What is the role of mRNA in translation?

What are the differences between bacterial chromosome and a plasmid?

What are genes with different information at the same locus?

Microbiology Exam 2 Study Guide 1. Best describe a typical prokaryote chromosome? Circular and composed of DNA 2. What are genes with different information at the same locus? Alleles 3. What are the differences between bacterial chromosome and a plasmid? The  chromosome contains genes that aIf you want to learn more check out iu psy
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re essential for survival, whereas the plasmid  contains genes that are helpful to the bacterium but not essential for survival 4. Process in which DNA makes RNA as the first step in protein synthesis? Transcription 5. What is the role of mRNA in translation? Serves as the template for the synthesis of the new polymer 6. What direction does DNA polymerase synthesize new DNA? 5’  3’ 7. What are Okazaki fragments? Fragments produced by discontinuous DNA synthesis 8. Feedback inhibition is caused by an inhibitor that acts at the _________ site on the  enzyme? Allosteric 9. The lac operon is regulated not only by enzyme induction but also by a process known  as catabolite repression. Because of catabolite repression, what happens when glucose  and lactose are both present in the environment? Lac operon is repressed 10. Why are operons/function genes regulated in a cell? Cell conserves energy by not  making enzymes it doesn’t need to function 11. What are some ways that can cause mutation in a DNA sequence? UV light, base  analogs, acridine dyes 12. A linear sequence of DNA nucleotides which provides the genetic information for a  single characteristic is a _____. Gene 13. A plasmid is a/an? Extra chromosomal piece of DNA 14. The process of ________ results in the synthesis of a new protein. Translation 15. Reverse transcription takes place: 16. Which of the following statements is true? 17. An anticodon would be found in/on ? tRNA 18. What are inducible enzymes? Synthesized by genes that are sometimes active and  sometimes inactive 19. When an E. coli cell contains high levels of lactose, the lactose will bind with the?  Repressor 20. Catabolite repression? Cells save energy by not making unneeded enzymes and  21. The Ames test is used to determine if a chemical? Induces mutations in a cell’s DNA 22. True/False: In certain microbial agents information in the cell can flow both from DNA to RNA and from RNA to DNA 23. The combining of genes from two different sources is known as? Recombination24. When bacteria pass genes to other microbes of the same generation? Lateral gene  transfer 25. What are the three methods of lateral gene transfer? Conjugation, transformation and  transduction 26. Recombination occurs during the process of transformation only when 27. Which type of phage would be best for recombination via the process of transduction?  Temperate 28. Which of the following cells is capable of making a sex pilus or conjugation pilus? F+ 29. When an F plasmid is incorporated into the chromosome of an F­ cell, the cell becomes  a/an: 30. Which of the following describes a plasmid? 31. A bacterium that is transformed: 32. Competence refers to a bacterium’s ability to? Take up DNA fragments 33. A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organisms is existing as  a? Prophage  34. In specialized transduction the bacterial gene transduced tend to be? Those genes that  are located close to the site of the prophage insertion 35. In a culture containing both F­ and F+ cells, which of the following will occur if you  wait long enough? All F­ will become F+ 36. What is a transposon? A genetic sequence able to move from one location in a  chromosome to another 37. Removing the cell walls from two different strains of organisms and then allowing the  membrane bound cell to combine with one another best describes? Protoplast fusion 38. A transgenic organism is a? K 39. Without restriction endonucleases, it would be impossible to? Cut the DNA of plasmids 40. When a bacteriophage moves random pieces of DNA from one host to another it’s  called? Generalized transduction 41. Who is the father of taxonomy? Linnaeus 42. Binomial nomenclature indentifies each living organism based upon? Genus and  species 43. A subgroup of a species with one or more characteristics that distinguish it from other  subgroups of the same species is known as? Strain 44. Unicellular prokaryotes having a cell wall made of materials other than peptidoglycan  are categorized under which domain? Archaea 45. Which of the following is a method for determining genetic homology? K 46. DNA encoding which cell component would be most highly conserved throughout an  organism’s evolution?47. In the name Escherichia coli, Escherichia refers to the what of the bacteria? Genus 48. Correct order of the taxonomic hierarchies? Phylum, class, order, family  49. The two historic kingdom systems of classification divided all organisms into? Plants  and animals 50. A prokaryotic cell would have been assigned to which of the taxonomic Kingdoms? K 51. Genetic homology determines evolutionary relationships among organisms based on? The similarity of DNA between species  52. If an organism contains 13% adenine in its DNA, its GC content is? 74% 53. A useful technique for comparing differential bacterial species based on if they are  susceptible to infection by the same virus is called? Phage typing  54. Correct way to write the name of an organism using binomial nomenclature? Genus  species 55. Organisms in all three domains show evidence of lateral gene transfer? T/F 56. Most complete and accurate general definition of a virus? A virus is an obligate  intracellular parasite that consists of a nucleic acid core, protein capsid, and possibly an envelope  57.  Why is it beneficial for a virus to have an envelope? 58. Why must RNA viruses carry with them the enzymes required to copy viral RNA  molecules? 59. Some viruses have a lipid bilayer, also known as the viral envelope. The viral envelope  is most likely come from what source? Host cell plasma membrane 60. DNA viruses are grouped into families based on the following characteristics  EXCEPT? Presence of a capsid 61. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is cased by a retrovirus, which best  represents genetic information flow used by retroviruses? RNA  DNA  mRNA  protein 62. Correct order of steps in a typical viruse replication cycle? Adsorption  Penetration  Synthesis  Maturation  Release 63. Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ______, while the  combination of a bacteria and its temperate phage is called? Prophage and lysogen 64. An uncontrolled, invasive growth of abnormal cells is referred to as? Cancer  65. The process of binary fission begins with one parent cell and results in? Two daughter  cells  66. Why do bacterial cells not undergo mitosis and meiosis? Most bacteria have only one  circular chromosome that is attached to the cell membrane, replication of DNA in a  prokaryote does not occur in one phase, but continuously and prokaryote cells do not possess the machinery to produce spindle fibers and therefore cannot move around in  the cell 67. Bacteria undergo four different phases of growth, list them in order? Lag, log,  strationary, death 68. Which can influence the length of the lag phase of growth? Conditions of the new  media that bacteria is transferred to, conditions of the old media that bacteria is  transferred from, characteristics of the individual organism 69. A culture of E.coli contains 1000 cells/ ml with a generation of 30 minutes. How many  organisms is produced in one hour? 16,000 cells/ml 70. Why is it impossible for a culture of bacteria, in a single tube, to remain in the log  phase of the growth cycle forever? Nutrients in the media are depleted, metabolic  wastes accumulate, space is limited 71. Which of the following techniques rely on the concept that under proper conditions,  only living bacteria will divide and form a visible colony on agar? K 72. E.coli is a bacteria that can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen, which would  classify as an? Facultative anaerobe 73. This is a process in which endospores begin to develop into vegetative cells, once  favorable conditions are returned? Germination 74. What are the main differences between defined synthetic media and complex media? Defined synthetic media is one that contains known specific kinds and amounts of  chemical substacnes while complex is one that varies  75. A media that has a constituent that causes an observable change in the medium when a  particular biochemical reaction takes place is known as? Differential media  76. The type of cell reproduction in which a small, new cell develops from the surface of an existing cell and then separates from the parent cell is known as ______ and is the  normal mode of replication in _______? Budding, Yeast 77. In the stationary phase of bacterial growth? Number of newly generated cells is the  same as the number of dying cells 78. A bacterial culture can be kept in the log phase of growth indefinitely with the help of  a/an? Chemostat 79. Which counting technique does not differentiate between live and dead bacterial cells  in a culture? Direct microscopic count 80. What type of counting techniques relies on a statistical estimate to determine the  number of bacteria in a culture? Most probable number  81. Turbidity in a bacterial culture can be measured using a/an? Spectrophotometer82. Acidophiles would be expected to grow best at a pH of ? 3  83. An obligate psychrophile would produce a turbid culture at ____ Celsius ? 15 84. Most human pathogens are ? Mesophiles 85. The toxic effects of the byproducts of oxygen metabolism are reduced by what?  Catalase, lactase  86. When cells are placed in a hypertonic environment they will under go? Plasmolysis 87. Organisms with special nutritional needs are said to be? Fastidious 88. Name a trace element? Zinc 89. Main purpose of endospores? Protective structures Important Transcription Translation  What type of reproduction does bacteria use? Budding (specifically in  yeast cells) What are the four steps of growth phase? Lag, Log, Stationary, Death What can affect the length of growth phases? Temperature, nutrients  What growth phase is longer? Lag What are the factors affecting growth? pH, temperature, oxygen,  moisture, hydrostatic pressure, osmotic pressure, radiation What are the three types of philes? Acidophile, Neutrophile, Akalihpile Method that takes an instrument and dips into culture and put streaks  onto a solid petri dish? Streak plate Method that mixes up melted agar and reduce O2 will help growth?  Pour plate What is aseptic technique? Practice of transferring microorganisms  from one medium to another without unintendedly contaminating them with other organisms  What are some type of ways of aseptic technique? Fire, air current,  keeping lids on, etc What are examples of complex media? Beef or year extract, blood, etc What are examples of trace elements? Copper, zinc, iron, sodium,  chlorine What are the main purpose of vitamins? Coenzymes  What is stock culture? Fresh medium to keep viable organisms  What type of cells are usually endospores? Gram positive cellsAre biofilms dangerous? Can do damage, can act in unison or in  response to environmental conditions What is the study of heredity? Genetics What is heredity? Parent cells give rise to daughter cells  Contains information critical to the continued survival of the organism  and reproduction? Chromosomes What shape are eukaryotic? Prokaryotic? Linear, circular  Prokaryote cells are composed of? DNA What are the four base pairs? Thymine, guanine, adenine, cytosine What is the purpose of translation? Making of a protein from RNA What is reverse transcription? Using RNA to make DNA What is a helicase? Enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds What direction does DNA polymerase go? 3’ to 5’ directions moves What direction does DNA polymerase construct? 5’ to 3’  Where does transcription take place in prokaryotes? Eukaryotes?  Cytoplasm, Nucleus  What does transcription do? DNA to RNA What base is different in RNA? Uracil instead of Thymine What is the purpose of RNA primers? Fit to the lagging strand and allow synthesis to begin What is the purpose of ligase? Enzyme that sticks the ends together What type of strands reads naturally with the DNA polymerase?  Leading strand What direction does RNA polymerase move? 3’ to 5’ What are coding regions? Non coding regions? Exons, Introns How much energy does protein synthesis take up from a cell? 80-90% What are the types of RNA? Rrna, Mrna, tRNA What is the settling coefficients in Rrna in prokaryotes? Eukaryotes?  30S/50S and 40S/60S What are nonsense codons? Do not code for amino acids, terminator,  codes for stop usually  Start codons always code for methayline? True What do tRNA do? Transfer amino acids from a cytoplasm to a polymer  to form a peptide bond What are the three things cells are limited to? Space, nutrients and  energy What is the purpose of feedback (end-product) inhibition? Make  products and goes and inhibits another enzyme, binds to the allosteric  siteWhat is the most common way in amino acid synthesis? Feedback  inhibition What is the main point of enzyme repression? Glucose is preferred to  lactose Set of closely associated genes that regulate enzyme production in  prokaryotic? Operon Single strand of DNA has two nucleotides that switch spots? Inversion What is point type mutation? Substitute one nucleotide for another  What is frameshift mutation? Insert new nucleotide, shift the frame  down or delete nucleotides shift the frame back What is dimerization mutation? Fuse two nucleotides together (both  have to be pyridines)  What is transposition mutation? Pull out six nucleotides and reattach it  somewhere else  What type of mutation is seen in leptospira? Transposition  How is leptospirosis transmitted? Contact with contaminated urine  (rats), water, soil run off What are the wild types that are undomesticated? Prototrophs What are the main differences between endonuclease and  exonuclease? Endonuclease is an enzyme comes in and breaks bonds to  nucleotides and exonuclease cuts segments and move it Two types of restriction enzymes? Endonuclease and exonuclease What type of repair occurs with visible light? Light repair Order of dark repair? Endonuclease  polymerase  exonuclease  ligase What type of test is used to identify mutagens? Ames Test What are the differences between the two types of gene transfer?  Vertical is gene transfer from parent to offspring and lateral/horizontal is  passing genetic material to another cell What is the mixing of DNA? Recombination What are the three types of lateral gene transfer? Transformation,  Transduction deduction, conjugation sensation Who first observed transformation? Frederick GriffithWhat is the change in an organisms characteristics due to transfer of  genetic information? Transformation  How did Fred Griffith observe transformation? Observed non-virulent  bacteria that suddenly turned virulent  Organisms can take up DNA from other species via transformation?  False What is the purpose of competence factor? Protein that facilitates the  uptake of DNA What type of factors influence the competence factor? Heat, electrical  charge How does transduction deduction work? Transfer of genetic material  between species via viruses (moving DNA between species via  bacteriophage Virulent phage is? Lytic cycle Temperate phage is? Lysogenic phase What is the transfer in transduction deduction called? Prophage What is conjugation sensation? A direct contact method of transferring  DNA from one bacterium to another Does transformation, transduction or conjugation transfer the most  DNA? Conjugation  Who discovered conjugation sensation? Joshua Lederberg in 1946 Textbook Questions: What is the definition of microbial growth? Increase in the number of cells What type of cell division do bacteria undergo? Binary fission (budding) What does the lag, log, stationary and decline/death stage make up?  Standard bacterial growth curve Are cells metabolically active in the lag phase? Yes Which stage do organisms divide at the most rapid rate? Log The time it takes for the population of organisms to double? Generation time What is the most common generation time for bacteria? 20 minutes and 20  hours (typically less than one hour) In what way can logarithmic growth be maintained? Chemostat What do most cells undergo in the death stage that make it hard to identify  them? Involution (change their shape) What pH do Acidophiles, neutrophils and alkophiles grow best at? Acidophiles = 0.1-5.4, Neutrophiles = 5.4-8.0, Alkaliphiles = 7.0-11.5 What is used in growth media to maintain the proper pH? Buffers Three types of growth temperature range bacteria can be classified as?  Psychrophiles, Mesophiles and thermophiles What is the difference between obligate and facultative organisms? Obligate  means they must have specified environment conditions and facultative  means they are able to adjust to their environment  What type of environment do psychrohpiles do best in? Cold, temp 15-20 C  (can go up to 0 C) What type of environment do mesophiles do best in? Body temperature,  temp around 25-40 C What type of environment do thermophiles do best in? Hot, temp from 50 to  60 C How long to barophiles survive in standard atmosphetic pressure? Not too  long, they need high pressures (pressure is necessary to keep enzyme  molecules in proper configuration) What do you call an organism with specific nutrient needs? Fastidious The most fastidious organism known? Spiroplasma What function do trace elements usually possess? Cofactors in enzymatic  reactions What is the best way to treat biofilm infections? Bacteriophage therapy  What is the process in which a spore returns to its vegetative state?  Germination What are some examples of complex medium? Blood, yeast, beef, soybeans What is a common ingredient in complex medium? PeptoneWhat is selective medium? Encourages the growth of some organisms but  suppresses the growth of others If you are trying to distinguish between two types of organisms on the same  plate what type of medium would you use? Differential (usually has  observable change – color, pH) What constituents DNA? Double helix strand, each nucleotide made up of a  sugar, phosphate and base group (adenine, thymine, guanine, or cytosine) What type of bond holds together base pairs? Hydrogen bonds The fundamental units of heredity are known as? Genes Multiple versions of them are known as? Alleles The information in a specific gene is found where? Locus Are mutations permanent or reversible? Permanent What is the term for when gene passes from parent to offspring? Vertical  gene transfer WILL BE ON EXAM: Which of the following is the best description of genetic fusion? A) Digestion of cell walls with enzymes followed by the joining of the resulting protoplasts B) Combining genetic material from two or more species in a single organism C) The joining of a cancer cell with a white blood cell D) Transposition of genetic information by deleting information between genes or operons E) None of these  The process of ______ results in the synthesis of a new protein A) Replication B) Transcription C) Translation D) Trans version E) None of these  ** Process of ribosomes attaching to mRNA Okazaki fragments make up part of the ____ A) Small ribosomal subunit B) tRNA C) lagging strand of newly synthesized DNA D) Mrna E) None of these Protein synthesis A) In bacteria can occur with several ribosomes attached to the same Mrna molecule B) Uses very little of bacterial cell’s energy C) Can occur at the same time as an mRNA is being transcribed D) Two of these E) None of these When lactose is present (and glucose is absent), which of the following is NOT true about  the lac operon? A) The RNA polymerase binds to the promoter B) The repressor is being made (NEVER DEACTIVATED) C) The three genes of the lac operon are being expressed D) The repressor binds to the operator  E) None of these  How can conjugation be a biological advantage? A) Decentralization of genetic information B) Concentration of genetic power C) It’s way better than dating D) Increase of genetic diversity E) Two of these  When the fluid within a cell has lower concentration of dissolved substances than the fluid  surrounding the cell, we say the fluid surrounding the cell is _______ A) Hypertonic B) Isotonic C) Super hypertonic D) Hypotonic  E) None of these