Genetics (Benjamin) biol 3451 fall 2015 Exam 1
Genetics (Benjamin) biol 3451 fall 2015 Exam 1 Biol 3451
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This 12 page Study Guide was uploaded by Sankalpa Pokhrel on Tuesday September 13, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to Biol 3451 at University of North Texas taught by Robert Curliss Benjamin in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 18 views.
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Date Created: 09/13/16
Biology 3451 Name:_____________________________ Exam I, Fall 2015 Read all of the possible answers for each question before choosing the BEST ANSWER. You may write on the exam as you wish but it must be turned in with the Scantron® before you leave. 1. The endosymbiont theory can be used to explain the origin of: a. nuclei. b. the endoplasmic reticulum. c. mitochondria. d. the process of meiosis. e. sexual reproduction. 2. Mendel’s early studies often found that F2 generation pea plants seemed to come with purple or white flowers in a three to one ratio. In this situation purple colored flowers would be most specifically considered a pea plant’s: a. phenotype. b. allele. c. mutation. d. variant. e. genotype. 3. An artic hare is found to have snow white fur in the winter. However, the same animal is found to be a mottled brown color during the summer months. This is best explained as an example of: a. continuous variation. b. incomplete dominance. c. pleiotrophy. d. codominance. e. environmental effect. 4. The first genetic map, using Drosophila to measure crossover frequencies, was constructed by a member of the laboratory of: a. Sturtevant. b. Sutton and Boveri. c. Gregor Mendel. d. Thomas Morgan. e. Messelson and Stahl. 5. Which of the following processes requires cell to cell contact? a. transduction. b. transformation. c. conjugation. d. All of the above require cell to cell contact. e. None of the above requires cell to cell contact. 6. Which of the following taxonomic groups include species that utilize a temperature dependent (of egg incubation) sex determination method? a. birds b. reptiles c. mammals d. insects e. fish 7. Although Charles Darwin is routinely given credit for proposing the theory of evolution driven by natural selection. Another very similar hypothesis/theory was independently and simultaneously proposed by: a. William Harvey. b. Schleiden and Schwann. c. Alfred Russell Wallace. d. Gregor Mendel. e. Thomas Morgan. 8. Enzymes were discovered in bacteria in the 1970s that were able to cut viral/bacteriophage DNA molecules at specific sites/sequences. This enzymes are called: a. exonucleases. b. recombinases. c. assimilases. d. restriction endonucleases. e. sitespecific recombinases. 9. A cell is described as being n = 50. This means that: a. it has 25 pairs of chromosomes. b. it is diploid. c. after meiosis n = 25. d. it is haploid. e. Answers A, B and C are all correct. 10. Alfred Russel Wallace, who had not heard of Mendel’s experiments, believed that the offspring of two parents should be a blend of their parents’ phenotypes (e.g. red x white would give pink, pink x white would give lighter pink). Had he been correct, Mendel should not have observed discrete phenotypes in peas (only “completely/full” purple or very white flowers) in the “world of peas” but would have observed a range of available colors and a phenomenon now called: a. complete dominance. b. averaging. c. continuous variation. d. natural selection. e. selectional blending. 11. The mutant allele for Huntington disease, and the ones for several other diseases since, was cloned and sequenced. Comparisons of the mutant and wildtype sequences revealed the difference to be: a. a single nucleotide difference (point mutation). b. a translocation that fused two genes in an inappropriate fashion. c. a deletion in an important regulatory region for the affected gene. d. an increase in the number of repeats of a trinucleotide sequence. e. None at the sequence level, leading to the discovery of epigenetics 12. The first person to successfully assign a gene for a specific phenotype (and later many other genes) to a specific eukaryotic chromosome: a. Gregor Mendel. b. Calvin Bridges. c. Watson and Crick. d. Fred Griffith. e. Thomas Hunt Morgan. 13. The frequency of sister chromatid exchanges is increased by? a. colchicine. b. excessive tandem repeat regions. c. colicins. d. DNA damage. e. None of the above affects the rate of sister chromatid infection. 14. The process of transferring genetic information from one bacterium to another via the release of “naked” DNA into the medium (often as the result of cell dealth), the subsequent uptake of this DNA directly from the medium by a living cell, followed by incorporation/recombination of the donor DNA fragment with the recipient bacterium’s genetic material, is called a. transduction. b. transformation. c. conjugation. d. segregation. e. cotransformation. 15. The expression of the human XIST gene of the Xic region is critical to the process of: a. homologous recombination. b. DNA repair. c. Barr body formation. d. Microsatellite expansion at loci such as the Huntington locus and the Fragile X site. e. initiating the expression of the male specific genes during development. 16. You identify the specific set of proteins that are present in a certain cell type under two different known conditions (say in the presence and absence of an external growth factor). This type of study falls within the field we now most specifically refer to as: a. genomics. b. transcriptomics. c. genetic engineering. d. epigenetics. e. proteomics. 17. Which of the following processes is considered a reduction division in the context of genetics? a. mitosis b. meiosis I c. meiosis II d. All of the above are considered reduction divisions because each reduces the DNA content of the resultant cells by half. e. None of options ac are considered reduction divisions because each doubles the cell number after cytokinesis. 18. During the short time that would constitute metaphase I, one each of the two sister chromatids that in turn make up each of the two homologous paired chromosomes are connected to each other by: a. centromeres. b. terminalized chiasmata. c. kinetochores. d. synaptonemal complexes. e. centrosomes 19. Mendel used monohybrid crosses to demonstrate the phenomenon of: a. segregation. b. meiosis. c. mitosis. d. independent assortment. e. heterozygosity. 20. A person with the mutant allele of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane receptor gene (encodes a chloride ion channel) has fluid buildup in the lungs, reduced uptake of some nutrients by the small intestine and is taller than average (and other symptoms). Because the homozygote for this allele expressed multiple differences as compared to the wildtype human we say that this allele at this locus is an example of: a. allelic complementation. b. incomplete dominance. c. pleiotrophy. d. codominance. e. epistasis. 21. A Punnett square is used to analyze a trihybrid cross. What should the total number of squares/boxes be? a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32 e. 64 22. The Bombay phenotype for a locus affecting/controlling human blood type is considered to be a classic example of: a. allelic complementation. b. incomplete dominance. c. pleiotrophy. d. codominance. e. epistasis. 23. Three genes, designated red, wht and blu, have been mapped to autosome number 2 of a Drosophila species native only to the U.S. A red wht blu (NOTE this may not be the correct order and only indicates the alleles at each locus) fly was crossed to a + + + fly. One of the resulting female offspring was testcrossed to a male true breeding red wht blu fly. The results for the offspring of the testcross are given in the table below (the boxes at right are for your use). What is the correct order of these 3 genes on the chromosome? Offspring Phenotype Number Total and % Exchange Classification red wht blu 300 1120 + + + 300 56% red + blu 100 400 + wht + 100 20% red wht + 400 80 + + blu 400 4% + wht blu 200 400 red + + 200 20% a. red wht blu b. blu red wht c. red blu wht d. blu wht red e. Based upon these results the order cannot be determined. 24. The physiological state which allows a bacterial cell to take up foreign DNA into the cell and subsequently incorporate a strand of the DNA into its own chromosome is called: a. transformation. b. conjugation. c. transduction. d. recombination. e. competence. 25. An Hfr strain of E. coli would likely exhibit:: a. a high rate of gene transfer by conjugation. b. a high level of competence. c. a high susceptibility to transduction d. a strong tendency to accept lysogenic bacteriophage. e. resistance to multiple antibiotics. 26. The developmental pathway a Drosophila zygote will follow, to be either a male or a female, is actually determined by: a. the presence of 2 X chromosomes (or not). b. the presence of a Y chromosome (or not). c. ZZ or ZW sex chromosomes. d. the number of autosomes present. e. the ratio of X chromosomes to copies/sets of the autosomes. 27. In humans, 47,XXY individuals are said to suffer from: a. sexual trisomy. b. Klinefelter syndrome. c. Turner syndrome. d. Huntington disease. e. fragile X syndrome. 28. The first “solid” evidence to support the fact that DNA, and not proteins as was commonly suspected at the time, was in fact the genetic material of life forms was obtained by: a. Alfred Russel Wallace. b. William Harvey. c. Watson and Crick. d. Schleiden and Schwann. e. Avery, McCarty and MacLeod. 29. RNA is most commonly made using a DNA template by a process known as: a. transcription. b. translation. c. recombination. d. reverse transcription. e. assimilation. 30. During mitosis of mammalian cells, the chromosomes are connected to the spindle apparatus through specialized structures called: a. telomeres. b. centrioles. c. centromeres. d. kinetochores. e. basal bodies. 31. You have chosen to perform genetics experiments with a model organism that commonly only produces two offspring, reproduces only once per year and is rather expensive to maintain (feed). Regrettably due to funding cuts you are unable to perform the number of crosses that you originally told Mendel (your major professor) that you would carry out. However, you still believe that you have sufficient data to adequately support the hypothesis that he would like to present at the next meeting of the Austrian Society of Geneticist Monks (and which you would defend as your dissertation). To demonstrate your point that the data do provide sufficient support to the theory you would be best advised to perform a/an ______ of your data. a. Punnett square analysis b. fork analysis. c. chisquare analysis. d. null analysis. e. P square analysis 32. Epigenetics is presently described as situations where the genetic expression is not the direct result of the information stored in the nucleotide sequence of the DNA. One of the previously identified phenomena that is now considered to be an example of epigenetics is: a. genetic anticipation. b. partial penetrance. c. genomic imprinting. d. expressivity. e. epistasis. 33. You are conducting 3 point crossover experiments and notice that, although often your results fall within the expected range when comparing double and single crossover frequencies in each case, in some cases the number of double crossovers is fewer than expected while in others the number of double crossovers is greater than predicted by the related number of single crossovers. The phenomenon you have discovered is referred to as: a. incomplete dominance. b. interference. c. continuous variation. d. chiasmatic interaction. e. The coefficient of coincidence. 34. A plant species under study has both tall and short varieties. The plant makes a growth hormone (made by enzyme A) in the leaves that is transported (by transport protein B) to the stems and acts to make them elongate. A truebreeding Tall plant is crossed with a second plant homozygous for the recessive, nonfunctioning, allele of the transport protein but homozygous wildtype genotype for enzyme A. What fraction of the F off2pring will be expected to be dwarf? a. 1/16 b. 3/16 c. 4/16 d. 7/16 e. 9/16 35. An E. coli cell is observed to be the donor during the conjugation process. It is likely this cell: f. contains a bacteriophage. g. contains a Kappa particle. h. contains an F plasmid. i. secretes DNA into the medium. j. is a heterokaryon. 36. An example of a chromosome dosage compensation solution, when appropriate, that is utilized by homo sapiens is: a. inactivation of the Y chromosome. b. Barr bodies. c. inactivation of SRY. d. activation of an additional Y chromosome. e. epigenetics. 37. The random distribution of orange and black patches in the calico cat is a classic illustration of: a. mitotic recombination. b. the Lyon hypothesis. c. position effect. d. nondisjunction. e. gene conversion. 38. You have 16 offspring: 1/4 of all your offspring have the genes to give them Blood Type A 1/2 of all your offspring have the genes to give them Blood Type A/B 1/4 of all your offspring have the genes to give them Blood Type B 1/4 of all of your offspring are also homozygous for the nonfunctioning mutant allele of the FUT1 gene and do not form H substance. How many of your offspring have the Bombay phenotype? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 3 e. None of them 39. The proper order of phases during mitosis is: a. metaphase, prometaphase, prophase, anaphase, and telophase. b. prophase, prometaphase, anaphase, metaphase and telophase. c. prometaphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase and telophase. d. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. e. prometaphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. 40. A mammalian somatic cell you are studying has not divided in several days and is unlikely to divide in the next few days either. It is most likely in what phase of the cell cycle at this moment? a. G0 b. G2 c. S phase d. mitosis e. cytokinesis 41. Myotonic Dystrophy, Fragile X, and Huntington disease are examples of human genetic diseases that exhibit earlier ages of onset and/or an increased severity in afflicted members of each successive generation in families in which the mutant alleles are segregating. These are both examples of genetic diseases which exhibit: a. partial penetrance. b. incomplete dominance. c. genetic imprinting. d. genetic anticipation. e. delayed onset phenotypic expression. 42. Mendel crossed a true breeding yellow seeded pea with a true breeding green seeded pea. Yellow is dominant over green. He then self fertilized the f1 plants to produce f2 generation plants. The seeds of these plants would be: a. all yellow. b. 75% green, 25% yellow. c. 75% yellow, 25% green. d. 50% yellow, 50% green. e. suitable only for the Jolly Green Giant. 43. An E. coli strain has been determined by you to be an F strain. This means that: a. it is highly susceptible to spontaneous mutation. b. it is an auxotroph and requires one or more specific nutrients. c. it would only be a recipient cell in the conjugation process. d. it is unable to carry out genetic recombination. e. it has lost the lysogenic phage in its chromosome. 44. In his “simultaneous infection studies” using mutants at the rII locus of the E. coli phage T4, Benzer observed that sometimes infecting E. coli simultaneously with two phage with mutations in the rII region did not give any plaques while other combinations of mutant rII region phage did in fact yield plaques on the plate Benzer called the phenomenon that led to the production of plaques from the two combined phage: a. lysogeny. b. syntenny. c. positive interference. d. complementation. e. transduction. 45. Genetic information is transferred from one bacterial cell to another by means of a bacteriophage. This is an example of: a. transformation. b. conjugation. c. prototrophy. d. autotrophy. e. transduction. 46. The genes for colicins and resistance to antibiotics are commonly encoded by:: a. bacteriophage. b. plasmids. c. kappa particles. d. bacterial host chromosomes. e. prophage. 47. Linkage maps of chromosomes are measured/drawn in what units? a. centiMorgans b. nucleotides c. centimeters d. recombination event units (REUs) e. centromeres 48. A human condition that results from a partial deletion of a segment of one of the autosomes is: a. Turner syndrome. b. Lyon syndrome. c. criduchat syndrome. d. Klinefelter syndrome. e. Patau syndrome. 49. A human female that lacks a Barr body would suffer from: a. Turner syndrome. b. Lyon syndrome. c. criduchat syndrome. d. Klinefelter syndrome. e. Patau syndrome. 50. The segment of the human Y chromosome that actually triggers the expression of the genes resulting in the development of male primary sex characteristics is called the: a. SRY. b. PAR. c. TDF. d. MSY. e. heterochromatic region. 51. Converting the colorless flower pigment precursor #1 is to the yellow colored pigment #2 either of single enzyme two pathways. The first pathway is encoded by locus A (alleles “A” for functional and “a” for the inactive recessive) and the alternative second pathway by locus B (again “B” is the wt functional allele and “b” is the nonfunctional recessive allele). A cross of an AABB plant with an aabb plant gives an F1 generation all with yellow flowers. The expected ratio of yellow to white plants in the F2 generation would be: a. 3:1. b. 1:3. c. 9:7. d. 15:1. e. 12:4. 52. The inheritance and expression patterns of the “cock feathering” phenotype in domestic fowl is considered to be a classic example of the phenomenon known as: a. expressivity. b. genetic imprinting. c. Xlinked inheritance. d. sexinfluenced inheritance. e. sexlimited inheritance
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