Practice Exam – Cell Reproduction Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) WhWe also discuss several other topics like if other factors are held constant, what is the effect of increasing the sample variance?
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Don't forget about the age old question of part 135 study guide
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ich of the following is not true regarding the mitotic spindle? 1) _______ A) Microtubules of the spindle attach to centromeres of chromosomes. B) It is composed of microtubules of the cytoskeleton. C) It assists in the movement of chromosomes during mitosis. D) It is formed during interphase. E) The spindle is located between the centrioles. 2) Which of the following is true regarding the mitotic phase of the cell cycle? 2) _______ A) During mitosis, DNA is divided into two sets and distributed equally to the daughter cells. B) DNA of the cell is replicated during this phase. C) Most of the growth of the cell occurs during this phase. D) During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides and four daughter cells result. E) The mitotic phase is longer than interphase. 3) Which of the following is not true regarding homologous chromosomes? 3) _______ A) One of each pair of homologous chromosomes is inherited from the mother, the other from the father of an individual. B) Because meiosis involves two successive nuclear divisions, gametes contain four copies of each homologous chromosome. C) Homologous chromosomes have copies of the same genes in the same locations. D) Each human cell, with the exception of eggs and sperm, has 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes. E) Homologous chromosomes look the same structurally. Figure 17.1 4) Which of the following stages of mitosis immediately follows the stage shown in the above diagram? A) prophase B) telophase C) cytokinesis D) anaphase E) metaphase 4) _______ 5) Which of the following is not true regarding differentiation? 5) _______ A) Some genes are turned on early in development and then permanently turned off. B) This process results in cells with different form and function. C) In the early stages of embryonic development, differences in the physical and chemical environments of cells cause the cells to develop in different ways. D) Differentiation is caused by expression of different genes in different cells. E) Due to selective gene expression, adult cells are more vulnerable to genetic damage than fetal cells. 6) During DNA replication, complementary nucleotides are added to the separated strands of the original DNA by enzymes. Which of the following bases would a nucleotide contain if it were paired to a nucleotide containing thymine? A) another thymine B) adenine C) uracil D) guanine E) cytosine 6) _______ 7) How many codons are in the following sequence of nucleotides: AAAUGCUCGUAA? 7) _______ A) 3 B) 12 C) 4 D) 6 E) 1 8) The process by which DNA is used as a template to make more DNA is: 8) _______ A) reproduction. B) metabolism. C) replication. D) transcription. E) translation. 9) Once an RNA molecule has been transcribed from DNA, it enters the cytoplasm of the cell where it is used by the cell to produce a: A) carbohydrate. B) nucleus. C) cell membrane. D) fat. E) protein. 9) _______ 10) During which of the following phases of the cell cycle is the cell at its smallest size? 10) ______ A) prophase B) G2 phase C) G1 of interphase D) telophase E) metaphase 11) Which of the following is not true regarding translation? 11) ______ A) The ribosome has binding sites for both tRNA and mRNA. B) There is no anticodon that corresponds to the "stop" codon. C) Translation occurs in the nucleus. D) Once the smaller ribosomal subunit has located the "start" codon, the larger ribosomal subunit will attach to the smaller ribosomal subunit to form an intact ribosome. E) tRNA molecules transport amino acids to the ribosome. 12) Which of the following is not true regarding mutations? 12) ______ A) can be corrected by DNA repair enzymes B) can result in changes in DNA structure C) may result from mistakes made during DNA replication D) are always corrected before transcription occurs E) can result in cancer 13) A codon is: 13) ______ A) the part of the ribosome to which mRNA attaches. B) a type of DNA repair enzyme. C) a promoter that prevents the attachment of RNA polymerase. D) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid. E) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on tRNA that corresponds to an amino acid. 14) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding meiosis in males and females? 14) ______ A) The secondary oocyte produced during meiosis in females is arrested in metaphase II unless fertilization occurs. B) The division of the cytoplasm during meiosis in females is unequal. C) In females, meiosis results in the production of one egg and three polar bodies. D) Each meiotic division in males results in four genetically identical cells that will develop into sperm. E) all of the above 15) Which of the following is not true regarding the primary transcript produced during transcription? A) Production of the primary transcript is catalyzed by RNA polymerase. B) It is produced in the nucleus. C) Enzymes remove introns from this molecule. D) After transcription, the primary transcript is modified and becomes mRNA. E) It is transported intact to the cell membrane where it is used for protein synthesis. 15) ______ 16) Which of the following is not true regarding DNA replication? 16) ______ A) Replication of DNA begins with the uncoiling of the molecule. B) New nucleotides are positioned in the proper order by DNA polymerase. C) Replication of DNA occurs immediately after cytokinesis as the cell prepares to form new daughter cells. D) Each strand of the original DNA acts as a template for the production of a new strand of DNA. E) The two original strands of DNA must be separated before the synthesis of new strands can begin. 17) Which of the following is not true regarding the repair of DNA? 17) ______ A) DNA repair involves cutting out and replacing damaged sections. B) Mutations of genes that code for repair enzymes often lead to cancer. C) Repair of DNA is a fairly efficient process. D) DNA repair is most likely to occur immediately after replication. E) One enzyme is typically used in the repair process. 18) RNA polymerase is associated with which of the following processes? 18) ______ A) DNA replication B) transcription C) building of a ribosome D) identification of an anticodon E) translation 19) Therapeutic cloning differs from reproductive cloning in that therapeutic cloning: 19) ______ A) involves the use of embryos. B) results in an individual genetically identical to the DNA donor. C) none of the above D) is not a controversial topic. E) results in the production of human stem cells to treat human diseases. 20) Which of the following is not true regarding G0? 20) ______ A) Cells in G0 do not undergo cell division. B) G0 stops cells from undergoing unnecessary cell divisions. C) After adolescence, neurons remain in G0. D) The cell's chromosomes are duplicated. E) Cells in G0 do not grow. 21) The cell cycle of eukaryotic cells includes two phases. They are: 21) ______ A) interphase and mitosis. B) S phase and G phase. C) prophase and telophase. D) interphase and cytokinesis. E) prophase and cytokinesis. 22) During which of the following stages of the cell cycle do the chromosomes appear in the form of chromatin? A) anaphase B) interphase C) all stages of mitosis D) early part of telophase E) metaphase 23) The processes of initiation, elongation, and termination that occur in the production of a protein are all associated with: A) DNA replication. B) formation of an intact ribosome. C) correction of a mutation. D) processing of a fat in the endoplasmic reticulum. E) translation. 22) ______ 23) ______ 24) Mitosis differs from meiosis in that only mitosis: 24) ______ A) involves two successive cell divisions. B) results in cells that are genetically identical to the original cell. C) involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I. D) results in the production of haploid cells. E) is preceded by interphase. 25) Chromosomes begin to shorten and condense during which of the following stages of the cell cycle? A) G1 B) S C) anaphase D) metaphase E) G2 25) ______ 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) E 6) B 7) C 8) C 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) E 16) C 17) E 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) E 24) B 25) ETRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) It is now possible to clone entire organisms by the process of somatic cell nuclear transfer or embryo splitting. 2) The purpose of cell reproduction in humans is to allow for growth as well as the replacement of dead or damaged cells throughout the life of the individual. 1) _______ 2) _______ 3) Human cells, with the exception of the gametes, each contain forty-six chromosomes. 3) _______ 4) Just before mitosis, chromosomes become diffuse in the cytoplasm as they take the form of chromatin; chromatin is more easily moved in the cell during mitosis. 5) In order to increase the speed of replication, the DNA molecule is opened at several locations creating multiple replication bubbles where complementary strands are formed. 6) Mutations in DNA can be caused by mistakes made during DNA replication as well as chemical and physical forces. 4) _______ 5) _______ 6) _______ 7) Gene expression first involves the process of translation followed by the process of transcription. 7) _______ 8) During transcription, the entire molecule of DNA is unwound; then, a segment of it is transcribed into a molecule of RNA. 9) Although a specific codon specifies only one amino acid, several different codons can specify the same amino acid. 10) The result of mitosis is the production of two daughter cells that are genetically identical to each other and to the parent cell. 8) _______ 9) _______ 10) ______ 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUECell Reproduction Name _______________________________________ Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. When a cell undergoes mitosis, a. the daughter cells have identical genes. b. the daughter cell has genes identical to those of the mother cell that produced it. c. the amount of cytoplasm in the mother cell and in each daughter cell is equal. d. there is an exact duplication and division of all of the organelles between daughter cells. e. the daughter cells have identical genes and these genes are identical to those of the mother cells that produced them. ____ 2. When a eukaryotic cell divides, the daughter cells a. manufacture all the organelles from material in the cytoplasm. b. receive enough of the organelles to start up the new cells and produce additional organelles as needed. c. produce individual organelles that attach to the spindle fibers and are distributed just like chromosomes. d. produce an equal number of organelles distributed to each cell. e. get cellular organelles by an unknown process. ____ 3. In mitosis, if a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes? a. 64 b. 32 c. 16 d. 8 e. 4 ____ 4. Chromatids that are attached at the centromere are called what kind of chromatids? a. mother b. daughter c. sister d. programmed e. either mother or daughter. ____ 5. Cells with a double set of genetic information are described by the term a. polyploid. b. diploid. c. triploid. d. haploid. e. tetraploid. ____ 6. Which of these statements concerning the centromere is NOT true? a. It appears to join duplicated DNAs. b. It anchors proteins to DNA. c. It varies from one type of chromosome to the next. d. It is the attachment site for microtubules. e. It is temporary. ____ 7. Which statement is true of homologous chromosomes? a. They are of unequal length. b. Each gamete receives one member of each pair. c. There are 46 pairs in humans. d. They are identical in every way. e. They include all chromosomes except X and Y.____ 8. Which of the following is NOT a somatic cell? a. liver b. skin c. bone d. blood e. sperm ____ 9. DNA replication occurs a. between the gap phases of interphase. b. immediately before prophase of mitosis. c. during prophase of mitosis. d. during prophase of meiosis. e. at any time during cell division. ____ 10. Chromosomes are duplicated during which period? a. M b. D c. G1 d. G2 e. S ____ 11. The number of DNA molecules present in a duplicated chromosome is a. 1. b. undetermined. c. half that of an unduplicated chromosome. d. 2. e. 4. ____ 12. The spindle apparatus is made of a. Golgi bodies. b. microtubules. c. endoplasmic reticulum. d. nucleoprotein. e. chromatids. ____ 13. The chromosomes and genes are actually replicated during a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. prophase. e. telophase. ____ 14. Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis? a. metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase b. metaphase, telophase, prophase, anaphase c. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase d. anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase e. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase ____ 15. Mitosis comes from the Greek word mitos, which means a. divide. b. grow. c. swell. d. thread. e. shrink. ____ 16. In eukaryotic cells, which can occur during mitosis? a. the duplication of chromatids b. the replication of DNA c. pairing of homologous chromosomes d. fragmentation and disappearance of nuclear envelope and nucleolus e. all of these____ 17. The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. prophase. e. telophase. ____ 18. The spindle apparatus becomes visible during a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. prophase. e. telophase. ____ 19. The chromosomes detach from one another and become visibly separated during a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. prophase. e. telophase. ____ 20. The chromosomes are moving to opposite poles during a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. prophase. e. telophase. ____ 21. The chromosomes have arrived at opposite poles during a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. prophase. e. telophase. ____ 22. The nuclear membrane reforms during a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. interphase. d. prophase. e. telophase. ____ 23. Strictly speaking, mitosis and meiosis are divisions of the a. nucleus. b. cytoplasm. c. chromosomes. d. nucleus and chromosomes. e. nucleus, chromosomes, and cytoplasm. ____ 24. In which of the stages below does the chromosome consist of two DNA molecules? a. prophase and anaphase b. metaphase, prophase, and anaphase c. metaphase and prophase d. metaphase, telophase, and prophase e. metaphase, telophase, prophase, and anaphase____ 25. The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished during a. prokaryotic fission. b. mitosis. c. meiosis. d. cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division). e. karyokinesis. ____ 26. During the "gap" phases of the cell cycle, most of the activity is directed toward a. DNA replication. b. nuclear membrane synthesis. c. resting for the next step. d. sorting the chromosomes. e. synthesizing cytoplasmic organelles. ____ 27. Cell organelles are synthesized during a. the G1 stage. b. the G2 stage. c. the M stage. d. the S stage. e. all stages. ____ 28. The proteins that bind tightly to DNA and form "spools" are called a. centrioles. b. centromeres. c. histones. d. motor proteins. e. topoisomerases. ____ 29. The docking sites on the centromeres are called a. kinetochores. b. centrioles. c. histones. d. spindles. e. cleavage furrows. ____ 30. Which of the following is NOT associated with meiosis? a. reduction of number of chromosomes b. somatic cells c. sexual reproduction d. sperm and egg e. germ cells ____ 31. The essence of meiosis is that a. gametes are formed that receive one copy of each member of each pair of homologous chromosomes. b. gametes are formed that are diploid. c. each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes. d. gametes are formed that are haploid. e. each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes and gametes are formed that are haploid. ____ 32. Through meiosis a. alternate forms of genes are shuffled. b. parental DNA is divided and distributed to forming gametes. c. the diploid chromosome number is reduced to haploid. d. offspring are provided with new gene combinations. e. all of these are true.____ 33. Gamete formation is a. the result of the process of mitosis. b. the pairing of homologous chromosomes. c. the formation of sex cells. d. the fusion of gametes. e. a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms. ____ 34. Sperm are formed directly from the maturation of a. sperm mother cells. b. spermatids. c. spermatogonial cells. d. primary spermatocytes. e. secondary spermatocytes. ____ 35. The mature ovum is produced by maturation of the a. oogonium. b. primary oocyte. c. secondary polar body. d. polar body I. e. none of these ____ 36. Gametogenesis is a. always the result of the process of meiosis. b. the pairing of homologous chromosomes. c. the formation of sex cells. d. the fusion of gametes. e. a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms. ____ 37. Which of the following cells is NOT haploid? a. secondary spermatocyte b. sperm c. primary oocyte d. spermatids e. polar bodies ____ 38. Which of the following will NOT develop into a gamete? a. spermatogonium b. polar bodies c. oocyte d. spermatid e. secondary spermatocyte ____ 39. Polar bodies a. are dumping places for excess genetic material. b. have no known biological function. c. are produced by meiosis. d. will serve as the gametes if something happens to the egg. e. all but "will serve as the gametes if something happens to the egg" are correct. ____ 40. Sexual reproduction a. leads to uniform characteristics in a population. b. results in new combinations of genetic traits. c. produces genetic clones. d. requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction. e. produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction. ____ 41. The number of chromosomes found in a eukaryotic cell a. indicates the phylogenetic position of the organism. b. is constant during the life cycle. c. is haploid among asexually reproducing forms and diploid if they reproduce sexually. d. is doubled by fertilization and cut in half by meiosis. e. is dependent on the age of the tissue.____ 42. If meiosis did not occur in sexually reproducing organisms, a. growth of the zygote would be halted. b. mitosis would be sufficient. c. gametes would be haploid. d. the chromosome number would double in each generation. e. eggs would be haploid, but sperm would be diploid. ____ 43. If a parent cell has 16 chromosomes and undergoes meiosis, the resulting cells will have how many chromosomes? a. 64 b. 32 c. 16 d. 8 e. 4 ____ 44. Chromatids are a. attached at the centriole. b. a pair of chromosomes, one from the mother and one from the father. c. attached at their centromeres. d. identical until crossing over occurs. e. both attached at their centromeres and identical until crossing over occurs. ____ 45. Homologous chromosomes a. may exchange parts during meiosis. b. have alleles for the same characteristics even though the gene expression may not be the same. c. are in pairs, one chromosome of each pair from the father and one from the mother. d. pair up during meiosis. e. all of these ____ 46. Copies of chromosomes linked together at their centromeres at the beginning of meiosis are appropriately called what kind of chromatids? a. mother b. daughter c. sister d. homologous e. none of these ____ 47. Chromosomes of a pair of homologous chromosomes may differ from other chromosomes in terms of a. size. b. shape. c. alleles they carry. d. position of the centromere. e. all of these ____ 48. Crossing over a. generally results in binary fission. b. involves nucleoli. c. involves breakages and exchanges being made between sister chromatids. d. alters the composition of chromosomes and results in new combinations of alleles being channeled into the daughter cells. e. all of these ____ 49. Synapsis and crossing over occur during a. anaphase I. b. metaphase II. c. prophase I. d. prophase II. e. telophase II.____ 50. Chiasmata provide evidence of a. meiosis. b. crossing over. c. chromosomal aberration. d. fertilization. e. spindle fiber formation. ____ 51. Crossing over a. increases variability in gametes. b. results in only one exchange per homologue. c. occurs between sister chromatids. d. prevents genetic recombination. e. is followed immediately by separation of each of the chromatids. ____ 52. Pairing of homologues and crossing over occur during a. anaphase I. b. metaphase II. c. prophase I. d. prophase II. e. telophase II. ____ 53. Different, or alternative, forms of the same gene are called a. genetomorphs. b. alleles. c. mutants. d. chromatids. e. homologous. ____ 54. Sister chromatids are separated from each other during a. metaphase I. b. anaphase I. c. telophase II. d. anaphase II. e. metaphase II. ____ 55. At the beginning of prophase I, there are __________ molecules of DNA in a potential human sperm cell. a. 92 b. 23 c. 46 d. half as many (as compared to somatic cells) e. twice as many (as compared to mature sperm) ____ 56. Which of the following events does NOT occur in prophase II, but does occur in prophase I? a. crossing over b. synapsis c. spindle formation d. crossing over and synapsis, only. e. crossing over, synapsis, and spindle formation.. ____ 57. Major gene reshuffling takes place during a. prophase I. b. metaphase I. c. anaphase I. d. metaphase II. e. anaphase II. ____ 58. Meiosis typically results in the production of a. 2 diploid cells. b. 4 diploid cells. c. 4 haploid cells. d. 2 haploid cells. e. 1 triploid cell.____ 59. Under favorable conditions, during which phase of meiosis will the chromosomes appear as packets of four chromatids? a. anaphase I b. telophase II c. anaphase II d. prophase I e. metaphase II ____ 60. Anaphase a. involves the lining up of the chromosomes across the equatorial plate. b. is the same in mitosis and meiosis I and II. c. is initiated when the newly divided centromeres begin to move apart. d. results in an unequal distribution of chromosomes to the resulting cells. ____ 61. Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the spindle equator during a. metaphase I. b. telophase I. c. prophase II. d. metaphase II. e. anaphase II. ____ 62. The period that may occur between meiosis I and meiosis II is called a. cytokinesis. b. interkinesis. c. synapsis. d. reduction division. e. karyokinesis. ____ 63. During meiosis II a. cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells. b. sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other. c. homologous chromosomes pair up. d. homologous chromosomes separate. e. sister chromatids exchange parts. ____ 64. Which does NOT occur in prophase I of meiosis? a. cytokinesis b. formation of groups of four chromatids c. homologue pairing d. crossing over e. condensation of chromatin ____ 65. Which is NOT true of human chromosomes? a. The haploid number is 23. b. The diploid number is 46. c. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes. d. Human gametes end up with two of each type of 23 chromosomes. e. Human gametes end up one of each type of 23 chromosomes. ____ 66. Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because a. it produces new arrays of alleles on chromosomes. b. homologous chromosomes must be separated into different daughter cells. c. the number of chromosomes allotted to each daughter cell must be halved. d. homologous chromatids must be separated into different daughter cells. e. all of these ____ 67. Which does NOT produce variation? a. crossing over b. random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis c. mitosis d. genetic recombination of alleles e. sexual reproduction____ 68. Maternal and paternal chromosomes are shuffled most during a. anaphase II. b. metaphase I. c. prophase I. d. telophase II. e. interphase. ____ 69. In comparing mitosis and meiosis, which of the following statements is true? a. Meiosis I is more like mitosis than is meiosis II. b. Both processes result in four cells. c. Synapsis occurs in both. d. Chromatids are present only in mitosis. e. Meiosis II resembles mitosis.Chapter19 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. E 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. E 9. A 10. E 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. A 21. E 22. E 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. E 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. E 32. E 33. C 34. B 35. E 36. C 37. C 38. B 39. E 40. B 41. D 42. D 43. D 44. E 45. E46. C 47. E 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. D 57. A 58. C 59. D 60. C 61. A 62. B 63. B 64. A 65. D 66. A 67. C 68. B 69. EChapter 11. How Cells Reproduce. Multiple-choice questions from Biology: Concepts and Applications. 1. Of what use are Henrietta Lacks' cells to researchers? A. Study protein synthesis. B. Study cancer. C. Study viral growth. D. Study effects of radiation on cells. E. All of these choices. 2. _____________________ is the longest portion of the cell cycle. A. Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. Telophase 3. When cells are conducting their normal metabolic activity, they are in _____________________. A. anaphase B. S portion of interphase C. prophase D. metaphase E. G1 of interphase 4. What phase of the cell cycle do nerve cells (almost all nerve cells) stay in? A. G2 of interphase B. S of interphase C. Metaphase D. G1 of interphase E. Telophase 5. During which phase of the cell cycle will the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell? A. G1 of Interphase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. Metaphase E. Prophase 6. As the chromosomes begin to condense in the nucleus of the cell, _________________ will stop. A. translation and DNA replication B. transcription and DNA replication C. cell division and translation D. RNA replication and cell division E. transcription and translation 7. Which phase begins when the clusters of chromosomes reach the spindle poles? A. Prophase B. Telophase C. Interphase D. Anaphase E. Metaphase 8. What structure will attach the chromosomes to the centrosome? A. Centrioles B. Cell membrane C. Nuclear membrane D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. Spindle apparatus9. The process of cytoplasmic division is called ___________________. A. translation B. cytokinesis C. interkinesis D. transcription E. mitosis 10. The indentation that will form in an animal cell during cytokinesis is called a(n) ________. A. indentation marker B. cell plate C. cleavage furrow D. cell divider E. cell wall 11. How many cells result from the process of cytokinesis? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 E. 5 12. The ring that will split an animal cell in half during cytokinesis is composed of ______________. A. fatty acids and actin B. myosin and adenine C. actin and lipids D. actin and myosin E. tryponin and myosin 13. When checkpoints in mitosis malfunction, the defects are passed on to the cell's descendants. These cells form a ______________. A. neoplasm B. contractile ring C. daughter cell D. colony E. replicate cell 14. When a neoplasm grows, it forms a ___________________. A. contractile ring B. tumor C. cleavage furrow D. cell plate E. cell 15. Which disease occurs when a neoplasm disrupts body tissues? A. Polio B. AIDS C. Cardiovascular disease D. Cancer E. Diabetes 16. How much genetic information will an individual inherit from their mother? A. 50% B. 25% C. 37% D. 100% E. 78%17. The ___________ cells in a multi-celled organism will contain pairs of chromosomes which are not used for sexual reproduction. A. germ B. sex C. reproductive D. somatic E. none of these choices. 18. What are alleles? A. Different forms of different genes. B. Various combinations of genes within an individual. C. Different genes with the same form. D. Different genes with different forms. E. Different forms of the same gene. 19. Which event occurs in meiosis II? A. Two new nuclei are formed. B. Sister chromatids of each chromosome are pulled apart. C. Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart. D. Proteins are formed. E. Cell duplicates its DNA. 20. What is the end result of meiosis? A. Two exact daughter cells B. 2 haploid nuclei C. 4 haploid nuclei D. 4 diploid nuclei E. 2 diploid nuclei 21. What is the first stage of meiosis I? A. Metaphase I B. Prophase I C. Prophase D. Interphase E. Prophase II 22. During which phase of meiosis will homologous chromosomes be pulled apart? A. Metaphase I B. Prophase II C. Anaphase I D. Telophase I E. Anaphase II 23. When will the sister chromatids be pulled apart? A. Anaphase I B. Anaphase II C. Metaphase I D. Telophase I E. Prophase II 24. Which of the following correctly represents the genetic makeup of cells at the end of meiosis I? A. Haploid (2N) B. Diploid (1N) C. Diploid (2N) D. Haploid (1N) E. None of these choices.25. During which stage of meiosis will the chromosomes condense? A. Metaphase II B. Telophase I C. Anaphase I D. Metaphase I E. Prophase I 26. How many crossovers will occur during meiosis in a human cell? A. 200 - 250 B. 160 - 195 C. 128 - 146 D. 46 - 95 E. 22 - 39 27. In the absence of crossing over, how many different chromosomal combinations can occur as a result of meiosis? A. 3,450,000 B. 8,388,608 C. 6,600,980 D. 2,000,000 E. 5,450,750 28. What structures will attach your chromosomes to spindle fibers? A. Contractile ring B. Centrioles C. Kinetochores D. Cleavage furrows E. Actin filaments 29. The primary oocyte will mature into a(n) ____________. A. sporophyte B. spermatocyte C. gametophyte D. egg and three polar bodies E. spermatid 30. What is the end result of mitosis? A. Offspring that are more adaptable than the parents. B. Better adaptability to new environments. C. New genetic combinations. D. Offspring that are genetically identical to their parents. E. Fewer offspring produced each generation. 31. What is the main function of the BRCA genes? Mutations in BRCA genes cause 10% of all breast cancers in women. A. Checkpoint proteins during mitosis and meiosis. B. Maintain the integrity of the cell's chromosomes. C. Monitors the DNA strand. D. Repair breaks in DNA strands. E. All of these choices. 32. Which term best describes a zygote? A. Haploid cell of single parentage. B. Haploid cell of mixed parentage. C. Diploid cell of single parentage. D. None of these choices. E. Diploid cell of mixed parentage.Answers 1. E 2. A 3. E 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. E 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. E 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D [good test question] 25. E 26. D [At least two cross-over events per chromosomal pair, 2 x 23 pairs = a minimum of 46 cross overs] 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. E