General BIOLOGY II STUDY GUIDE
General BIOLOGY II STUDY GUIDE BIOL 1082
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This 17 page Study Guide was uploaded by Muna Bhandari on Sunday September 11, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to BIOL 1082 at University of Cincinnati taught by Dr. Beyette in Summer 2016. Since its upload, it has received 5 views. For similar materials see Biology II in Biology at University of Cincinnati.
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Date Created: 09/11/16
1. Which of the following agents of evolution adapts populations to their environments? A. Mutation B. Natural selection C. Nonrandom mating D. Genetic drift 2. Which of the following best describes natural selection? A. Chance variations in traits B. The differential survival and reproduction of individuals C. The processes that lead individuals to resemble their parents D. The potential for all species to increase rapidly in number E. The immutability of species 3. Features that increase the likelihood of survival and reproduction by an organism in a particular environment are called A. genes. B. fitness. C. mutations. D. adaptations. 4. Evolution is a A. Fact B. Theory C. Hypothesis D. Conjecture 5. Which of the following is not required for evolution by natural selection? A. Time B. Variation C. Genetic inheritance D. Selection E. Sexual reproduction 6. The key point in Darwin's theory is that the ___________ imposes the conditions that determine the results of selection and thus the direction of selection. A. parent B. gene C. individual D. environment 7. The genetic contribution of an individual to succeeding generations, compared with that of other individuals in the population, is known as A. variation. B. microevolution. C. macroevolution. D. fitness. 8. In comparing artificial and natural selection, which of the following statements is true? A. Artificial selection is slower than natural selection. B. Artificial selection is reversible; natural selection is not. C. Artificial selection can produce maladaptive structures, natural selection cannot. D. Artificial selection cannot produce changes as large as changes produced by natural selection. E. In artificial selection, the magnitude of the selection pressure can be varied; in natural selection, it cannot. 9. Which of the following statements is false? A. Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection was influenced by his experiences as a pigeon breeder. B. Individuals evolve according to Darwin’s theory. C. Death rates in nature are usually high. D. Offspring tend to resemble their parents. 10. Which of the following is not important to the concept of natural selection, but does factor into artificial selection? A. Most organisms are capable of producing more offspring than typically survive. B. Phenotypic variation of a species has variable appeal to humans interested in that species. C. Phenotypic variation exists within populations. D. Phenotypic variation can influence reproductive success. E. Phenotypic variation within a species is due in part to inherited characteristics. 11. In which of the following ways is natural selection different from artificial selection? A. With natural selection "picking" is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder "picks" which organisms will breed. B. Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial selection does not. C. Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not. D. There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural selection, no such limit exists for artificial selection. 12. Considerably more phenotypic variation exists in domesticated varieties of species like dogs and cabbages than exists in nondomesticated species like lions and maple trees. Which one of the following statements best explains why this is true? A. There is no selection and mating is random under domestication. B. During domestication, very high rates of mutation are induced. C. Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world. D. Domesticated species exhibit "hybrid vigor" (heterosis). 13. Natural selection is based on all of the following except A. genetic variation exists within populations. B. the bestadapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring. C. populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support. D. individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve. 14. Which of the following statements about evolution is false? A. Scientists have not been able to observe evolution in action. B. Evolutionary theory can be applied to solve practical problems. C. Biologists have accumulated a large body of evidence about the evolutionary changes that have occurred in the past. D. Biologists have accumulated a large body of evidence about how evolutionary changes occur. 15. During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception? A. Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes. B. Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. C. Only favorable adaptations have survival value. D. Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. 16. Which of these conditions are always true of populations evolving due to natural selection? Condition 1: The population must vary in traits that are heritable. Condition 2: Some heritable traits must increase reproductive success. Condition 3: Individuals pass on all traits they acquire during their lifetime. A. Condition 1 only B. Condition 2 only C. Conditions 1 and 2 D. Conditions 1, 2, and 3 17. Similar habitats often place similar selection pressures on different species. This often leads to unrelated species having features in common. What is this an example of? A. Vestigial structures B. Convergent evolution C. Homologous traits D. Artificial selection 18. The brain volume of Homo sapiens is approximately _____ times as large as the brain volume of Australopithecus afarensis. A. 0.5 B. 10 C. 5 D. 4 19. Vestigial structures are A. Structures found in different species that have similar functions B. Structure with different appearances and functions but have a common ancestor C. Examples of convergent evolution D. Nonfunctional structures left over from an organism’s evolutionary past 20. The wings of birds and butterflies are examples of structures that resemble each other and have similar function, but are the result of convergent evolution in separate lineages. These structures are called A. analogous structures. B. homologous structures. C. vestigial structures. D. embryonic structures. E. homozygous structures 21. A biologist seeing a sign describing evolution as "just a theory" would think that A. Darwin’s theory is supported with a tremendous amount of evidence. B. evolution is just a collection of facts without a central theme and this is not a theory. C. evolution is what Darwin proposed to account for all the changes he observed in the finches so it is a hypothesis, not a theory. D. evolution occurred in the past, but it is not occurring in the present, so it cannot be a theory. 22. Evolution is sometimes said to violate the second law of thermodynamics. Which of the following statements best describes why evolution does NOT violate the second law? A. Evolution produces as many complex forms as it does less complex forms, balancing things out. B. Because evolution is a random process, it does not require an input of energy. C. Earth is not a closed system; it constantly receives an input of energy from the sun. D. The disorder generated by extinction balances the order created by evolution. 23. Which of the following statements about hominin evolution is correct? As hominins have evolved.. A. canine teeth have increased in size B. sexual dimorphism was significantly reduced C. they have developed proportionally longer fingers D. jaw size has increased 24. Darwin argued that: A. all organisms are descended from a common ancestor. B. supernatural forces have shaped differences between species. C. humans are the direct descendants of monkeys D. artificial selection lead to different species in nature 25. The genetic contribution of an individual to succeeding generations, compared with that of other individuals in the population, is known as A. variation. B. microevolution. C. macroevolution. D. fitness. E. adaptive makeup. 26. Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was terrestrial. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of penguins and seals, and what term best describes the flippers of penguins and seals? A. homologous; homologous B. analogous; homologous C. homologous; analogous D. analogous; analogous 27. Natural selection varies the shape of the beaks among Darwin's finches in response A. to the available food supply B. to the available nest building material supplies C. to presence of ectoparasites on their feathers D. to the need to improve their feather preening abilities 28. Evolution is sometimes said to violate the second law of thermodynamics. Which of the following statements best describes why evolution does NOT violate the second law? A. Evolution produces as many complex forms as it does less complex forms, balancing things out. B. Because evolution is a random process, it does not require an input of energy. C. Earth is not a closed system; it constantly receives an input of energy from the sun. D. The disorder generated by extinction balances the order created by evolution. 29. Imperfection in biological form and function is predicted by: A. Evolutionary theory B. Intelligent Design C. Both Intelligent Design and Evolutionary Theory D. Neither Intelligent Design nor Evolutionary Theory 30. The fact that modern birds lack teeth, yet have genes which code for teeth is ____. A. consistent with intelligent design—evidence of a purposeful plan. B. consistent with both theories. C. consistent with intelligent design, but not with evolutionary theory. D. consistent with evolutionary theory, but not with intelligent design. 31. Over the long run, mutations are important to evolution because A. they are the original source of genetic variation B. once an allele is lost through mutation, another mutation to that same allele cannot occur C. most mutation rates are one in a thousand D. whether good or bad, mutations increase the fitness of an individual E. mutations are usually beneficial to the progeny 32. The gene pool includes all of the A. fitness within a population. B. individuals within a population. C. mutations within a population. D. adaptations within a population. E. alleles of genes within a population. 33. The frequency of a particular allele within a population can be changed, over time, by A. genetic outflow. B. large population size. C. selection. D. inheritance of acquired characteristics. E. random mating. 34. In a population at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the a allele is 0.60. What is the frequency of individuals heterozygous for the A gene? A. 0.16 B. 0.24 C. 0.36 D. 0.40 E. 0.48 35. Suppose you have a population of flour beetles with 1,000 individuals. Normally the beetles are red; however, this population is polymorphic for a mutant autosomal body color, black, designated by b/b. Red is dominant to black, so B/B and B/b genotypes are red. Assume the population is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, with equal frequencies of the two alleles. What is the phenotypic ratio? A. 0.5 red; 0.5 black B. 0.75 red; 0.25 black C. 0.25 red; 0.75 black D. 0 E. Insufficient information is given to answer the question 36. Coloration in the peppered moth (Biston betularia) is determined by a single gene with two alleles showing complete dominance. Dark moths are homozygous dominant or heterozygous for the gene, light moths are homozygous recessive. In a sample of 100 moths, you determine that 64 of the moths are dark. According to the HardyWeinberg rule, the expected frequency of the dominant allele is ____ A. 0.4 B. 0.36 C. 0.6 D. 0.64 37. Suppose 51% of a remote mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) and must therefore have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele. If this population conforms to HardyWeinberg expectations for this gene, what percentage of the population must be heterozygous for this trait? A. 16% B. 32% C. 40% D. 42% E. 60% 38. Which of the following is a true statement concerning genetic variation? A. It is created by the direct action of natural selection. B. It arises in response to changes in the environment. C. It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population. D. It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes. 39. Which of the following is a true statement concerning genetic variation? A. It is created by the direct action of natural selection. B. It arises in response to changes in the environment. C. It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population. D. It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes. 40. If all of the assumptions of the HardyWeinberg equilibrium were met, what would happen to the frequency of the recessive allele after many generations of mating? A. Increase B. Decrease C. Remain the same D. It depends on the starting frequencies 41. Migration and hybridization between individuals of adjacent populations causes gene ______. A. blending B. flow C. mutation D. dominance 42. If 81% of a population is homozygous recessive for a given trait, what is the predicted frequency of homozygous dominant? A. 0.9 B. 0.36 C. 0.18 D. 0.1 E. 0.01 43. Which of the following sets of allele frequencies would produce the greatest proportion of heterozygotes? A. p = 0.9 q = 0.1 B. p = 0.7 q = 0.3 C. p = 0.5 q = 0.5 D. p = 0.2 q = 0.8 E. p = 0.05 q = 0.95 44. About 80% of the alleles present in thoroughbred horses can be dated back to 31 known ancestors from the late eighteenth century. As a result, one would expect A. low rates of mutation B. many polymorphic alleles C. little variation in physiology and behavior D. HardyWeinberg equilibrium 45. What is fitness? A. A measure of reproductive success B. The rate of survival of a species C. A measure of an animal’s top speed D. A measure of the overall size of an individual 46. Below are descriptions of four male cats Name Tabby Chessy Tony Tiger Size 12 lbs 10 lbs 6 lbs 8 lbs Number of kittens fathered 19 25 20 20 Kittens surviving to adulthood 15 14 14 19 Age at death 13 yrs 16 yrs 12 yrs 9 yrs Tabby is the largest and strongest cat. Chessy has mated with the most females. Which cat is the fittest? A. Tabby B. Chessy C. Tony D. Tiger 47. This is best described as an example of A. Drift B. a bottleneck effect C. selection D. sexual selection 48. What kind of selection? A. Disruptive B. Frequency dependent C. Oscillating D. Stabilizing E. Directional 49. In directional selection, over time A. the population that is strongly selected for is the midrange. B. the most extreme outliers of a population are eliminated. C. the population is strongly selected for in one direction. D. the population is strongly selected for in two directions. E. a population increases its variation. 50. _______ selection occurs when the extremes of a population contribute relatively few offspring to the next generation as compared to average members of the original population A. Corrective B. Directional C. Stabilizing D. Disruptive E. Natural 51. Which of the following would be most useful in predicting the outcome of evolution in Mytai lisgorgeous? A. the strength of female preference for bright males B. the relative fitness of the genes which encode the bright and dull coloration C. the frequency of the two genes in the population D. the intensity of hawk predation 52. Which of the following statements is not correct? A. Natural selection results in perfect adaptation. B. Fitness is determined by the relationship between the phenotype and the environment. C. Both natural and sexual selection are nonrandom processes. D. An increase in the number of hawks in the area would result in a decrease in the number of brightly colored male birds in the population over time. 53. Sometimes a restriction in genetic variability is imposed on populations by natural catastrophes such as flooding, earthquake, etc. The surviving individuals reflect only a small, random genetic sample of the population affected. This process is termed A. mutation. B. migration. C. gene flow D. assortative mating. E. bottleneck effect. 54. Suppose that females of a species of beetles prefer to mate with males that have relatively rare color patterns. This observation would be an illustration of A. genetic drift B. the founder effect C. frequencydependent selection D. disruptive selection 55. In a West African finch species, birds with large or small bills survive better than birds with intermediatesized bills. The type of natural selection operating on these bird populations is _______ selection A. directional B. disruptive C. stabilizing D. nonrandom E. sexual 56. When selection acts to eliminate one extreme from an array of phenotypes it is called A. stabilizing selection B. disruptive selection C. directional selection D. artificial selection 57. The California populations of the Northern elephant seal are descendants from a very small population of seals that was overhunted in the 1890s. Heterozygosity in this population would be expected to be ________ due to _______________. A. slight; a bottleneck effect B. slight; the founder effect C. great; disruptive selection D. great; a bottleneck effect E. great; assortive mating 58. The biological species concept proposed by Ernst Mayr emphasizes all of the following except A. significant hybridization between different species. B. production of fertile offspring within the species. C. natural populations. D. reproductive isolation from other species. E. interbreeding within the species. 59. Ginkgo trees occur in Asia and North America. Despite their geographic separation by the Pacific Ocean, biologists consider them the same species. What aspect of the biological species concept accounts for this? A. They are reproductively isolated B. They are potentially capable of exchanging genes C. They are exchanging genes across the ocean D. They have different evolutionary ancestries E. They have formed a large hybrid zone 60. When species are kept separate by preventing the formation of hybrid zygotes, the mechanism that keeps the species separate is known as a(n) _____________ barrier. A. hybridization B. postzygotic C. prezygotic D. adaptive E. differential 61. Which one of the following could not apply to a postzygotic isolating mechanism? A. Hybrids are sterile. B. Hybrids develop abnormally. C. Hybrids fail to become established in nature. D. Hybrids are selected against. E. Hybrids cannot be formed. 62. Which of the following statements is most likely true about human evolution? A. Diet has been a strong selective force B. They have stopped evolving since the advent of computers. C. Obesity is causing in increase in amylase gene copy D. An increase in gene copy number results in a decrease in transcription 63. A gene pool consists of all the alleles A. of an individual’s genotype B. present in a specific population C. that occur in a species throughout its evolutionary existence D. that contribute to the next generation of a population 64. Which of the following phrases is not an essential part of the biological species concept? A. morphologically distinct B. reproductive isolation C. independent evolutionary unit D. actually or potentially interbreeding within species E. no gene flow with other species 65. Sympatric refers to species which are A. hybridizing B. separating C. present in the same environment D. present in different environments 66. Different courtship rituals in different animal species is an example of A. mechanical isolation B. hybrid zones C. hybrid vigor D. behavioral isolation 67. Natural hybrids between distantly related animal species are typically A. more fit than their parents B. sterile C. creating lots of new species D. reducing the number of species 68. The production of new species through hybridization is especially important in A. finches. B. fruit flies. C. humans. D. plants. 69. A large volcanic eruption occurs and separates a valley with a species of red squirrels with a huge lava flow that the squirrels cannot cross, thus producing two isolated populations of squirrels. What change needs to occur for the two populations of squirrels to become separate species? A. The two squirrel populations must eat distinct species of plants. B. The fur color of the two squirrel populations must become distinct. C. The two squirrel populations select mates using the same sexual behavior. D. The two squirrel populations become reproductively isolated. 70. Once species have formed, they keep their identity by A. developmental differences. B. genetic blocks. C. reinforcement. D. somatic mutations. E. structural modifications. 71. Punctuated equilibrium refers to A. relatively little evolutionary change over long periods of time, interspersed with short periods of rapid change. B. the loss of large number of species, called mass extinctions. C. adaptive radiations on islands. D. the divergence of one species into two species 72. Which of the following examples would lead to allopatric speciation? A. The colonization of an island by a small subset of a mainland population B. A new river channel dividing a population of beetles into separation C. The extinction of a large proportion of a population leaving only distant sub populations D. A lava flow flowing across the landscape that isolates one population from conspecifics 73. How would gene flow between two allopatric populations affect the chance of speciation? A. It would most likely decrease the chance of speciation B. It would probably increase the chance of speciation C. It would reinforce the separation of the species D. It would increase the likelihood of the development of postzygotic isolating mechanisms 74. What kind of barrier to gene flow has not been shown between the two Bombina species? A. Mechanical isolation B. Habitat isolation C. Behavioral isolation D. Postzygotic isolation 75. Which of the following is false? A. Some gene flow is occurring between the two species. B. There are many phenotypic differences between the two species. C. Both species still use water to reproduce. D. The two species of Bombina are being replaced by a more fit hybrid species. 76. Which of the following conditions would not favor rapid speciation? A. Specialized diets of certain insects B. Sexual selection C. Good dispersal ability D. Reproductive isolation 77. Which of the following is false? A. Over the history of the Earth the overall trend is a steady increase in the number of species B. Mass extinctions appear to affect all types of species equally C. One of the extinctions resulted in a loss of half the species of plants and animals on Earth D. One of the mass extinctions may have been caused by an asteroid hitting Earth 78. Which of the following often involves polyploidy? A. Extinction B. Allopatric speciation in animals C. Adaptive radiation D. Sympatric speciation in plants 79. The diversity of cichlids in Lake Victoria appears to be due to A. the large number of species originally brought there from other lakes by flooding B. glaciation dividing the lake into many smaller lakes C. the large number of isolated islands in the lake D. the key innovation of a second set of jaws, allowing specialization on many different food sources 80. Adaptive radiation is best described as the existence of A. groups of closely related species recently evolved from a common ancestor. B. groups of distantly related species recently evolved from a common ancestor. C. groups of closely related species recently evolved from different ancestors through hybridization. D. individuals of closely related species that originated in different areas within diverse habitats, but that have rejoined as a single species. 81. Which of the following is thought to play a role in the adaptive radiation of Drosophila in Hawaii, Darwin’s finches in the Galapagos, and cichlids in Lake Victoria. A. Presence of islands B. Tropical temperatures C. Tourists releasing pets D. Fragmented habitat 82. Which of the following is true about speciation on island archipelagos? A. Speciation is slow because it depends on emigration from the mainland. B. Most speciation occurs allopatrically. C. Ecological competition may cause new species to go extinct slowing speciation. D. Speciation by polyploidy is most common. 83. If a population with two alleles is at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium and the frequency of one allele is 0.2, what is the heterozygote frequency? A. 0.8 B. 0.64 C. 0.32 D. 0.16 84. As adaptions for flight, the wings of bats and the wings of birds are an example of A. shared derived traits. B. evolutionary reversal. C. monophyly. D. convergent evolution. 85. Characteristics that have arisen in organisms as a result of common evolutionary descent are said to be ______________ characteristics. 1. homologous 2. adaptive 3. convergent 4. ancestral 86. Which of the letters in the tree below corresponds to the most recent common ancestor of a mushroom and a sponge? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 87. According to this tree, which of the following is an accurate statement? A. A green alga is more closely related to a red alga than to a moss B. A green alga is more closely related to a moss than to a red alga C. A green alga is equally related to a red alga and a moss D. A green alga is related to a red alga, but is not related to a moss 88. Which of the following constitute a monophyletic group? 1. Chimpanzee and m o 2. Chimpanzee, mouse, pigeon, and crocodile 3. Chimpanzee, mouse, pigeon, crocodile, and lizard 4. Chimpanzee, pigeon, & salamander 5. Both A and C
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