Study Guide for exam 2
Study Guide for exam 2 1301 Psych
Sam Houston State University
Popular in Introductory Psychology
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This 10 page Study Guide was uploaded by Rachel on Thursday October 13, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to 1301 Psych at Sam Houston State University taught by Dr Allen in Fall 2016. Since its upload, it has received 13 views.
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Date Created: 10/13/16
1) Changes such as an increase in height or the size of the brain are called a. Classical conditioning b. Unconditioned response c. Maturation d. Reflex 2) In defining learning, “______” refers to the fact when people learning a part anything a part of their brain is physically changed to record what they have learned and that change remains even if the behavior does not a. Behavior b. Reaction c. Experience d. Relatively permanent 3) A Naturally occurring stimulus that leads to an involuntary (reflex) response in a/an __ a. Neutral Stimulus b. Conditioned Stimulus c. Unconditioned stimulus d. Unconditioned response 4) In his classical conditioning experiement, Pavlov’s dogs were conditioned to salivate when they _______ a. Saw their food bowl b. Heard the sound of the metronome c. Saw their trainers d. Smelled their food 5) Classical conditioning, ______ is the disappearance or weakening of a learned response following the removal or absence of the unconditioned stimulus a. Stimulus discrimination b. Stimulus generalization c. Extinction d. Spontaneous recovery 6) Birds, who find their food by sight, will avoid any object or insect that simply looks like that made them sick. This is a result of ____. a. Operant conditioning b. Maturation c. Biological preparedness d. Reflex 7) The cognitive perspective of classical conditioning involves _______ a. The mental activity of consciously expecting something else to occur b. The ability of animals to learn new information c. Biological preparedness d. The mental activity of analyzing another’s behavior and making a choice to copy that behavior 8) _______ is the classical conditioning of a reflex response or emotion by watching the reaction of another person a. Vicarious conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Conditioned learning d. Shaping 9) Carla was bitten by a dog when she was a toddler. She’s older now, but still backs up in fear whenever a dog approaches her. This is an example of ____. a. Stimulus Substitution b. Conditioned emotional response c. Biological preparedness d. Vicarious conditioning 10) What are the two kinds of behavior that all organisms are capable of? a. Reckless and controlled b. Involuntary and voluntary c. Actions and basic survival instincts d. Pleasant and unpleasant 11) Operant conditioning relies on____. a. Voluntary behavior b. Involuntary behavior c. Biological preparedness d. Stimulus substitution 12) A teacher has decided to give “caught being good” tickets to her students when they behave according to class rules. This teacher also rewards students with gold stars each time the improve their math speed. This teacher is using _______. a. Classical conditioning b. Punishment and classical conditioning c. Operant conditioning d. Observational learning 13) One of B.F. Skinner’s famous experiments involved teaching ______. a. Coyotes to ignore sheep b. Babies to avoid loud noises c. Rats to learn how to obtain food d. Dogs to salivate at the sound of a bell 14) A behavior is more resistant to extinction if it is ______? a. Continuously reinforced b. Partially reinforced c. A conditioned response d. Unished 15) If your professor gives pop quizzes, this is an example of ______ a. A fixed interval schedule of reinforcement b. A variable interval schedule of reinforcement c. Punishment by addition d. A ratio schedule of reinforcement 16) Eight year old Matt has just had his favorite video game taken away from him by his mother because he was not listening when she asked him to stop playing and clean up his room. This is an example of ______ a. Punishment by removal b. Punishment by application c. Positive reinforcement d. Negative reinforcement 17) Research suggest a link between spanking and _______ a. Intelligence b. Submissiveness in children c. Aggression in children d. Children’s concentration 18) The Brelands determined that most Skinnerian behaviorists made the false assumption that _____. a. All responses are equally able to be conditioned to any stimulus b. Animal consciousness differs from human consciousness c. Differences between species of animals are significant d. Animals will revert to genetically controlled patterns 19) In order to increase reading among the students in her class, Mrs. Gamez has her students record their reading by placing stickers on a large chart. For every ten stickers, students receive a new a new book. Mrs. Gamez is using ____ a. Classical conditioning b. Discriminative stimuli c. A token economy d. Shaping 20) Learning that remains hidden until its application becomes useful is called ________ a. Conditioned learning b. Latent learning c. A learning curve d. Insight learning 21) In the information-processing model, the first Stage of memory is ___ memory a. Short term b. Long term c. Sensory d. Iconic 22) Psychologist consider memory to be ______ a. A passive storage bank of experiences b. An active system c. Only possible with effort d. Limited to encoding sensory information 23) The set of mental operations that people on sensory information to convert that information into a form that is usable in the brain’s storage system is called _______ a. Encoding b. Storage c. Rehearsal d. Retrieval 24) The idea that memory formation is a simultaneous process is reflected in the ______ a. Iconic memory model b. Levels-of-processing model c. Parallel distributed processing model d. Information- processing model 25) The information-processing model assumes that the length of time a memory will be remembered depends on ______ a. Where the event takes place b. How long ago the event took place c. The stage of memory in which it is stored d. A person’s age at the time the memory is processed 26) In real life, information that has just entered iconic memory will be pushed out very quickly by new information. Research suggests that after ______ old information is relaced by new information a. A quarter of a second b. One second c. A half a second d. A millisecond 27) The system of working memory processes the information in ________. a. The attention filter b. Long- term memory c. Short- term memory d. The hippocampus 28) Research on ____ has implications for understanding learning and attention disorders as well as various dementia-related memory problems a. Long-term memory b. Implicit memory c. Working memory d. Biographical memory 29) One may transfer information from short-term memory (STM) into long- term memory (LTM) by _____. a. Elaborative rehearsal b. Paying attention c. Role learning d. Chunking 30) _____ memory refers to the awareness of the meanings of words, concepts, and terms as well as names of objects, math skills, and so on. a. Implicit b. Explicit c. Semantic d. Declarative 31) Catlin finds that she performs better on the exams that are given in her regular psychology classroom than in the large lecture room that is used to give midterms and finals to several sections at once. Catlin experience illustrates the ________ a. Importance of maintenance rehearsal in memory b. Role of the recency effect c. Importance of retrieval cues in memory d. Role of the primacy effect 32) _____ is the tendency for memory of any kind of information to be improved if the physical surroundings available when the memory is first formed are also available when the memory is being retrieved a. Kinetic memory b. Dynamic memory c. Encoding specificity d. Retroactive recall 33) To answer the questions in this test, which type of memory recall will you most frequently use? a. Encoding specificity b. Recognition c. Recall d. State-dependent learning 34) Elizabeth Loftus’ research determined that _____. a. What people see and hear about an event after the fact can easily affect the accuracy of their memories of that event b. Eyewitness testimony is generally accurate and reliable c. People tend to forget memories that are painful d. Flashbulb memories are rarely an accurate memory of the actual event 35) What is the best way for a person to overcome the tip-of-the tongue phenomenon? a. Thinking about the length of the word or concept b. Stop trying to remember the information you are trying to retrieve c. Think about words that may sound like the word you are trying to retrieve d. Name the letters that start or end the word 36) The constructive processing view says that every time a memory is retrieved _____. a. It may be altered or revised in some way b. One must rehearse it to keep it in LTM c. Another memory is lost d. It is exactly the same 37) Which of the following best describes memory schema theorist Sir Frederick Bartelett’s conception of memory? a. Memory is more like reading a book than it is like going to a movie b. Memory is more like a movie than it is like taking a photograph c. Memory is more like making up a story than it is reading a book d. Memory is more like reading a book than it is making up a story 38) While hypnosis may make it easier to recall some memories, it can also ________ a. Makes the memories more vivid than before b. Causes physical changes in the brain c. Makes it easier to create false memories d. Can regress people into past lives 39) Higher false recall and recognition response can be predicted by _____ a. Socioeconomic status b. Age c. Symptoms of depression d. Family history of mental illness 40) A(n)___________ is a memory expert or someone with exceptional memory ability. a. Mnemonist b. Memoirist c. Phlebotomist d. Amnesic 41) Marcia dated Davio for several years. They recently broke up and Marcia went out on a date with a man named Oliver. While on the date Marcia mistakenly called him Davio. This an example of __________ a. Disuse b. Consolidation c. Proactive interference d. Retroactive interference 42) The ________ is the part of the brain that is responsible for the formation of new long term declarative memories a. Pons b. Hippocampus c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebellum 43) When a memory is being formed several changes take place in the brain in a process called _____________. a. Encoding specificity b. Automatic encoding c. Consolidation d. Deep processing 44) Ms. Tuttle was 97 years old and suffered from forgetfulness and mental confusion. She probably experiencing ________. a. Encoding failure b. Retrograde amnesia c. Senile dementia d. Anterograde amnesia 45) A research design in which one participant or group of similar participant is followed and studied over a long period of time is called a _________ design. a. Cross-sectional b. Longitudinal c. Latitudinal d. Cross- sequential 46) Dr. Allen is studying the effects of aging on memory. She gives an initial test of memory. She gives an initial test of memory to a group of 20 year olds and a group of 40 year olds. Then she follows both groups of participants for a period of 5 years, regularly giving them memory test during that time. Which research design is Dr. Allen using? a. Cross- sequential b. Longitudinal c. Genetic- potential d. Cross-sectional 47) Which of the following describes the relationship between heredity and environmental factors in determining development? a. Experience can affect our genes, but genes cannot affect our experiences b. Environmental factors are much more importantly than heredity c. Genes and experience can affect each other d. Genes and experiences are completely independent of each other 48) A research spends her entire career comparing the relative influences of heredity and environment on the development of alcoholism in men. This research works in the field of _________ a. Physical development b. Moral development c. Environmental genetics d. Behavioral genetics 49) Humans have a total of ______ chromosomes in each cell of their bodies. a. 23 b. 46 c. 22 d. 44 50) A ______ will always be expressed in the observable trait. a. Recessive gene b. Physical feature c. Dominant gene d. Chromosome 51) The cell resulting from fertilization is called a(n) _____ a. Ovum b. Fetus c. Mitosis d. Zygote 52) When the mass of cells does not completely split apart, the result is _______ a. Identical twins b. Conjoined twins c. A spontaneous abortion d. A miscarriage 53) When you touch an infant’s check, he will turn toward your hand, open his mouth and search for the nipple. This is known as the _______ reflex a. Sucking b. Rooting c. Moro d. Startle 54) The visual cliff experiment showed that babies have _____ a. Excellent vision b. A stepping reflex c. Some depth perception d. The ability to follow verbal cues 55) Vygotsky’s _________ is the difference between what a child can do alone versus what a child can do with the help of a teacher a. Formal operation stage b. Concrete operations stage c. Zone of proximal development d. Theory of scaffolding 56) Seeing a dog for the first time, James whose family owns a cat points and says “cat” Piaget would point and say this is an example of _________. a. Egocentrism b. Assimilation c. Accommodation d. Object permanence 57) A 4 year old watches her father pour liquid from a short,wide glass into a tall, narrow glass. She believes that there is now more liquid in the tall glass than there was in the short glass. The child’s conclusion is most likely due to: a. Biased perception due to egocentrism b. Faculty object permanence c. A logical leap produced by concrete operations d. Not having yet mastered the principle of conversation 58) Early in life, infants will demonstrate their personalities through their ______ a. Temperaments b. Attachment c. Telegraphic speech d. Assimilation 59) During the embryonic period, the embryo ______ a. Becomes vulnerable to diseases the mother may have b. Remains unaffected by environmental influences c. Grows about 5 inches’ long d. Still has no beating heart 60) The most likely time for a miscarriage is in the _______ a. 8 month b. 6 month c. Firth 3 months d. 38 week Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. C 31. C 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. C 38. C 39. C 40.A 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. C 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. D 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. C 56. B 57. C 58.A 59.A 60.C
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