Popular in Histology
Popular in Biology
This 27 page Study Guide was uploaded by Grace Gerhards on Thursday July 21, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to VS 331 at Colorado State University taught by Dr. Stewart in Summer 2016. Since its upload, it has received 4 views. For similar materials see Histology in Biology at Colorado State University.
Reviews for Histology
Report this Material
What is Karma?
Karma is the currency of StudySoup.
You can buy or earn more Karma at anytime and redeem it for class notes, study guides, flashcards, and more!
Date Created: 07/21/16
Histology Exam 2 study guide Blood Cells List the functions of blood and describe its basic tissue type Transport of nutrients and CO2 Maintence of fluid volume Buffering (PH control) Heat regulation Protection Regulatory funtions (hormones) Blood is a connective tissue What are the 2 main components of blood. Describe. Plamsa- contains water, proteins, and electrolytes o Major proteins include albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen Blood cells – includes RBC’s, WBC’s and platelets o WBS’s include granulocytes and agranulocytes 6 characteristics of red blood cells 1. shaped like bionic cave disc 2. anucleated, acidophilic (due to hemoglobin) 3. growth stimulated in bone marrow via erythropoietin from the kidney 4. 120 day life span 5. broken down to bilirubin and eliminated by the liver 6. variation depends upon the age of RBC Describe anemia, list 3 causes and describe how it is detected on a blood smear anemia is a decrease in the ability of blood to deliver oxygen to the tissues. The causes are: o decreased iron o blood loss o decreased RCB production in bone marrow anemic blood smears will have an increased number of immature blood cells 1. What are 2 major components of blood? a. Fluid matrix and cells 2. Name the fluid matrix of blood a. Plasma 3. What are the components to plasma? a. Water, protein, and electrolytes 4. What are three main proteins in blood? a. Abumin, globulin, and fibrinogen 5. What are the functions of globulin? a. Immumoglobulins, antibodies, and ion transport 6. What is the function of fibrinogen? a. Forms blood clots 7. How is a plasma sample collected? a. By drawing blood into a tube that contains a chemical EDTA that prevents clotting 8. How can you sometimes determine the sex of an animal by looking at its neutrophils a. Observation of a Barr body (female) 9. Which blood cells respond in large numbers to acute inflammation/ infection? a. Neutrophils 10. What cells are present in high numbers in tissues during chronic infections? a. Macrophage 11. What is this cell called before it migrates out of the vascular system? a. Monocyte 12. When might you find an increase in eosinphils? a. During allergy reactions or parasitic infections 13. What is the rarest WBC? a. Basophil 14. Under what conditions might you find increased basophils? a. During allergic reactions 15. What is the “parent” cell for platelets? a. Megakaryocytes 16. What is the definition of anemia? a. Decrease in the ability of blood to deliver O2 to the tissues 17. What are some causes of anemia? a. Blood dysfunction, like deceased iron or sickle cell anemia b. Insufficient production of blood cells in the bone marrow (not enough RBC’s) c. Losing too much blood (not enough RBS’s) 18. What is the break down product of RBSs? a. Bilirubin 19. What attracts water into blood vessels? a. Osmotic pressure 20. Name the three types of granulocytes a. Eosinophil, neutrophil, basophil 21. How many oxygen molecules can one hemoglobin bind in a red blood cell? a. 4 22. what is a basophilic, anucleate, less mature erythrocyte called? a. Reticulocyte 23. Which granulocyte accounts for 50-70% of the total WBC count? a. Neutrophils 24. Which cells function in the humeral response? Cell mediated response? a. B cells= humeral, Tcells = cell mediated 25. In which white blood cell will you find an indented nucleus on (an indicatior for slide recognition)? a. Monocyte 26. What is the life span of a neutrophil? RBC? a. Neutophil: 10 hours b. RBC: 120 days 27. Which specific cells produces antibodies? a. B cells 28. What are the functions of blood? a. Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide b. Fluid volume maintenance c. Heat regulation d. Protection and immunity e. Buffering and maintaining PH f. Regulatory functions such as hormone transport 29. Which blood cells account for 20-40% of the total WBC count in the body? a. Lymphocytes Bone Marrow 1. Define hemopoiesis/ hematopoiesis and identify which organs act as primary or secondary sites of development a. Formation of blood cells b. Thymus and bone marryow act as primary sites of blood development c. Spleen and lymph nodes act as secondary sites of blood development 2. List common cell types found in bone marrow a. Endothelial cells- form sinusoids b. Reticular cells- form mesh work support system for blood cells c. Macrophages- removing misformed cells and invading agents d. Maturing blood cells 3. List the 4 basic stages in blood cell differentiation a. Totipotent cell b. Pleuripotent cell c. Multipotent/ progenitor cell d. Mature RBC, WBC and platelets 4. Define erythropoiesis and list hematopoietic growth factors a. Erythropoiesis- the development of Erythrocyts (RBS) b. Growth factors- erythropoietin, colony stimulating factors and interleukins 5. List common features of developing erythocytic cell line a. Color of cytoplasm changes ffrom basophilic to acidophilic b. Nuclei and cells become smaller c. Nuclei condenses as it matures d. Cells can only divide 2 or 3 times 6. List the 4 basic stages of the erythrocytic series a. Proerythroblast- youngest b. Normoblast – nucleated RBS c. Polychromatophilic erythrocyte-reticulocyte d. Erythrocyte- mature RBC 7. Define granulopoiesis and list the 5 stages of development a. Granulopoiesis – the development of granulocytes (WBC) b. Promyelocyte c. 2 and 3 are maturing stages d. band cell e. mature neutrophil, eosinophil, or basophil 8. where are red blood cells made a. in the bone marrow 9. how can you identify a very immature RBC in a bone marrow smear a. a large, very round cells with a very round nucleus, very dark blue cytoplasm and a nucleolus or two 10. how is this different form an immature WBC? a. An immature WBC has a large, less round cell and a less round nucleus, much paler nucleus and cytoplasm, the nucleolus is still present 11. Whats another name for nucleated RBC? a. Normoblast 12. What is a reticulocyte a. A basophilic RBC that lacks a nucleus, it is slightly blue, and is the stage right before maturity 13. What is a band cell? a. A young neutrophil/ PMN b. PolyMorphoNuclear- means that the nucleus is segmented with 2-5 lobes 14. What might it mean if you have a neutrophilia with increased band cells? a. An acute infction with a large demand for neutrophils where the bone marrow is appropriately responding to the demand 15. What does increased nucleated RBC in a peripheral smear mean? a. It indicated an appropriate response to anemia or large demand for RBC (regenerative anemia) 16. What is the name of a very large cell in the bone marry that looks like it has multiple nuclei a. Megakaryocyte 17. What is it that attracts oxygen away from hemoglobin and into tissues a. Simple diffusion, where the lower O2, concentration in tissues attracts the O2 away form the hemoglobin 18. What is produced by the breakdown of red blood cells? a. Bilirubin 19. What happens when bilirubin is not excreted? a. It builds up in tissues and causes jaundice/icterus 20. Which cells form the extravascular matrix/barrier around sinusoids where blood cells exit the bone marrow? a. Reticular cells 21. What is the difference between reticular cells and reticulocytes a. Reticular cells are CT cells that produce reticular fibers; reticulocytes are an almost- mature stage of RBC 22. What is the histological difference between red and yellow bone marrow under higher power? a. Red – spicules, RBC, megakaryocytes b. Yellow- spicule, adipocytes 23. What is another name for a platelet a. Thrombocyte 24. What is the RBC’s affinity for CO, CO2, O2? a. Very high, low, and low—what makes carbon monoxide poisoning so dangerous 25. Name the two organs where lymphocytes divide and clone a. Spleen and thymus (tonsils) CALT (intestines_- any organ that has lymphatic follicles 26. Name the 6 locations that always contain red bone marrow a. Sternum, vertebrae, ribes, skull, pelvis, femur 27. What structural anatomy of the sinusoids allows maturing RBC to enter the sinusoids? a. Migration pores 28. What is the membrane bound cytoplasmic fragment from a megakaryocyte called? a. Platelet or thrombocyte 29. What re tow ways to obtain a bone marrow sample? a. Aspirate or biopsy 30. What does it mean to be immunocompetent? a. Know self from non self 31. Name the full erythroctic cell line. (being able to name them in order will really help you through blood cells systematically) a. Proerythroblast b. Basophilic erythroblast c. Polychromatic erythroblast d. Normoblast e. Polychromatophilic erythrocyte f. Erythrocyte g. Immature= 1-3 mature= 4-6 32. Name the full granulocytic line a. Promyelocyte b. Myelocyte c. Metamyelocyte (first three as young myeloblasts) d. Band cell e. Mature neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil f. Immature= 1-3 mature= 4-5 Muscle 1. Name the three different types of muscle and list their common characteristics a. Smooth, cardiac, skeletal b. Contractile- respond to nervous impulse c. Contractile- contract/ shorten d. Change chemical energy into mechanical energy- converts neurotransmitter to contraction 2. Describe the characteristic of the myosin and actin filiments a. Myosin: is divided into 2 subunits- the light chain tail and heavy chain head. b. Actin: two strands of globular actin protein and 2 linear strands of troppmyosin protein. Globular troponin proteins are attached intermittently 3. Which muscle types are striated? a. Cardiac and skeletal muscle 4. Which type is both striated and involuntary a. Cardiac muscle 5. Which types of muscle cannot significantly heal? a. Both cardiac and skeletal muscles—only smooth muscle can divide and repair 6. Which muscle type has multiple nuclei? a. Skeletal muscle 7. Where is smooth muscle located? a. In tubular organs, scrotum, capsules of some organs (spleen), pupils, erector muscles of hairs, uterus and more 8. What are two major contractile proteins? a. Actin and myosin 9. Describe myosin morphology a. Myosin is made up of heavy chain (the head) and and a light chain (the tail). Collectibely , the protein looks like a golf club 10. What is the “contractile unit” of skeletal muscle? a. The sarcomere 11. What lines defines the limits of the sarcomere? a. Z lines 12. Which protein attaches to the X lines? a. Actin 13. Which one, actin or myosin, shortens during contraction a. NONE of these proteins really “contract” because they slide over each other while the whole sarcomere shortens (Z lines come closer together) 14. Which protein is presen In the A band? a. Myosin and it overlaps with actin 15. What makes up the I band? a. Actin only plus Z lines 16. Which bands/ lines does/ do not become narrow during contraction? a. A band 17. What is the important ultrastuctural component of intercalated discs in cardiac muscle? a. Gap junction 18. Why are gap junctions important in cardiac muscle? a. They allow the contraction signal to spread quickly from cell to cell 19. Where are purkinje fibers located? a. In the endocardium 20. What are they? a. Modified cardiac muscle cells that increase conduction of the signal contraction 21. What do the “wavy nuclei” of smooth muscle represent? a. Contracted state of the muscle cells 22. Name the 3 characteristics that all muscle tissues share a. Electrically excitable, contractile, change chemical energy into mechanical energy 23. What is the primary protein component of the muscle fiber? a. Myofibrilis 24. What do microfibrils contain? a. Myofilaments 25. What specific proteins make up myofilaments? a. Actin and myosin 26. Name the three components of actin? a. 2 strands of globular actun protein b. 2 strands of linear tropomyosin protein c. globular troponin protein complex 27. what role does smooth muscle play in the small intestines? a. Peristalsis: to move digesta along 28. What types of muscle/tissue are voluntary? Involuntary? a. Voluntary: skeletal b. Involuntary: smooth and cardiac Nervous system 1. Name three different types of neurons and describe the two nervous systems a. Neuron types: sensory, motor, interneurons b. Nervous systems- somatic & autonomic (has parasympathetic & sympathetic divisions) 2. List general structures of a neuron and describe their function a. Dendrites – receive info b. Cell body- contains nucleus c. Axon hillock- where axons attach to the cell body d. Axon – conducts action potential e. Myelin sheath- increases the speed of conduction of action potentials f. Nodes of ranvier- area lacking a myelin sheath g. Telodendria- end par of axon that form a synapse 3. List two of the most common types of neurons and describe general characteristics for each a. Multipolar neurons- axons project in one directin, away from the cell body. Cell body has multiple dendrites b. Psudounipolar neurons- cell body is situated between 2 long arms of axon. 4. Define neuroglia (list 4 types in the CNS & 2 types in the PNS) a. Neuroglia- nonconducting cells that support the function of neurons b. CNS: oligodendrocytes, astrocyte, microglia, & ependymal cells c. PNS: schwann cells and satellite cells 5. Describe the function of oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia a. Oligodendrocytes- wrap multiple axons in myelin sheaths and increase conduction. b. Astrocytes- help remove excess ions, neurotransmitters and help form blood brain barrier c. Microglia- functions in phagocytosis 6. What are three types of neurons (there are actually many ways this question could be answered) a. Sensory, motor, and interneurons (multipolar, unipolar, psuedounipolar) 7. What are their functions? a. Sensory- receive information from the internal or external environments b. Motor- convey information from the CNS to muscles c. Interneurons- form conections between neurons 8. What do dendrites of neurons do? a. Receive information 9. What are the nodes of ranvier? a. The space between schwann cells or oligodendocytes (myelin sheath), where an action potential “jumps” rapidy from one node of Ranvier to the next 10. What are telodendria? a. The end parts of the axon that form a synapse with the next neuron or muscle 11. What cell is the support cell/ glial cell within ganglia? a. Satellite cell 12. Is the CNS vascular? a. YES VERY 13. Is the PNS vascular? a. YES VERY 14. What is the function of they myelin sheath? a. Allows more rapid conductin of the action potential down the length of the axon 15. Aside form the oligodendrocytes, name the 3 other glial cells of the CNS a. Astrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells (KNOW WHAT EACH DOES FOR THE EXAM) 16. Which type of glial cell produces cerebral spinal fluid (CSG)? a. Ependymal cells 17. What is a difference between multipolar and pseudounipolar neurons? a. Multipolar neurons have dendrites on their cell bodies, pseudounipolar have them at one end of the axon split 18. How can you tell the difference between a ganglion and a nereve in cross section? a. A nerve bundle will not have satellite cells surrounding it. This will be the bigges clue when looking at a picture of both 19. What is the most obvious histological difference between motor and sensory ganglia? a. Motor: displaced nucleus b. Sensory: centrally placed nucleus 20. Sensory ganglia have what type of neuron? a. Pseudounipolar 21. What makes up the chorid plexus? a. Ependymal cells, loose connective tissure, and blood vessels 22. If you see nuclei in a histological side of ther peripheral nercvus system, lets say a cross section of a nerve, what 3 cells could the nucleus belong to? a. Fibroblast, schwann cell, endothelial cell 23. All the pink background in the central nervous system durrounding neurons looks like extracellular matrix to me, but what is it? Whats it made of? a. Nerutrophil; mad of cross sections of other neuronal cell odies and their processes 24. What are the physiological characteristics of nervous tissure? a. Irratible and conductive 25. What are the functional cells of nervous tissue? a. Nurons+ glial cells 26. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsibleof driving eating and defecating? a. Parasympathetic 27. What is the name given to the very basophilic cytoplasm of a neuron? a. Nissl substance 28. What is the general name given to any cell with a very basophilic cytoplasm? a. Ergastoplam 29. True r false: neuroglia are conducting cells that generally support the function of neurons a. False, neurogalia are non conducting 30. Which neuroglial cells adhere to neurons and capillaries and assist in removing excess ions and neurotransmitters? a. astrocytes CNS & PNS 1. List the 2 divisions of the CNS and 3 main catefories of the brain a. CNS is made of Brain and Spinal Cord b. The brain is divided into cerebrum, cerebrellum, and brainstem 2. What does white matter consist of in the CNS? a. Axons and their myelin sheaths, oligodendrocytes, plus capillaries 3. What cell myelinates axons in the CNS a. Oligodendrocyte 4. Where are the neuronal cell bodies located in the CNS? a. Primarily within the grey matter 5. Where are the neuronal cell bodies located in the PNS? a. Within ganglia 6. How can you identify a ganglion? a. Large neuronal cell bodies with an obvious nucleus and nucleoulus, surrounded by satellite cells; also CT present; vascular 7. How can you tell a sensory from a motor ganglion? a. Sensory ganglion: nucleus is centrally placed b. Motor ganglion: polarized nucei 8. Are there any synapses in the spinal (dorsal root, sensory ganglia?) a. No, ganglia contain cell bodies of pseudounipolar/ sensory neurons 9. Do synapses occur in the motor ganglion? a. Yes, motor ganglia are on eof the sites where synapses occur 10. Where can you find these motor ganglia? a. In large blood vessels or within the walls of organs (heart or intestines) 11. What are three layes of connective tissue that surround the structures of nerve? a. Endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurim 12. To which cells could the nuclei form the white matter of spinal cord cross sectioning belong to ? a. Oligodendrocytes or endothelial cells 13. What is the name given to the very bsasophilic cytoplasm of a neuronal cell body? a. Nissl body or nissl substance 14. What is the general term given to any cell body that has a very basophilic cytoplasm? a. Ergastoplasm 15. What pert of the brain is responsible for concios thought? Coordinates movement? a. Cerebrm= conscious thought b. Cerebellum = corrdinates movement 16. What is the difference between the endoneurium and the epineurium? a. Endoneurium: loose connective tissue tha binds individual axons together within a nerve bundle b. Epineurium: any dense irregular connective tissue outside of the perineurium 17. What is the gap or junction between two adjacent Schwann cells called? a. Node of ranvier 18. Is the node of Ranvier present in peripheral or central nervous system? a. Both present on any axon that is myelinated 19. Are ganglia part of the central nervous system or peripheral nervous system a. PNS 20. What are the clusters of basophilic nervous tissues located peripheral to large blood vessel? a. Motor ganglia 21. Where is the primary location of sensory ganglia? a. Just outside the ertebral column 22. What are the components of a nerve? a. Axons, Schwann cells, blood vessels, and the connective tissues that bind them together 23. Is the space between the epineurium and the perineurim of a nerve bundle normal? a. Yes – artifact separation 24. Does the wavy appearance of a peripheral nerve show a longitudinal or cross sectional view a. Longitudinal 25. Which type of ganglia are associated with the autonomic nervous system a. Motor ganglia 26. What is another name for a satellite cell a. amphicyte 1. 2. 3. Cardio vascular system 4. Name the separate nerve and blood supplies in very large arteries and veins. Identify the purpose of the separate nerve supply a. Vessels= vasa vasorum b. Nerves= nervi vascularis i. Nervi vasularis functions to control vasoconstriction and dilation, controlling the blood flow through the vessel 5. What are the primary components of a valve? a. A connective tissue core surrounded by endothelium 6. What is the name of separate nerve system present in the walls of large arteries and Veins? a. Nervi Vascularis 7. Which blood vessel contains only endothelial cells and their basal laminae a. Capillaries 8. What is the function of capillaries a. To permit exchanges with in the tissue (for instance oxygen and carbon dioxide, water, some proteins) 9. Name the layers and tissue types found within the wallf of a muscular artery a. Tunica intima includes the endothelium and underlying losse connective tissue (includes elastic membrane when present) b. Tenica media is the muscular middle layer which consists mainly of smooth muscle c. Tunica adventitia is the outermost layer composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue 10. What are the arteriovenous shunts? a. They allow blood to bypasscapillary beds and connect arterioles directly with venules 11. What is the purpose of a nerve supply to a vessel? a. Controls vasoconstriction and vasodilation to unltimately control the amount of blood flowing though the vessels 12. Which type of arteries are the largest in the body? a. Elastic arteries 13. Name two that were given in the lecture a. Aorta and pulmonary artery 14. What is the internal elastic membrane. a. A fenestrated layer of elastic tissue found in arteries which usually looks wavy and stains more intensively pink 15. Is the lymph system part of the cardiovascular system? a. Yes 16. What is the vasa vasorum? a. The vessel of the vessel, a separate blood suppy to the wall of large arteries and veins 17. Is the blood in the pulmonary vein carrying oxygenated or deoxygenated blood? a. Oxygenated 18. Is this blood heading toward that lungs or away from them? a. Away- carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the heart 19. What cell is responsible for the growth of new smooth muscle cells durng growth and healing of a capillary a. Pericyte 20. What creates the first measurement when taking a blood pressure a. The flow of blood created by a heartbeat 21. Second measurement? a. The recoil of the elastic sheets present in elastic arteries 22. Is the tunica adventitia thinner in arteries or veins? a. Arteries 23. What are the three types of capillaries? a. Continuous capillaries, fenestrated capillaries, and discontinuos capillaries (sinusoids) 24. What are pre- capillary sphincters? a. The arterioles locate at the entrance of capillary beds that control the flow of blood into the capillary bed 25. Which layer of the muscular artery contains the external elastic membrane (hard to see) a. Tunica media 26. What is responsible for picking up excess fluid and protein in the capillary beds and surrounding tissue? a. Lymphatic vessels (filtered through lymph nodes and returned to the large veins) 27. Which capillary type contains tight junctions? a. Continuous 28. What are the 3 histological characteristics of arterioles? a. 3 or fewer layers of smooth muscle in the tunica media b. arterioles usually lack a distinct internal elastic membrane c. the tunica adventitia is thin 29. what is a portal system? a. When two capillary beds are connected by an arteriole or venule the blood passes through two capillary beds before returing to the heart 30. Which venule is comprised of the endothelium and accompanying pericyte? a. Post- capillary venule 31. For the three types of capillaries, name two locations where they are found a. Continuous capillary- lung, heart, CNS b. Fenestrated capillary: liver, kidney, endocrine glands, and intestines c. Discontinuous capillary(sinusoid): spleed, lymph nodes, bone marrow, and liver 32. How are veins histologically different from arteries? a. Veins have relatively thinner walls where the tunica media is much thinner than the accompanying artery and the tunica adventitia is thicher than that of the accompanying artery. The lumen in veins is usually larger and may contain valves 33. Why to the veins contain valves? a. In order to make the flow of blood go one-way 34. What other vessel contains a one-way valve? a. Lymphatic vessels 35. At rest, what precent of the capillary beds are open? a. 20% 36. which venule is similar to an arteriole in that it has 3 layers or less of smooth muscle in its walls? a. Muscular venule Carido Heart and Lymphatic 1. Indentify the lfow of action potentials though the conduction system of the heart starting whith the sinoatrial node (SA node) a. SA node: initiates the refular heartbeat= pacemaker b. AV node: delays impulse from SA node allowing the emptying of the atria c. Purkinje fibers: form “tracts” to assist in the conduction of action potentials and leads to contraction of ventricles 2. Modified cardiac muscle cells called? Form the impulse conducting system of the heart a. Purkinje cells/ fibers 3. These cells also conduct impulse how many times faster than that of a redular cardiac muscle cell a. 4 4. what is one significant fact about the AV node that is so vital? a. The AV node impulse is slightly delayed, giving the ventricles a chance to fill with blood 5. What is the main function of lymphatic vessels? a. To retun excess tissue fluids to the venous system for recirculation 6. Name 3 layers of the heart a. Endocardium b. Myocardium c. Epicardium 7. Where is the most of the water in your body located? a. Intracellular 8. What is hypoproteinemia? a. Low blood protein 9. What tissues are in the epicardium comprised of? a. Mesothelium and underlying CT 10. Which layer of the heart contains purkinje cells a. Endocardium 11. Where do the lymphatic vessels take all the excess fluid next and why is it so vital? a. Lymphatic vessels filter the fluid through the lymph nodes before taking it to the benous system for recirculation. This is a vital role because the lymph nodes will recognize and remove foreign particles before the fluid is taken back to the heart for recirculation 12. Where is the SA node located a. Right atrium 13. What tissues comprise the endocardium? a. Endothelium and underying CT 14. Wht is the bundle of His? a. A group of purkinje fiers that distribute the AV node impuse evenly across the rest of the ventricular caridiac muscle 15. Large lymphatic cessels may contain a. One way valves 16. What tissue lines the lumen of lymphatic vessels? a. Endothelium 17. What do larger lyphatic vessels posses in their walls that the smaller bssels do not? a. A small amount of smooth muscle 18. True or fals: purkinje cells are neurons that conduct impulse 4 times faster than cardiac muscle a. False, be aware of the neurons. These cells are modified cariac cells NOT modified neurons 19. What are the 3 areas that the exreacellular fluid includes and what percent defines each? a. Interstitial = 19% b. Plasma =4% c. Transcellular fluid = 1% 20. What is the muscular layer of the heart called? a. Myocardium 21. What pressue accoudnt for the pusher that is generated by the heart beat? a. Hydostatic pressure 22. How is the pressure maintained? a. By elastically and contraction of smooth muscle in the vessels 23. From what bessels does the majority of the cardiac muscle receive its blood supply a. Coronary arteries Immune System 1. List 5 common functions of the lymphatic system a. Returns interstitial fluid and protein to circulation b. Produces lymphocytes c. Filters lymph and blood d. Responsible for humoral and cell mediated immunity e. Transports fats and lipids from intestine to circulation 2. List the 2 types of lymphocytes and their general path of development a. B&T lymphocytes b. B &T cells become immunocompetent in bone marrow and thymus respectively c. once immunocompetent, cells move secondary lymphatic organs (lymph nodes, spleen) 3. Describe the 2 types of responses to foreign antigen a. Primary response- first time new antigen is encountered. Lymphocytes relicate b. Secondary response- secondary exposure. Memory cells respond immediately 4. What are the 2 basic ways the imue system responds to foreign antigen a. Humoral response- b cells producing antibodies b. Cell mediated response- t cells assist other cells to eliminate antigen 5. Describe 3 T cell types and list their function a. Cyotoxic/ killer t cells- cause cell lysis of infected cells b. Helper T cells- produce interleukins that stimulate division of B cells and assist other T cells c. Suppressor T cells- subdue the immune response 6. Name the two types of lymphocytes a. B lymphocytes (B cells) ad T lymphocytes (T cells) 7. Name two functions of the lyphatic system a. Retuns interstitial fluid and proteins to circulation b. Produces lymphocytes c. Filters lymph and blood and spleen d. Responsible for humoral and cell mediated immunity e. Transports fats and lipids from the intestins to circulation 8. Name two types of B cells a. Plasma cells and memory cells 9. What are secondary lymphatic organs/ tissues? a. Diffuse tissues, lymphatic nodules, lymph nodes, tonsils, and spleen 10. What occurs when lymphocytes recognize self as foreign a. Autoimmune disease 11. What response in when B cells produce antibodies to eliminate a foreign substance a. Humoral response 12. What is the second line of defense in our bodies? Name two sites a. Lymphatic system, lymph nodes, tonsis, spleen, throughout body in loose CT 13. Explain cell mediated response a. The T cells assist other cells in eliminating the antigen 14. True or flase: only during pathological conditions will a person expect to find a plasma cell in a peripheral blood smear a. True 15. True of false the thymus is located next to the heart and supplies immunity throughout a persons life a. False 16. Where do t cells become immunocompetent? B cells? a. Thymus (t cells) b. Bone marrow (b cells) 17. True or false: most of the lymphocytes circulating the peripheral blood stream are cloed lymphocyted a. True 18. What do plasma cells do? a. Synthesize and cecrete antibodies 19. What is the first line of defense of our body? Name two locations a. Epithelium, skin, respiratory lining, gastrointestinal lining, urinary tract 20. Name three types of T lymphocytes a. Cytotoxic or killer T cells, helper T cells and suppressor T cells 21. What does immunocompetent mean? a. The cell can differentiate self from non slef and obtain the ability to inactivate or destroy forein substances 22. What do interleukinds do? a. Stimulate the immune response of B cells and other T vells 23. Which type of T cell scans cells for abnormal antigens on their cell surgace? a. Cytotoxic or killer T cells Lymph and Thalamus 1. Describe the development of T cells in the thymus and blood thymic barrier a. T cells develop in the cortex where capillaries are impermeable to marcromolecules and form the blood thymic barrier, as T cells mature they move to the corticomedullary junction where venules become permeable to cells 2. What are some of the functions of lymphatic system? a. Produces lymphocytes for immunity b. Filters lymph and in some cases blood c. Transport of fats d. Re circulates proteins and interstitial fluid 3. Where do you find diffuse, in encapsulated lymphatic tissue? a. Body orifices and tubular organs that come into contact with things from outsie the body i. Tonsils ii. Peyers patches 4. What do all these location have in common> a. There is ongoing interaction with forein antigens in these areas 5. What cell divides within lymphatic nodules? a. B cells 6. How are lyphatic nodules identified histologically? a. A lighter germinal center is in the middle, surrpnded by a more basophilic corona 7. Which specific organ has peyers patches? a. The ileum 8. In the thymus, what tissue forms the stroma a. Epithelioreticular cells 9. What re the organ subdivisions of the thymus called a. Lobules 10. What are the main histological characteristics of the thymus uner LOW power a. Multiple lobules with a distinct cortex and medulla, where the cortex is very basophilic and the medulla stains much ligher 11. What are sme distinguishing histological characteristics of the thymus under MEDIUM to HIGH power? a. The medulla with pale eosinophilic thymic corpuscles 12. Does the thymus hae a capsule? a. Yees but it is loose CT, fairly thin 13. Which cells are found in the blood tymic barrier? a. Capillary endothelium b. Endothelia basal lamina c. Loose CT d. Basal lamina of the epithelial reticular cells e. Epithelial reticular cells 14. What is the role of the thymus? a. Produce T cells in the post natal animal 15. What happens to the thymus at puberty? a. It regresses 16. From what cell does the stroma of the thymus originate? a. Epithelial cells 17. What is the difference between diffuse lymphatic tissue and nodular lymphatic tissue? a. Nodular lymphatic tissue houses a concentration of lymphocytes within a cluster known as a nodule, whereas difuse lymhatic tissue is any loose connective tissue underlying an epithelim that is heavily infiltrated lymphocytes 18. What part of a lymphatic nodule has mature ‘B cells? Dividing B cells? a. Corona ( mature B cells) and germinal center (dividing B cells) 19. What cell is typically present/ adjacent to lyphatic nodules? a. T cells 20. What is another name of Peyers patches? a. GALT (gut associated lymphatic tissue) 21. True or falst: tonsils have a dense irrefular connective tissue capsule? a. False- tonsils do not possess a true capsule 22. In which part of the thymus are mature T cells able to leave? a. Thymic corticomedullary junction 23. Is the thymus a primary or secondary lymphatic organ? a. Primary 24. What type of connective tissue is prevalent in lymphatic tissue and bone marrow? a. Reticular CT 25. What stain is used to visualize the fibers of this connective tissue a. Heavy metal stains 26. Name two types of this stain a. Silver, osmium tetroxide, gold 27. What are permeable to macromolecules and lymphocytes and are located in the corticomedullary junction a. Postcapillary venules Lymph nodes and spleen 1. Describe the order in which lymph flows through the lymph node a. Afferent lympharic vessel b. Subscapular sinus c. Trabecular sinuses d. Medullary sinuses e. Efferent lymphatic vessel 2. List several function of the spleen a. Blood cell formation b. Hemoblobin and iron metabolism c. Red blood cell destruction and removal d. Blood filtration e. Blood storage f. Phagocytosis g. Immune response 3. Describe the flow of blood through the spleen a. Blood enters through the splenic artery b. Follows arteris in trabeculae c. Blood is carried to white pulp ia central arteries d. It is then carried to red pulp and brances into sinuses e. Exits though veins 4. Where are B and T cells located in the spleen? a. B cells are primarily located in lymphatic nodules b. T cells are located diffusely in the surrounding tissue call PALS 5. Which lymphatic issues possess only an efferent lymphatic vessel a. The tonsils and the thymus 6. Do both tonsils and thymus have a connective tissue capsue? a. No, the tonsils are unencapsulated whereas the thymus has a loose CT capsule 7. What are 2 examples of encapsulated lymphatic tissue? a. Lymph nodes and thymus 8. What does it mean if you obsereve increased number of lymphatic nodules in a tissue or organ? a. That its responding to antigentic stimulation 9. Where do the afferent ducts enter a lymph node? a. At the capsule 10. Where does the efferent duct exit? a. The hilus 11. Where do you find T cells in a lymph node? a. Corticomeduilary junction 12. Where are B cells located in a lymph node? a. Cortex 13. What types of cells are located in the medulla of a lymph node? a. Marcrophages, plasma cells, and reticular cells (stroma) 14. What fluid do lymph nodes filter? a. Lymph 15. What fluid does the spleen fileter? a. Blood 16. What tissue makes up the capsule and trabeculae of the spleen? a. Primary dense irregular CT 17. Where do you find lymphocytes in the spleen? a. White pulp 18. Which type of lymphocyte immediately surrounds the central artey? a. T lymphocyte 19. What is the name of this cluster of T cells? a. PALS; periateriolar lyphatic sheath 20. Where would you find B cells in a splenic corpuscle? a. In a lymphatic nodule 21. In the spleen the blood passes out to the red pulp and into a sheathed artery, what cell type makes up that sheath? a. Macrophages 22. What cell makes up the stoma of lymph nodes? a. Reticular cells 23. Name four functions of the spleen a. Blood cell formation b. Hemoglobin and iron metabolism c. Red blood cell destruction and removal d. Blood filtration e. Blood storage f. Phagocytosis g. Immune response 24. What is the name of the basophilic areas of the spleen that contain white blood cells (lypmphcytes) a. White pulp 25. List the blood flow into the spleen (oxygenated) a. Splenic artey b. Trabecular artery c. Central areries- branch to T lymphocytes in the white pulp and branch to red pulp d. Sheather arterioles or directly into splenic sinuses Skin 1. List the cell types found in the epidermis and their common characteristics a. Keratinocytes- most common cell in epidermis, produce tonofilaments essential for keratin production. Cells can be hard (hair) or soft (skin) b. Melanocytes (pigment/ melanin producing cells. Have tyrosinase enzyme. c. Melanophages- phagocytize melanin and deposit d. Langerhans cells- found in stratum spinosum, recognize anigen, present antige, play a role in hypersensitivity reaction e. Merkel cells- found in stratum basale, sensory cells, cannont be distinguished 2. What causes true albinos? a. Albino animals are missing the tryosinase enzyme necessary for pigment production 3. List th common structues found in the dermis and their common characteristics a. Hair follicles- hair itself is keratin, tissue surrounding the follicle is infolded epidermis, and the follicle is infolded epidermis and the follicles have arrector pili muscles b. Glands- exocrine glands are infolded epithelium 4. List the functions of the skin a. Acts as a barrier b. Immunological function c. Antimicrobial action d. Temperature regulation e. Blood pressure control f. Sensory perception g. Secretion h. Vitamin D synthesis i. Shape and storage j. Coat and skin coloration 5. Describe how skin acts as a barrier, and what can be done to increase its absorption a. Prevents te loss of water, electolytes, and macromolecules b. Stratum corneum prevents entrence of microbial, chemical and physical agents c. To increase absorbtion increase moisture, temperature, dosage, damage skin or removing sebum 6. Describe the cells involve with immunological function. Describe primary secondary and teriary sites of skin infection a. Langerhans cells and transitory cells help the skins immune system b. Primary sites: groin axilla and interdigital c. Secondary sites: pressure points- knees, elbows, and ankles d. Tertiaty sites; skin defects areound the mouth 7. Describe the antimicrobial action and temperature rregulartion of the skin a. Sebum ad bacterial flora posses antimicrobial properties b. Temperature is regulated via: i. Adipose insulation ii. Hair coat piloerection iii. Evaporative seat iv. Saliva v. Vasoconstriction and vasodiation 8. Describe how skin acts to control blood pressue and sensory perception a. Blood pressure control- skin is highly vascularized and control vasoconstriction and vasodiation. Allows control of blood flow to areas of the body b. Sensory perception- merkel cells and other sensory ending provide the body with feedback, irritation can cause pruritus (itch) c. Some animals have sinus hairs that help with special perception (whiskers) 9. List three types of glands found in skin and where they are found a. Merocrin/ eccrin glands- predominant sweat glands in humans b. Apocrine glands- predominant sweat glands in domestic animals c. Sebaceous glands- associated with hair folliceles i. Some animals have scent glands 10. How does skin function in vitamin D synthesis? a. Inactive vitamin D found in subaceous glands is converted to active vitamin D with sun exposure 1. What tissue comprises the epidermis of the skin? Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium 2. What layer of the epidermis consists of dead cells? Stratum corneum 3. Which layer of the skin lies deep to the epidermis? Dermis 4. What makes the statum spinosum “spiny?” Desmosomes 5. What is the predominant tissue of the dermis? Dense irregular CT 6. What is the predominant cell of the epidermis? Keratinocyte 7. What do Langerhans cells in the epidermis DO? Recognize and present antigens 8. What is the difference between a melanocyte and a melanophage? Melanocytes produce melanin Melanophages engulf melanin/parts of keratinocytes that contain melanin 9. What makes an albino a true albino? Lack of tyrosinase enzyme in melanocytes 10. What substance gives rise to the defining feature of the "stratum granulosum"? Keratohyaline granules 11. What do keratohyalin granules combine with to create keratin? Tonofilaments 12. What substance provides skin its waterrepellency? Glycolipids 13. From which epidermal layer & what structure are they secreted from? Glycolipids are secreted in the stratum spinosum from lamellar bodies. 14. Which layers of the skin are vascular? Dermis and hypodermis 15. What are some predominant tissues of the HYPOdermis (other than blood vessels)? Loose CT, nerves and adipose 16. Flashback: What are the 3 types of exocrine glands found in the skin? Merocrine, apocrine and sebaceous 17. What are their secretory products? Sweat (merocrine and apocrine) and sebum (sebaceous glands) 18. What is a Merkel cell and where is it found? Sensorymechanoreceptor located in the stratum basale 19. List the four layers of the epidermis. Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale 20. What cells are involved in the immunological function of the skin? Langerhans cells and transitory blood cells (lymphocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, and eosinophils) 21. True or False: The epidermis is a connective tissue layer that is avascular. False: The epidermis is an “epithelial” layer that is avascular. 22. Where is the inactive form of vitamin D found? Sebaceous glands in the dermis 23. What is the method of secretion for sebaceous glands? Holocrine 24. What are the ways to regulate skin temperature? Hair piloerection, evaporative sweat, vasoconstriction/vasodilation 25. What is the largest organ in the body? Skin 26. What is the main function of the stratum basal? Cells divide and replace the skin as it is sloughed (stem cells for skin). 27.True or False: Keratin can be soft (skin) or hard as in hair and nails. True 28. True or False: Normal skin bacterial flora do not possess antifungal and antibacterial properties. False: The normal bacterial flora of the skin has antifungal and antibacterial properties. 29. What is cathepsin? A substance released from damaged keratinocytes that causes itching 30. The _________________ has clusters of smooth muscle present in the dermis. Scrotum 31. What muscle causes the hair to stand up when a person gets “goose bumps?” Arrector pili muscle 32. Skin as a barrier prevents the loss of ____, ______, and _____? Water, electrolytes, and macromolecules 33. Which layer of the epidermis provides the primary physical barrier? Stratum corneum 34. List 3 ways to increase the absorption of skin. Increasing moisture Increasing temperature Removing sebum Increasing concentration of medication Slightly damage skin (abrasion, alcohol)
Are you sure you want to buy this material for
You're already Subscribed!
Looks like you've already subscribed to StudySoup, you won't need to purchase another subscription to get this material. To access this material simply click 'View Full Document'