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Geology 1014, Human Affairs Study guide one

by: Ann McCarty

Geology 1014, Human Affairs Study guide one GEOL 1014 - 0-61920

Marketplace > Oklahoma State University > Geology > GEOL 1014 - 0-61920 > Geology 1014 Human Affairs Study guide one
Ann McCarty
OK State
GPA 3.6

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Covers chapters 5-9, and 11
Geology and Human Affairs Lecture
Priyank Jaiswal
Study Guide
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This 16 page Study Guide was uploaded by Ann McCarty on Friday October 7, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to GEOL 1014 - 0-61920 at Oklahoma State University taught by Priyank Jaiswal in Fall 2016. Since its upload, it has received 17 views. For similar materials see Geology and Human Affairs Lecture in Geology at Oklahoma State University.

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Date Created: 10/07/16
Test two study guide 1014 Chapter 5: 1. How are the magnitude and frequency of natural hazard events typically related? - inversely related 2. How does a catastrophe differ from a disaster? - Damages form a catastrophe are of a magnitude that requires a long recovery period. 3. Why is history important in understanding natural hazards? - most natural hazards are repetitive events 4. Why are precursor events important? -precursor events provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active. 5. Why are hazard warnings sometimes problematic? - warnings are occasionally inaccurate 6. To what does the concept of acceptable risk refer? - the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure 7. How is the risk of a particular event defined? - risk is probability of occurrence of an event multiplied by its consequences. 8. What is the difference between a reactive response and an anticipatory response? - a reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with preparedness. 9. Why is land use panning trypically more effective than artificial control of natural hazards? - Most hazardous natural processes are not amenable to artificial control. 10. Why might global climate change impact the magnitude and frequency of hazardous events? - many hazardous natural events are controlled in part by the amount of water in the system. 11. Why might global warming increase the magnitude and/or frequency of weather related hazards? - Warmer ocean waters will channel more energy into the atmosphere. 12. Why does population increase affect the number of catastrophic events? Test two study guide 1014 - Greater numbers of ppl occupy marginal lands in the path of hazardous processes. 13. Which of the following did not claim more than 250,000 lives? - hurricane katrina in new Orleans in 2005 5.2 true or false 1. the deadly 1985 eruption of Nevado del Ruiz is an example of inaccurate prediction. - false 2. the magnitude and frequency of a natural hazard are typically inversely related. - true 3. a catastrophe is an event that requires a long recovery period. - true 4. volcanic eruptions are one of the few natural hazards that have no benefit to humans. -false 5. changes in land-use patterns alter the effects of natural hazards. -true 6. most natural hazards are non-repetitive events. - false 7. shale is a strong rock type on which to build structures. -false 8. land use planning is an important anticipatory response to natural hazards. - true 9. population increase is important because it buffers the impacts of hazardous event. -false 10. global climate change is not likely to alter natural hazard frequency because most hazards are not related to climate. - false 11. hazardous processes can become catastrophes because of population increase. -true 12. natural hazards are always damaging and never benefical. Test two study guide 1014 -false 13. a prediction of hazardous event has greater uncertainty than does a forecast. - false 5.3 short answer questions 1. a deadly eruption of the Columbian volcano ____ provided lessons concerning the dissemination of scientific predictions of natural hazards. - Nevado del Ruiz. 2. The recurrence interval of an event, aka its _? _, is typically inversely related to the events magnitude - frequency 3. A _?_ is a disaster from which recovery is long and involved. - Catastrophe 4. Natural hazards are _?_ events; therefore, an examination of their history provides important clues. - repetitive 5. Benefits of _?_ include enrichment of soils and the creation of new land. - Volcanism 6. The risk of a particular event is the product of the events occurrence multiplied by the _?_. - Consequences 7. _?_ is the potential for disaster that a society or individual is willing to endure. - acceptable risk. 8. A _?_ response has to do with the impact of and recovery from hazards. - Reactive 9. An _?_ response has to do with the perception, avoidance, and adjustment to hazards. - Anticipatory 10. in 1998, Hurricane Mitch hit Central America and caused a catastrophe that was magnified by the practice of _?_. - Deforestation 11. Hurricane Katrina flooded New Orleans when a _?_ broke. - levee Test two study guide 1014 12. One benefit of volcanic eruptions is nutrient-rich _?_. - Soils 13. The _?_ of an event is the amount of energy released. - magnitude. Chapter 6: 1. how does earthquake magnitude differ from intensity? - magnitude reflects energy release, while intensity reflects the amount of shaking. 2. On what basis are Mercalli intensity values assigned to locations? - Qualitative perceptions of and structural response to the shaking 3. the 1811-1812 new madrid earthquake were different from most California earthquakes because - the new madrid earthquakes were centered in a plate interior 4. a strike-slip fault has what type of motion? -horizontal active fault is defined as a fault that -has experienced movement during Holocene time 6. Surface Waves are produced by - P and S waves reaching the surface 7. why are nearby earthquakes often described as “jolting” while distant earthquakes are described as “rolling”? - Because high frequency waves are attenuated as they move away from the epicenter. 8. during the strain accumulation phase of the earthquake cycle - rocks are deformed elastically 9. How can injection of liquid wastes cause earthquakes? -it increases fluid pressure and reduces friction 10. tsunamis are generated by -vertical displacement of ocean water 11. Ground rupture occurs during an earthquake as - a near surface fault breaks the surface. Test two study guide 1014 12. why did the 1976 tanshan earthquake in china deal a blow to the Chinese earthquake prediction program? - it occurred without foreshocks and was not predicted, unlike one the previous year 13. why might the emission of radon gas be useful in predicting earthquakes? - fracturing of the rocks allows radon to move readily th 14. why have 20 century earthquakes in turkey suggested that some earthquakes beget subsequent earthquakes? - earthquakes have occurred in a pattern from east to west 15. the major goal of the U.S. earthquake hazard reduction program is to - reduce earthquakes hazards through understanding of risks and prediction of hazards 6.2 true or false 1. the magnitude of an earthquake is a function of its location. - F 2. The epicenter of an earthquake is the point of rupture along the fault. - F 3. Most large earthquakes in the US - T 4. Buried faults are typically associated with folds in sedimentary rocks - T 5. Tectonic creep is the major cause of earthquakes in coastal Cali - F 6. P-waves travel faster than surface waves - T 7. Bedrock, because of its strength and rapid transmittal of seismic waves, increases he amplitude of those waves. - F 8. Depth of focus is an important factor in determining the intensity - T 9. Tsunamis are only a hazard near their source - f Test two study guide 1014 10. seismic risk maps are useful tools for short term earthquake prediction - F 11. All earthquakes forces are too great to be influenced by human activity - F 12. Tsunamis can cause damage thousands of miles from their source - T 13. Earthquake forces are too great to be influenced by human activity - F 14. Shake maps are used to predict where shaking is likely to occur in a future earthquake - F 1. The _?_ magnitude is determined from the amplitude of waves recorded on seismograms. - Richter 2. _?_ intensity is useful in rapid determination of the degree of shaking - Instrumental 3. The new Madrid and Charleston earthquakes were _?_ earthquakes. - Intraplate 4. A _?_ fault is a type of reverse fault with a gentle angle of dip. - thrust 5. An inactive fault has not experienced movement in the last 2 million years. - inactive 6. The process of _?_ releases elastic strain during and after an earthquake. - Elastic rebound. 7. _?_ is the transformation of saturated sediments from the solid so the liquid form. - Liquefaction. 8. Scientists in the country of _?_ issued the first successful short- term earthquake prediction in 1975. - China 9. A _?_ is an area along an active fault zone that is likely to produce large earthwuakes, but has not done so recently. Test two study guide 1014 - seismic gap 10. Emission of _?_ gas is an occasional earthquake precursor. - radon 11. A 2010 earthquake in _?_ caused hundreds of thousands of deaths - Haiti 5. An active fault is defined as a fault that - has experienced movement during the Holocene time 6. Tsunamis travel - more slowly in shallow water than in deep water, causing wave crests to rise. th 7. A series of earthquakes in the country of _?_ in the late 20 c. progressed along the fault from East to West - Turkey 8. Worldwide, a magnitude 7.0- 7.9 earthquake happens on average/yr. - 18 times 9. A fault in which the sides of a fault are displaced horizontally is called what? - Strike Slip fault. 10. What is not one of the three methods of finding out the average recurrence interval of Earthquakes? - Earthquake segments 11. _?_ involves the study of past earthquake history from trenches along faults. - Paleo seismology. Chapter 7: 1. In what region did a major tsunami strike in late 2004? - Indian Ocean 2. The 2004 tsunami was generated by an - earthquake 3. The tsunami warning system in the region of the 2004 tsunami - did not exist. 4. The giant tsunami that struck Indonesia in 1883 was caused by a - volcanic eruption Test two study guide 1014 5. Tsunamis can take several hours to cross the ocean because _________. - the ocean is too deep to transmit the waves. 6. The 1700 AD tsunami generated by a large earthquake on the Cascadia subduction zone in the Pacific Northwest was dated most precisely using - Japanese tsunami records 7. The first step in producing a timely warning of a tsunami is - Detection of a possible tsunami producing earthquake. 8. Tsunamis can be detected on the open ocean through _________. - measurement of changes in pressure exerted on the sea bottom by the water column. 9. Tsunamis are generated by __________. - Vertical displacement of ocean water. 10. The 2004 Indonesian/ Indian Ocean tsunami came as a complete surprise to scientists working in the area - F 11. It is safer to be on the open ovean than in the harbor when a tsunami arrives - T 12. The Cascadia subduction zone in the Pacific Northwest generates tsunamis -T th 1. The Dec. 26 , 2004 tsunami was triggered by what? - an interpolate earthquake 3. What is the most common potential cause of a tsunami? - Earthquake 4. Damaging tsunamis in historic times have been mostly where? - Pacific 5. What is a possible early warning indicator of a tsunami? - Feeling tremors of an earthquake and seeing the ocean quickly recede from the beach. 6. Before the Dec. 26 , 2004 tsunami, the most devastating tsunami in the past 200 yrs, ws caused by what and in what yr? - Krakatoa Volcano, 1883 Test two study guide 1014 Chapter 8: 1. Why are most active volcanoes associates with plate tectonic boundaries? - Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma. 2. Viscosity of a magma is controlled by - temp and silicon content of magma 3. The shape of shield volcanoes is a function of - lava viscosity 4. Why do composite volcanoes consist of alternating lava and pyroclastic layers. - composite cones are created by a mix of explosive activity and lava flows. 5. Mid- ocean ridge volcanism produces what type of volcanic rock? - Basalt 6. Composite cones typically are associated with what type of plate tectonic feature? - Subduction zones 7. What is the principal different between craters and calderas? - Calderas are much larger depressions created by collapse of the upper portions of the volcano. 8. Why were the citizens of Heimaey, Iceland, successful in stopping the lava flow that threatened their harbor. - They had a ready supply of water with which to chill lava. 9. What is one reason that ash fall is such a significant hazard? - The weight of ash can nausea structural damage to buildings. 10. A lahar is produced when - ash and other pyroclastic ejecta become saturated with water. 11. Hundreds of residents near a dormant volcano at Lake Nyos dies when - a dense cloud of volcanic gas was released 12. The number of fatalities from the Mt. Pinatubo eruption was relatively low because - The eruption was predicted successfully and the area was evacuated. 13. Seismic activity serves as a tool of volcanic forecasting because - moving magma causes earthquakes Test two study guide 1014 14. Why is the geologic history of a volcano important in hazard prediction? - The geologic history reveals the frequency and style of eruptions 15. Why is topographic monitoring sometimes useful in forecasting a volcanic eruption? - a Volcano sometimes sw2ells as lava moves into the edifice. 16. Viscosity is a primary control on the nature of volcanic activity - True 17. A shield volcano is typically andesitic in composition. - False 18. Composite volcanoes consist almost completely of lava flows. - False 19. Volcanic domes form on oceanic plates above hotspots - False 20. Composite volcanoes are typically associated with subduction zones - true 21. Caldera eruptions are very common features of subduction zones - False 22. Lava flows are the most dangerous of the primary volcanic hazards. - Flase 23. Lahars are usually produced by saturation of thick volcanic ash. - True 24. The 1980 eruption of Mt. St. Helens produced large lava flows that filled the nearby river valleys. - False 25. Volcanic gas emissions are important because they tell geologists of how flammable the gases in the magma re likely to be. - False 26. The 1991 eruptoin of Mt. Pinatubo colled the Earths climate the following year. - True 27. Ash flows are rarely dangerous - False Test two study guide 1014 28. Tens of thousands of ppl were killed in the 1991 Pinatubo eruption because of a lack of prediction of the eruption - False 29. The citizens of Heimaey, Island, Succeeded in stopping a lava flow from blocking their harbor - True 30. The eruption of Mt. ________ in 1991 killed several ppl w/ pyroclastic flows. - Unzen 31. Shield volcanoes typicalls consist of the rock type: - Basalt 32. Volcanic domes typically consist of the rock type: - Rhyolite 33. _______ are small volcanoes formed from tephro accumulation near a volcanic vent. - Cinder cones 34. The Hawaiian islands were formed volcanism associated with a: - hotspot 35. ______ eruptions are among the most violent and largest known. - Caldera 36. _______ are dangerous, hot masses of ash and gas that travel down the flanks of a volcano. - Ash flows or Pyroclastic material 37. ____ is a volcanic gas associated with acid rain and fog: - Sulfur Dioxide 38. The May 18, 1980, eruption of Mt. St. Helens began with a massive _____: - Evacuation 39. _____ are volcanic mudflows: - Lahars 40. At ______ Cameroon, a dense cloud of gas was released from a volcanic crater, flowing down the volcano and killing hundreds of ppl. - Lake Nyos 41. _____ activity beneath a volcano is an indication of moving magma Test two study guide 1014 - Siesmic Chapter 9: 1. Why did extensive flooding occur of St. Louis during the 1993 Mississippi River flood? - Answer: Floodwalls protecting St. Louis caused a bottleneck in the river’s flow. 2. The portion of rain fall that flows off the land and directly into a river is called - Runoff 3. What is river base level? - the lowest level to which a river may erode 4. the suspended load of most rivers consists mostly of - silt and clay. 5. If a stream channel is of constant width and depth, how must increased discharge be accommodated? - increased. 6. The Ventura Beach RV Resort was flooded because - it was constructed in an unrecognized. 7. The total load of sediment that a river carries in a given period of time is called - capacity 8. why might logging of a drainage basin change the slope of the river - increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment. 9. what type of river channel is characterized by multiple channels and gravel bars? - braided 10. how do point bars and cut banks differ from one another in a stream system? - cut banks are sites of erosion, while point bars are sites of deposition 11. which type of flood is typically caused by intense rainfall of short duration? - upstream flood 12. what is the best description of the “10-year flood”? -a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year 13. the degree of urbanization consists of Test two study guide 1014 - percentage of impervious cover and the percentage of area served by storm sewers 14. in what way can structural control of floods actually increase flood damage? -by encouraging development on the floodplain 15. why is flood hazard mapping considered an important step in floodplain management? - flood hazard mapping guides appropriate development in the floodplain. 9.2 True and False Questions 1. the floodplain is usually considered as a distinct system with respect to the river system. -False 2. the base level of a stream is typically sea level. - True 3. the bed load is the dominant portion of the total load for most rivers. - False 4. for the same amount of discharge, a narrow, shallow channel will have a higher water velocity than will a wide, deep channel. -True 5. a faster-moving stream has greater competence than a slow-moving stream. - True 6. braided channels are typically characterized by fine-grained bed load. - False 7. downstream floods typically cover larger areas than do upstream floods. -True 8. the 100-year flood is the flood that occurred exactly 100 years ago. -False 9. urbanization generally increases the lag time between the peak of rainfall and the peak of the resulting flood. - False 10. the principal objective of channelization is to control floods. Test two study guide 1014 -True 11. a braided stream usually has just one channel. -False 12. the lag time between peak rainfall and peak stream discharge is typically increased by urbanization. -True 13. structural flood controls often increase overall flood hazard. -True 14. flood hazard mapping and floodplain regulation are modern means of reducing flood damages. - True 9.3 Short Answer Questions 1. the region drained by a single river or river system is the ___________. - drainage basin 2. the total load of a river is dominated by the __________ load. - suspended 3. the continuity equation pertains to the accommodation of ______ by a stream channel. - discharge 4. streams generally maintain a ___________ between the sediment transported and the sediment delivered to the stream. - dynamic equilibrium 5. _________ are shallow portions of a meandering stream, in which the water is typically fast-moving at low flows. - riffles 6. the _______ is the period of time in which a flood of given magnitude is expected. - recurrence interval 7. ___________ changes many characteristics of floods in smaller streams. - urbanization 8. protection of banks by planting trees and other vegetation is a form of ________. Test two study guide 1014 - channel restoration 9. the objective of _________ is to maximize beneficial use of the floodplain while minimizing flood damage and the cost of flood protection. - floodplain regulation 10. following hurricane Floyd in 1999, residents in one state of ______ were relocated from a badly impacted floodplain. - North Carolina 11. A ___________ pond is used to hold back water during a storm and release it more slowly into the stream system. - retention 12. ___________ consists of straightening, deepening, widening, clearing, or lining existing stream channels. - channelization 13. a _________ stream system is one in which multiple small channels are dispersed across a sand or gravel channel. - braided 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1. Why are the impacts of coastal hazards so great? - Because many populated areas are located near the coasts 2. How might global warming exacerbate coastal hazards? - Global warming will likely be accompanied by sea level rise 3. Why does ocean swell tend to consist of waves of similar sizes? - Waves far from their storm source tend to be sorted into groups of similar waves. 4. Which of the following does not influence waves size? - Wind temperature 5. As waves enter shallow water - Wavelength decreases and wave height increases 6. Why do waves expend so much energy on a rocky headland? - Waves refract toward the headland on both sides Test two study guide 1014 7. The current flowing parallel to and just offshore of a beach is called - Long shore current 8. Why does river damming sometimes contribute to coastal erosion? - The supply of sediment to beaches is shut off 9. Why does sea cliff erosion occur at high rates in some areas? - The sea cliff may be exposed to both wave action and terrestrial mass wasting processes 10. What is the main drawback of sea walls? - They reflect wave energy back across the beach and cause erosion 11. What adverse effect do groins and jetties both have on coastal erosion? - They stop littoral transport of sand and starve down-drift areas of sand 12. What is the principle goal of beach nourishment? - To maintain a positive beach budget and alleviate the need for engineered structures


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