure at the end of a chromosome 13.What causes DNA breaks and how are they repaired? ❏ UV light light breaks and distorts the helix by thymine dimer ❏ Photorepair: Photolyase cleaves the thymine dimer ❏ Excision repair: Excision repair enzymes recognize damaged DNA and UVR A, B, C complex binds damaged DNA 14.What was demonstrated by the Hershey-Chase Experiment? ❏ Used different radioactive isotopes to label DNA and protein in bacteriophages ❏ New bacteriophage passed genetic information into host cell, which was then used to produce new viruses ❏ Found in material used to specify new generation of viruses were made of DNA 15.What was demonstrated by the Meselsohn-Stahl Experiment? ❏ E. coli were grown in a heavy isotope of nitrogen ❏ All the DNA incorporated ❏ Cells were then switched to media containing lighter isotopes of nitrogen ❏ DNA was extracted from the cells at various time intervals 1. What is the difference between gametes/germ-line cells and somatic cells? a. gametes/germ cells= include egg and sperm which are produced via meiosis and are haploid (n) b. Somatic cells= body cells which are produced via mitosis and are diploid(2n) 2. What is a zygote? a. A diploid cell resulting from the fusion of two haploid gametes; a fertilized ovum 3. Know the following: a. Synapsis: pairing of 2 homologous chromosomes b. synaptonemal complex: layer of proteins that holds 2 homologous chromosome together c. crossing over: involves the exchange of DNA between non-identical chromatids of homologous structures d. Chiasmata: where exchange of DNA occurs e. Tetrad: 2 homologous chromosomes f. independent assortment 4. Where are the two places the chromatids within a tetrad are held together? a. Prophase I and metaphase I 5. Know what happens at each stage of Meiosis I and Meiosis II a. Meiosis I i. Prophase I 1. Mitotic spindle begins to form and nuclear envelope breaks apart 2. Formation of tetrads and synapsis occurs 3. Crossing over occurs ii. Metaphase I 1. Tetrads are aligned on the metaphase plate 2. Microtubules of one pole are attached to the kinetochore of one chromosome of each tetrad iii. Anaphase I 1. Pairs of homologous chromosomes separate because synaptoneal complex is destroyed 2. Non -identical sister chromatids held together by cohesion a. No longer identical because of crossing over iv. Telophase I and Cytokinesis 1. Mitoitic spindle diassembles 2. Nuclear envelope reforms 3. Chromosomes uncoil 4. Contractile ring pinches the cell in half b. Meiosis II i. Prophase II 1. Begins after interphase without chromosome replication 2. Nuclear envelope breaks apart 3. Each chromosome consists of 2 non-identical sister chromatids ii. Metaphase II 1. Attached to kinetochore of all chromatids iii. Anaphase II 1. Cohesion destroyed→ sister chromatids come apart→ condensins still present 2. Polar microtubules get longer iv. Telophase II and cytokinesis 1. Nuclear envelope reforms 2. Chromosome decondense 3. Cytokinesis follows 4. 4 haploid daughter cells are produced 6. Know the similarities and differences between Mitosis and Meiosis a. Meiosis I i. Homologous chromosomes pair ii. Align on metaphase plate iii. 2 daughter cells aren’t identical b. Mitosis i. Homologous chromosomes do not pair ii. Align on metaphase plate iii. Are identical c. Meiosis II i. Chromosomes align; sister chromatids seperate; 4 haploid cells result; each containing half the original number of homologous 1. What data suggested to scientists that traits are associated with sex chromosomes? a. Eye color gene resides on X chromosome b. Study with flies-white/red 2. What is the SRY gene and what occurs when it is mutated or absent in men? a. SRY= sex determining region Y gene i. Encodes the TDF protein b. Swyer Syndrome: Y chromosome is affected, X chromosome is normal i. Male genotype (XY), female phenotype (no testis, female external genitalia, uterus, but no ovaries) 3. What is androgen insensitivity syndrome? a. Androgen receptor is mutated i. androgens=male sex hormones b. X chromosome affected, Y chromosome normal 4. Why are men more likely to have sex-linked disorders? a. X has over 2000 genes linked to it male only has 1 X so can’t be a carrier 5. What is a barr body? a. Inactivated highly condensed X chromosome→ one in normal female 6. What is responsible for the color pattern seen in the fur of calico cats? a. x-chromosome inactivation barr body b. epistasis 7. What is the difference between nuclear DNA and mitochondrial DNA? a. Nuclear DNA: passed down from both mom and dad b. Mitochondrial DNA: passed down only from mom 8. What causes Klinefelter Syndrome, Turner Syndrome, and Down Syndrome? a. Nondisjunction: failure of homologous chromosome or sister chromatids to separate properly during anaphase i. Klinefelter Syndrome: trisomy→ XX+Y=XXY→ male ii. Turner Syndrome: monosomy→ O+X=XO-->female iii. Down Syndrome: trisomy 21→ 3 copies of chromosome 21 9. What is the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling? a. Amniocentesis i. Obtain fetal cells from amniotic fluid(fluid that surrounds fetus) for examination 1. Contain skin cells shed by the fetus b. Chorionic villus sampling i. Obtain fetal cells from chorionic villi (finger-shaped growths found in the placenta) for karyotyping 1. Less risky and yields faster results 10.What is recombination frequency and how does it relate to the distance between genes? a. Distance between 2 linked genes b. Crossing over most likely to happen when 2 genes are far apart from each other than when they are next to each other Things you need to know: ○ the definition of: ■ Allele: one of two or more alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place on a chromosome ■ Homozygous: two dominant alleles (DD) ■ Heterozygous: One dominant, one recessive (Dd) ■ Dominant: shows up in every generation ■ Recessive: skips one or more generations ■ Genotype: genetic makeup of an organism; total set of alleles the organism contains ■ Phenotype: physical appearance of an organism ○ how to do a Punnett Square for a monohybrid cross ○ how a pedigree can be used to determine whether a trait is dominant vs. recessive ○ the reason for performing a test cross and what is needed to perform a testcross ■ Dihybrid cross: mating between 2 organisms that are similar in everything except 2 traits ■ Test Cross: cross used to determine whether you have a homozygous dominant or heterozygous organism a. Cross the individual with unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive ○ the definition of and examples of: ■ polygenic inheritance: more than one genes affects a single trait ■ Pleiotropy: Single gene affects more that one trait ■ Codominance: Two different alleles of a single gene are both expressed, they don’t overpower each other in the phenotype and heterozygous shows some aspects of the phenotypes of both homozygotes. ■ incomplete dominance: heterozygous genotype produces an intermediate phenotype between phenotypes of homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive ■ Epistasis: one gene that affects expression of another gene ○ how the environment can affect genes ■ External world in which the organism is located or develops, as well as the organism’s internal world, which includes such as factors as its hormones and metabolism 1.What are atoms made of? a. Protons(+) b. Neutrons c. electrons() 2. What is the difference between atomic number and atomic mass? a. # of protons and electrons=atomic number b. Atomic mass = protons+neutrons 3. What are ions? a. Ions form when atom gains or loses electrons 4. What is the difference between cations and anions? a. cation=positive→ lose electron (CATS ARE POSITIVE) b. anion=negative→ gain electron 5. What are isotopes?(NEU ISO) a. They have different number of neutrons b. Electrons and protons remain the same 6. Oxidation v. Reduction a. OIL RIG i. Oxidation losing electron ii. Reduction gaining electron b. both happen together 7. Electron energy levels and orbitals a. Energy level=chemical activity i. K,l,m,n ii. N has the most energy iii. Has valence shells→ determine chemical property of the atom 1. Atoms interact to get full shell B. Orbitals tell us physical location of electron around nucleus 1. S(spherical)p(dumbbell),d,f 2. No orbital can contain more than 2 electrons 3. k=2,l=8,m=18; contain 9 orbitals a. 2n 2 8. How are chemical reactions controlled? 1. catalysts→ speed up rate of reaction 2. temperature→ speed up as temp goes higher 3. Concentration of reaction v products→ the more reactants the faster the product forms 9. Ionic bondstransfer electrons a. Bonds between 2 oppositely charged ions→ cations and anions 10. Covalent bondssharing electrons a. 2 atoms sharing one or more pairs of outer shell electrons 11. Electronegativity a. Atoms attraction for shared electrons 12. Polar v nonpolar covalent bonds a. polar= form between atoms that dont share their electrons equally i. OH>o is partial negative and high electronegativity and H is opposite B. nonpolar= form between atoms that equally share their outer shell electrons I. have same or similar electronegativity 13. Hydrogen bonds a. Form btwn H atom of one molecule and electronegative atom of another b. H is FON c. Bond between 2 water molecules is hydrogen bond 14. Cohesion v. adhesion a. cohesion=h2o molecules stick together by hydrogen bonding i. Surface tension=allows water strider to walk on water without breaking water surface B, adhesion= h2o molecules stick to other polar molecules by hydrogen bonding I. capillary action a. Adhesion of h2o molecules to glass is stronger than cohesion 15. Specific heat of water a. It maintains core temperature b. Takes a lot of energy to change the temperature of water 16. Heat of vaporization a. A lot of energy is needed to change liquid into vapor b. It helps us release excess body heat by sweating i. h2O 17. What happens to water when its freezing? a. Ice floats on liquid b. Water is more organized c. H bonds are more stable d. Liquid is dynamic→ breaks and reforms e. Bodies of water freeze top down 18. Hydrophilic v hydrophobic a. hydrophilic= water-loving→ polar(h20 bonded to itself) b. hydrophobic= water-fearing→ non-polar i. Oil doesnt mix with water 19. Hydrophobic exclusion a. Hydrophobic molecules exclude themselves from h2O molecules 20. Acids v Bases a. Acids 07 i. Stomach, lemon b. Bases 714 i. Bleach and small intestine c. Blood pH-7.4→ slightly basic 21. How do buffers work? a. Buffer is a substance that minimizes changes in pH b. Donates or accepts H ions depending on if the solution is too basic or acidic 22. What causes blood acidosis v alkalosis a. Acidosis i. Blood ph is acidic ii. Less than 7.35 iii. Causes: hypoventilation→ breathing too little iv. Correct: by reducing H and increasing bicarbonate 1. Reduce CO2 by inhaling more b. Alkalosis i. Blood becomes too basic ii. pH higher than 7.45 iii. Causes:hyperventilation→ breathing too much iv. Correct: increasing H and carbonic acid to blood and then increase CO2 1. Know the definition of: a. Operon: unit made of linked genes that regulates other genes which are responsible for protein synthesis b. Repressor: DNA or RNA binding protein that inhibits the expression of one or more genes by binding to the operator c. Activator: protein that increases gene transcription of a gene or set of genes d. Enhancer: a short region of DNA that can be bound by proteins to activate transcription of a gene e. TATA box: DNA sequence where a genetic sequence can be read or decoded f. Induction: is the ability of one cell or tissue to direct the development of neighboring cells or tissues g. Reduction: blocks RNA polymerase to the promoter→ preventing transcription of the genes into mRNA h. Positive control:increases frequency of initiation i. Negative control: decreases frequency of initiation 2. What is the difference between factors that control gene expression in eukaryotes vs. prokaryotes? a. Eukaryotes i. silencer b. Prokaryotes i. Under control of same promoter and transcribed as one unit ii. Lactose operon iii. Tryptophan operon iv. operator 3. Where do DNA-binding regulatory proteins bind on DNA? a. Enhancers closer to the general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II 4. What are the 3 main types of DNA binding motifs, and what are their distinguishing features? What is the homeodomain motif? a. Helix-turn-helix motif i. Two adjacent alpha helices seperated by tur of several AA b. Zinc finger motif i. Use zinc atoms to coordinate DNA binding c. Leucine zipper motif i. Form a zipper which the regions beyond interact with each other 5. The trp operon: a. what is the function of enzymes produced by the trp operon? i. To allow RNA polymerase to move forward and start transcription b. what happens when tryptophan is present? Absent? i. Absent =active ii. present= inactive 6. The lac operon: a. what are the functions of enzymes produced by the operon? i. Metabolizes lactose b. what two conditions must be met for the operon to be transcribed? i. Level of glucose must be very low ii. There Must be lactose present c. how is the activator controlled? i. CAP d. how is the repressor controlled? i. No longer bind to operator 7. What is the difference between general and specific transcription factors? a. General: necessary for the assembly of a transcription apparatus and recruitment of RNA polymerase II to a promoter. b. Specific: -increase the level of transcription - activators bind to enhancers (DNA sequences that enhance transcription) - coactivators bridge activators with general transcription factors 8. How are enhancers that are far from the promoter able to affect transcription? a. Causes DNA to bend and they move closer to general transcription factors 9. How is transcription affected by chemical modification of histones or DNA? a. Histone deacetylases remove acetyl groups from histone tails making promoter regions inaccessible to transcription factors 10. What is alternative splicing? a. Single primary RNA transcript is spliced into different mRNAs by the inclusion of different set of exons 11. What is the difference between microRNAs (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs)? a. Production similar to mRNA but siRNA arise from long, exogenous double-stranded RNA 12. What is the RNA interference (RNAi)? a. Type of gene silencing in which RNA binds to mRNA degradation 13. What is the relationship between ubiquitin, the proteosome, and protein half-life? a. Ubiquitination → ubiquitin is attached to ubiquitin ligase protein is wrong AA sequence 1. Know the anatomy of chloroplasts: a. Outer membrane b. Inner membrane c. Thylakoid membrane d. Thylakoid e. Grana f. Stroma 2. Know the reactants and products of photosynthesis; Know where they occur; Know what they produce: a. 6CO2+6H2O+sunlight--> C6H1206+6O2 3. For the light-dependent reactions and dark reactions: a. Light-dependent: occurs in thylakoid membrane; requires sunlight; make ATP, NADPH, and O2 b. Dark reactions: occurs in the stroma; doesn’t require sunlight; use ATP and NADPH to synthesize organic molecules from CO2 4. Know the function and differences between the three pigments. •Chlorophyll a – main photosynthetic pigment that absorbs violet-blue and red light, but reflects green • Chlorophyll b – accessory pigment that absorbs more blue and a little bit of orange and red light, but reflects green • Carotenoids – accessory pigments that absorb mostly blue and green, but reflect yellow, orange, and red light 5. Know how the photosystems work: • Photosystem I uses its high energy electrons to make NADPH • Photosystem II uses its high energy electrons to make ATP • Photosystem I replaces its lost electrons by electrons from photosystem II • Photosystem II replaces its lost electrons by splitting or oxidizing water 6. What is the antenna complex and how does it work? a. Antenna complex: group of photoreceptors that channel sunlight to the reaction center b. These pigments bounce light to the main reaction center 7. What is a reaction center? a. Pigments that control the reactions of photosynthesis 8. What is the energy from photosystem I used for? a. Uses high energy electrons to make NADPH 9. What is the energy from photosystem II used for? a. Make ATP 10.How are the electrons replenished in photosystem I? a. Replaces its last electron by electron from photosystem II 11.How are the electrons replenished in photosystem II? a. Replaces the last electron by splitting/oxidizing H2O 12.What is the function of the following: a. b6-f complex b. NADP reductase c. Plastoquinone d. Plastocyanin e. Ferredoxin 13.What is carbon fixation? What enzyme performs this function? a. Carbon fixation: сarbon assimilation refers to the conversion process of inorganic carbon(carbon dioxide). b. Enzyme: RuBisCO 14.How many molecules of carbon dioxide are needed to produce one molecule of glucose? a. SIXXX 15.C3 What is photorespiration? a. a respiratory process in many higher plants by which they take up oxygen in the light and give out some carbon dioxide, contrary to the general pattern of photosynthesis. 16.What is the difference between C3, C4, and CAM plants? a. C3 is found in all photosynthetic plants, single carbon fixation occurs, b. C4 occurs only in tropical plants, photoactive stomata, double carbon fixation c. CAM plants are a double carbon fixation, and have c3 and C4 pathway. Ex: pineapple and cacti 1. What is transcription and what enzyme performs this function? a. Gene expression→ DNA copied into RNA b. Enzyme= RNA polymerase 2. What is translation and what organelle performs this function? a. RNA is used as template to make the polypeptide b. Ribosomes 3. What are the five different types of RNA and what are their different functions? a. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) i. RNA found inside ribosomes b. Transfer RNA (tRNA) i. Temporary link between AA and mRNA that is being translates c. Messenger RNA (mRNA) i. Actual template for AA assembly in polypeptide synthesis d. Small Nuclear RNA (snRNA) i. Involved in mRNA processing e. Signal Recognition Particle RNA (SRP RNA) i. Needed for proteins produce in rough ER 4. What is a promoter? a. Is a region of DNA template stande where RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription 5. What is a TATA box? a. A region of DNA consisting of A and T bases in prokaryotes and eukaryotes 6. What are transcription factors? a. Proteins that help RNA polymerase to locate promoter and initiate transcription 7. In what direction does RNA grow as its being produced? a. 5’--> 3’ b. RNA polymerase moves from 3’ end of template strand 8. What causes transcription to stop? a. Stop sequences(terminators): a the end of gene cause phosphodiester bond formation to halt, RNA polymerase to relase DNA, and DNA to rewind 9. What steps are needed to convert RNA into mRNA? a. Addition of 5’ cap: phosphate is removed and GTP is added b. Addition of 3’ poly-A tail: both protect RNA from degradation by ribonucleases 10. What is the function of the spliceosome? a. Removes introns from transcribed pre-mRNA, a kind of primary transcript 11. Know how to use the genetic code to translate an mRNA sequence into an amino acid sequence 12. How is translation initiated? a. Appropriate AA must be attached to its tRNA molecule i. Performed by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase 13. What is occurring in the E, P, and A sites of the ribosome during translation elongation? a. P site: holds tRNA with a growing polypeptide chain (where the first tRNA enters) b. A site: where the rest of the charged tRNAs first enter c. E site: where the uncharged tRNAs exit 14. What stops translation? (what is a nonsense codon?) a. A nonsense codon stops translastion. 15. How do proteins enter the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. Release factor binds to mRNA and release newly made polypeptide from the ribosome 16. What are the differences in gene expression between eukaryotes and prokaryotes? 17. What is the difference between a silent mutation, a missense mutation, and a nonsense mutation? a. Point mutation: Change of one base pair to another b. Missense Mutation: codon change alters the amino acid encoded c. Nonsense Mutation: Changes a codon specifying an amino acid into termination codon; results in the formation of short polypeptide d. Silent Mutation: alters a codon but does not result in a change in the amino acid. 18. What is a translocation? a. Non-homologous chromosomes exchange regions with each other creating two new chromosomes 1. Why is it advantageous for cells to be small? ● Maximize surface area to volume ● Cells are so small because they need to be able to get the nutrients in and the waste out quickly. 2. What is resolution? ● It is the ability of eye to distinguish two things that are very close together. 1. What is the resolving power of the human eye vs. a light microscope vs. an electron microscope? ● Human Eye: 20/20 vision ● Light Microscope: as small as bacterium ● Electron Microscope: higher than light microscope 2. What type of microscope do you need to see blood cells, mitochondria, proteins? ● Electron Microscope 3. What is the advantage to using a confocal microscope? ● It’s really good at rejecting outside fluorescent light 4. What is the difference between scanning and transmission electron microscopes? 3. Be able to label the following and know their general function on a prokaryotic cell: a. flagellum b. capsule c. cell wall d. plasma membrane e. nucleoid f ribosomes g. cytoplasm 4. Know the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. ● Gram-positive: retains purple color stain and cell wall: peptidoglycan which is targeted by penicillin. ● Gram-negative: cell walls made of lipopolysaccharides and thin peptidoglycan layer. 5. Know the differences between the cell walls of bacteria and archaea (would penicillin affect both?) ● Archaea cell walls don’t have peptidoglycan, doesn’t get affected by penicillin 6. Be able to label the following on plant and animal cells: 1. nucleus 2. ribosomes 3. rough endoplasmic reticulum 4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum 5. mitochondria 6. chloroplasts 7. Golgi 8. central vacuole 9. cytoplasm 10. plasma membrane 11. cell wall 7. What occurs in the nucleolus? ● It’s in the nucleus, makes Rrna and the Rrna combines with proteins to form small and large ribosomal units. 8. What is the structure of the nuclear envelope? ● It has a inner and outer membrane for protection 9. What is the function of nuclear pores? ● Control passage for molecules in and out of the nucleus 10. What is the function of ribosomes? ● Protein Synthesis, ● Each unit is composed of rRNAs and proteins 11. What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? ● Synthesis and modification of proteins ● Contains chaperones 12. What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? ● Synthesis of lipids, storage of calcium in the muscle cells, and detoxification of drugs and poison in the liver. 13. What cells have more smooth endoplasmic reticulum than rough endoplasmic reticulum (and vice versa)? ● More Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum: cells in testes and ovaries ● Rough ER: white blood cells that make antibodies=proteins 14. What is the function of the Golgi? ● Packaging, distribution, and processing of molecules 15. What are the steps of the secretory pathway? ● Take vesicles from rough ER and diffuse through the cell into golgi, and then protein are modified and packaged into vesicles for transport, vesicle travels to plasma membrane and releases to extra cellular environment 16. What
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