New User Special Price Expires in

Let's log you in.

Sign in with Facebook


Don't have a StudySoup account? Create one here!


Create a StudySoup account

Be part of our community, it's free to join!

Sign up with Facebook


Create your account
By creating an account you agree to StudySoup's terms and conditions and privacy policy

Already have a StudySoup account? Login here

Mock Exam

by: Biodoumoye Bokolo

Mock Exam BY 123

Biodoumoye Bokolo
GPA 3.41

Preview These Notes for FREE

Get a free preview of these Notes, just enter your email below.

Unlock Preview
Unlock Preview

Preview these materials now for free

Why put in your email? Get access to more of this material and other relevant free materials for your school

View Preview

About this Document

study guide
Introductory Biology 1
Dr. Raut
Study Guide
50 ?




Popular in Introductory Biology 1

Popular in Biology

This 12 page Study Guide was uploaded by Biodoumoye Bokolo on Friday July 15, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to BY 123 at University of Alabama at Birmingham taught by Dr. Raut in Summer 2016. Since its upload, it has received 23 views. For similar materials see Introductory Biology 1 in Biology at University of Alabama at Birmingham.


Reviews for Mock Exam


Report this Material


What is Karma?


Karma is the currency of StudySoup.

You can buy or earn more Karma at anytime and redeem it for class notes, study guides, flashcards, and more!

Date Created: 07/15/16
BY – 123 Mock Exam #2 – KEY 1. Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the A) free energy of the system. B) free energy of the universe. C) entropy of the system. D) entropy of the universe. E) enthalpy of the universe. 2. Which of the following are true about bioenergetics? a. Catabolic pathways degrade complex molecules into less complex parts b. Anabolic pathways build complex molecules while releasing energy c. Metabolism is an emergent property of life d. A and B e. A and C 3. Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? A) If the entropy of a system increases, there must be an equal decrease in the entropy of the universe. B) If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be an equal decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe. C) Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment. D) Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe. E) Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed. 4. Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell? A) anabolic reactions B) hydrolysis C) respiration D) digestion E) catabolic reactions 5. Which of the following is the smallest closed system? A) a cell B) an organism C) an ecosystem D) Earth E) the universe 6. Chemical equilibrium is relatively rare in living cells. Which of the following could be an example of a reaction at chemical equilibrium in a cell? A) a reaction in which the free energy at equilibrium is higher than the energy content at any point away from equilibrium B) a chemical reaction in which the entropy change in the reaction is just balanced by an opposite entropy change in the cell's surroundings C) an endergonic reaction in an active metabolic pathway where the energy for that reaction is supplied only by heat from the environment D) a chemical reaction in which both the reactants and products are not being produced or used in any active metabolic pathway E) no possibility of having chemical equilibrium in any living cell 7. A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to form a solution of simple sugars because A) the starch solution has less free energy than the sugar solution. B) the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic. C) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot be surmounted. D) starch cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water. E) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous. 8. Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following? A) denaturization of the enzyme B) allosteric inhibition C) competitive inhibition D) saturation of the enzyme activity E) insufficient cofactors 9. Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme. Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly acquires mutations with amino acid changes that make them resistant to these competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme would such amino acid changes most likely occur in drug-resistant viruses? A) in or near the active site B) at an allosteric site C) at a cofactor binding site D) in regions of the protein that determine packaging into the virus capsid E) such mutations could occur anywhere with equal probability 10. Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the enzyme-catalyzed reverse reaction, C + D → A + B? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e 11. When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom, what happens? A) The more electronegative atom is reduced, and energy is released. B) The more electronegative atom is reduced, and energy is consumed. C) The more electronegative atom is oxidized, and energy is consumed. D) The more electronegative atom is oxidized, and energy is released. E) The more electronegative atom is reduced, and entropy decreases. 12. An electron loses potential energy when it A) shifts to a less electronegative atom. B) shifts to a more electronegative atom. C) increases its kinetic energy. D) increases its activity as an oxidizing agent. E) moves further away from the nucleus of the atom. 13. Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed by the reactions of glycolysis? A) 0% B) 2% C) 10% D) 38% E) 100% 14. During glycolysis, when each molecule of glucose is catabolized to two molecules of pyruvate, most of the potential energy contained in glucose is A) transferred to ADP, forming ATP. B) transferred directly to ATP. C) retained in the two pyruvates. D) stored in the NADH produced. E) used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose 6-phosphate. 15. Starting with one molecule of glucose, the energy-containing products of glycolysis are A) 2 NAD⁺, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP. B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP. C) 2 FADH₂, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP. D) 6 CO₂, 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate. E) 6 CO₂, 30 ATP, and 2 pyruvate. 16. Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis? A) an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell B) an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized D) an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD⁺ E) an agent that blocks the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain 17. How many carbon atoms are fed into the citric acid cycle as a result of the oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate? A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six 18. A young animal has never had much energy. He is brought to a veterinarian for help and is sent to the animal hospital for some tests. There they discover his mitochondria can use only fatty acids and amino acids for respiration, and his cells produce more lactate than normal. Of the following, which is the best explanation of his condition? A) His mitochondria lack the transport protein that moves pyruvate across the outer mitochondrial membrane. B) His cells cannot move NADH from glycolysis into the mitochondria. C) His cells contain something that inhibits oxygen use in his mitochondria. D) His cells lack the enzyme in glycolysis that forms pyruvate. E) His cells have a defective electron transport chain, so glucose goes to lactate instead of to acetyl CoA. 19. What fraction of the carbon dioxide exhaled by animals is generated by the reactions of the citric acid cycle, if glucose is the sole energy source? A) 1/6 B) 1/3 C) 1/2 D) 2/3 E) 100/100 20. Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway? A) glycolysis → NADH → oxidative phosphorylation → ATP → oxygen B) citric acid cycle → FADH₂ → electron transport chain → ATP C) electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → ATP → oxygen D) pyruvate → citric acid cycle → ATP → NADH → oxygen E) citric acid cycle → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen 21. In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of A) ATP, CO₂, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol). B) ATP, and ethanol. C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate. D) ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen. E) ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA. 22. An organism is discovered that thrives both in the presence and absence of oxygen in the air. Curiously, the consumption of sugar increases as oxygen is removed from the organism's environment, even though the organism does not gain much weight. This organism A) must use a molecule other than oxygen to accept electrons from the electron transport chain. B) is a normal eukaryotic organism. C) is photosynthetic. D) is an anaerobic organism. E) is a facultative anaerobe. 23. Phosphofructokinase is an important control enzyme in the regulation of cellular respiration. Which of the following statements correctly describes phosphofructokinase activity? A) It is inhibited by AMP. B) It is activated by ATP. C) It is activated by citrate, an intermediate of the citric acid cycle. D) It catalyzes the conversion of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6- phosphate, an early step of glycolysis. E) It is an allosteric enzyme. 24. If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with CO₂ synthesized with heavy oxygen (¹⁸O), later analysis will show that all but one of the following compounds produced by the algae contain the ¹⁸O label. That one is A) 3-phosphoglycerate. B) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P). C) glucose. D) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP). E) O₂. 25. In any ecosystem, terrestrial or aquatic, what group(s) is (are) always necessary? A) autotrophs and heterotrophs B) producers and primary consumers C) photosynthesizers D) autotrophs E) green plants 26. Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be A) to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts. B) to test for liberation of O₂ in the light. C) to test for CO₂ fixation in the dark. D) to do experiments to generate an action spectrum. E) to test for production of either sucrose or starch. 27. As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by a plant cell in 1 hour. You find 50,000 molecules of ATP consumed, but only 20,000 molecules of NADPH. Where did the extra ATP molecules come from? A) photosystem II B) photosystem I C) cyclic electron flow D) linear electron flow E) chlorophyll 28. Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes? A) the splitting of water B) the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll C) the flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I D) the synthesis of ATP E) the reduction of NADP⁺ 29. P680⁺ is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Why? A) It is the receptor for the most excited electron in either photosystem. B) It is the molecule that transfers electrons to plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron transfer system. C) It transfers its electrons to reduce NADP⁺ to NADPH. D) This molecule has a stronger attraction for electrons than oxygen, to obtain electrons from water. E) It has a positive charge. 30. Some photosynthetic bacteria (e.g., purple sulfur bacteria) have only photosystem I, whereas others (e.g., cyanobacteria) have both photosystem I and photosystem II. Which of the following might this observation imply? A) Photosystem II was selected against in some species. B) Photosynthesis with only photosystem I is more ancestral. C) Photosystem II may have evolved to be more photoprotective. D) Linear electron flow is more primitive than cyclic flow of electrons. E) Cyclic flow is more necessary than linear electron flow. 31. Carotenoids are often found in foods that are considered to have antioxidant properties in human nutrition. What related function do they have in plants? A) They serve as accessory pigments to increase light absorption. B) They protect against oxidative damage from excessive light energy. C) They shield the sensitive chromosomes of the plant from harmful ultraviolet radiation. D) They reflect orange light and enhance red light absorption by chlorophyll. E) They take up and remove toxins from the groundwater. 32. A flask containing photosynthetic green algae and a control flask containing water with no algae are both placed under a bank of lights, which are set to cycle between 12 hours of light and 12 hours of dark. The dissolved oxygen concentrations in both flasks are monitored. Predict what the relative dissolved oxygen concentrations will be in the flask with algae compared to the control flask. A) The dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will always be higher. B) The dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will always be lower. C) The dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be higher in the light, but the same in the dark. D) The dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be higher in the light, but lower in the dark. E) The dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will not be different from the control flask at any time. 33. In C₃ photosynthesis, the reactions that require ATP take place in A) the light reactions alone. B) the Calvin cycle alone. C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle. E) the chloroplast, but is not part of photosynthesis. 34. In a plant leaf, the reactions that produce NADH occur in A) the light reactions alone. B) the Calvin cycle alone. C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle. E) the chloroplast, but is not part of photosynthesis. 35. Why are C₄ plants able to photosynthesize with no apparent photorespiration? A) They do not participate in the Calvin cycle. B) They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix CO₂. C) They are adapted to cold, wet climates. D) They conserve water more efficiently. E) They exclude oxygen from their tissues. 36. The alternative pathways of photosynthesis using the C₄ or CAM systems are said to be compromises. Why? A) Each one minimizes both water loss and rate of photosynthesis. B) C₄ compromises on water loss and CAM compromises on photorespiration. C) Both minimize photorespiration but expend more ATP during carbon fixation. D) CAM plants allow more water loss, while C₄ plants allow less CO₂ into the plant. E) C₄ plants allow less water loss but CAM plants allow more water loss. 37. Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that A) reduces cyclin concentrations. B) increases cyclin concentrations. C) prevents elongation of microtubules. D) prevents shortening of microtubules. E) prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore. 38. For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather than binary fission? A) Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms. B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes. C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission. D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication. E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells. 39. You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. Which would you expect to increase significantly from M to G₁? A) organelle density and enzymatic activity B) cell wall components and DNA C) chlorophyll and cell walls D) organelle density and cell walls E) chlorophyll and DNA 40. Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk 41. Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur? A) Cancer cells are no longer density dependent. B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent. C) Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints. D) Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism. E) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells. 42. A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away? A) The cells originated in the nervous system. B) The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules. C) They have altered series of cell cycle phases. D) The cells show characteristics of tumors. E) They were originally derived from an elderly organism. 43. The lettered circle in the figure shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated. Choose the correct chromosomal conditions for the following stages. What is the correct chromosomal condition at the prometaphase of mitosis? What is the correct chromosomal condition for one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis? A) A, B B) B, E C) C, D D) B, C E) A, D 44. Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times. The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results. B) their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned. C) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly. D) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly. E) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle. 45. Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell. B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell. C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs. D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes. E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes. 46. Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common? I. Alternation of generations II. Meiosis III. Fertilization IV. Gametes V. Spores A) I, IV, and V B) I, II, and IV C) II, III, and IV D) II, IV, and V E) I, II, III, IV, and V 47. The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following? A) mitosis in her ovary B) metaphase I of one meiotic event C) telophase II of one meiotic event D) telophase I of one meiotic event E) either anaphase I or II 48. For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? A) 23 B) 46 C) 460 D) 920 E) about 8 million You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in Figure 13.3. Refer to the graph to answer the following questions. 49. Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle? A) I B) II C) III D) either I or II E) either I or III A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in Figure 13.4. 50. If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes, she will produce which of the following egg types? A) only blue short gene eggs B) only orange short gene eggs C) one-half blue short and one-half orange short gene eggs D) three-fourths blue long and one-fourth orange short gene eggs E) three-fourths blue short and one-fourth orange short gene eggs


Buy Material

Are you sure you want to buy this material for

50 Karma

Buy Material

BOOM! Enjoy Your Free Notes!

We've added these Notes to your profile, click here to view them now.


You're already Subscribed!

Looks like you've already subscribed to StudySoup, you won't need to purchase another subscription to get this material. To access this material simply click 'View Full Document'

Why people love StudySoup

Bentley McCaw University of Florida

"I was shooting for a perfect 4.0 GPA this semester. Having StudySoup as a study aid was critical to helping me achieve my goal...and I nailed it!"

Amaris Trozzo George Washington University

"I made $350 in just two days after posting my first study guide."

Bentley McCaw University of Florida

"I was shooting for a perfect 4.0 GPA this semester. Having StudySoup as a study aid was critical to helping me achieve my goal...and I nailed it!"


"Their 'Elite Notetakers' are making over $1,200/month in sales by creating high quality content that helps their classmates in a time of need."

Become an Elite Notetaker and start selling your notes online!

Refund Policy


All subscriptions to StudySoup are paid in full at the time of subscribing. To change your credit card information or to cancel your subscription, go to "Edit Settings". All credit card information will be available there. If you should decide to cancel your subscription, it will continue to be valid until the next payment period, as all payments for the current period were made in advance. For special circumstances, please email


StudySoup has more than 1 million course-specific study resources to help students study smarter. If you’re having trouble finding what you’re looking for, our customer support team can help you find what you need! Feel free to contact them here:

Recurring Subscriptions: If you have canceled your recurring subscription on the day of renewal and have not downloaded any documents, you may request a refund by submitting an email to

Satisfaction Guarantee: If you’re not satisfied with your subscription, you can contact us for further help. Contact must be made within 3 business days of your subscription purchase and your refund request will be subject for review.

Please Note: Refunds can never be provided more than 30 days after the initial purchase date regardless of your activity on the site.