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OSU / Blount Initiative / BI 212 / What organ system is responsible for the breakdown of macromolecules a

What organ system is responsible for the breakdown of macromolecules a

What organ system is responsible for the breakdown of macromolecules a


School: Oregon State University
Department: Blount Initiative
Course: Principles of Biology
Professor: Jeff chang
Term: Winter 2017
Tags: Biology, Principles of biology, BI212, and OSU
Cost: 50
Name: BI212 2017 Final Exam Study Guide
Description: This is a study guide for the BI212 final exam. It includes questions that I wrote based on what I think is important, the practice exam, and the pre lecture reading quizzes, and an answer key to all the questions.
Uploaded: 03/18/2017
26 Pages 780 Views 0 Unlocks

Where in the nephron is water the only molecule being reabsorbed back into the body?

What organ is the nephron located in?

What organ system is responsible for the breakdown of macromolecules and the absorption of nutrients into the body?

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nephron located in? a. Stomach b. Heart c. Bladder d. Kidney 3. Match the following phases with the labels on the graph A. _______________ a. Undershoot B. _______________ b. Resting point C. _______________ c. Peak Action Potential D. _______________ d. Falling Phase E. _______________ e. Rising Phase2 4. Match the parts of the neuron with the correct label. A B C DA.____________ a. Cell Body B.____________ b. Axon C.____________ c. Dendrite D.____________ d. Nucleus 5. Which of the following are enzymes produced by the pancreas? a. Insulin, Glucagon, Amylase b. Bile, Glucagon, Insulin c. Glucose, Glucagon, Insulin d. Amylase, Lactose, Pepsin 6. Where in the nephron is water the only molecule being reabsorbed back into the body? a. Descending Limb of the Loop of Henle b. Ascending Limb of the Loop of Henle c. Bowman’s Capsule d. Collection Duct 7. What are the thin filaments in skeletal muscle composed of? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Microtubules d. Microfilaments 8. Deoxygenated blood enters the _______ through the superior vena cava and the inferior vena  cava. a. Left Atrium b. Left Ventricle c. Right Atrium d. Left Ventricle 9. Which of the following is arranged in hierarchical order from the largest and most complex to  the smallest? a. Muscle : Muscle fiber : Myofibrils : Filaments b. Filaments : Myofibrils : Muscle fiber : Muscle c. Muscle : Muscle cell : Myofibrils : Filaments d. Thick filaments : Muscle fiber : Myofibrils : Muscle 3 10. Air is expelled from the lungs when the pressure inside becomes ______. a. Less than the pressure of the atmosphere b. Equal to the pressure of the atmosphere c. More than the pressure of the atmosphere d. More than the pressure within the rest of the body Practice Exam 1. As animals evolve to greater sizes, their ability to exchange materials with the outside  environment must also increase. For example, exchange surfaces must have: a. A thicker epithelial layer b. A decreased blood supply c. An increased number of folds d. Larger Cells e. A waxy coating to prevent water loss 2. Which of these lists is arranged in hierarchical order from the largest (and most complex) to  the smallest: a. Organ systems : Tissues : Cells : Macromolecules : Atoms b. Organelles : Tissues : Cells : Enzymes : Atoms c. Tissues: Cells: Enzymes : Atoms : Organelles d. Tissues : Organs : Cells : Enzymes : Macromolecules e. Organ systems : Organelles : Cells : Enzymes : Atoms 3. Which statement is true regarding how a Canadian goose keeps from losing a large amount of  heat from their feet? a. Arterial blood can bypass the legs, as shown by the horizontal arrows b. Warmer venous blood transfers heat to cooler arterial blood c. Venous blood is as cold near the abdomen as it is near the feet d. A temperature gradient is maintained along the entire length of this vein e. This arrangement assists with the loss of heat to the environment 4. If an organism had no epithelial tissues, special adaptations would be required to support  which of the following? a. The sensing of and response to external stimuli b. Prevention of water loss in a terrestrial environment c. Peristalsis in the digestive tract d. Maintenance of blood pressure e. Storage of fuel as fat molecules 5. Which of the following is not considered connective tissue: a. Adipose tissue b. Bone c. Blood d. Cartilage e. Neurons 6. Which would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment? a. Feathers b. Blubber c. Huddling with others4 d. Panting e. Vasoconstriction 7. In comparison to the nervous system, the endocrine system: a. Induces responses in target cells using electrical signals b. Transmits impulses to other cells via axons c. Coordinates gradual changes that can affect the entire body d. Sends signals that have a much faster transmission speed e. Involves information transfer to target cells along very specific routes 8. A gastrovascular cavity: a. Has compartments that carry out digestion in a stepwise fashion b. Contains a mouth and an anus c. Is present in all vertebrates d. Has only one opening e. Conducts all digestion intracellularly 9. Fruit flies (Drosophila spp.) deposit their eggs upon fruit. When the eggs hatch, the emerged  fly larvae forage upon this fruit. Thus, these larvae can be considered: a. Substrate feeders b. Filter feeders c. Bulk feeders d. Deposit feeders e. Fluid feeders 10. Chemical digestion of protein starts in the: a. Mouth b. Salivary glands c. Stomach d. Small intestine e. Large intestine 11. The liver is responsible for production of: a. α-Amylase b. Bile c. Gastrin d. Gastric juice e. Nucleases 12. The muscle tissue responsible for peristalsis is: a. Smooth muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Alimentary muscle d. Skeletal muscle e. Pyloric muscle 13. Villi are adaptive because they increase the surface area of: a. Respiratory epithelia in the lungs b. Lamellae in fish gills c. Respiratory epithelia of body cells d. Transport epithelia in the kidney e. Epithelia in the small intestine5 14. People with type I diabetes are incapable of producing sufficient insulin. What is one  consequence? a. The pancreas would no longer secrete glucagon b. Blood glucose levels would continue to rise after eating c. The liver would synthesize more glycogen from glucose d. The stomach would not be able to produce gastric juice e. Chyme would not be neutralized in the duodenum 15. Which of the following does not rely on circulatory fluid for end-delivery of oxygen to body  cells? a. Lungs in mammals b. Gills in fish c. Skin in frogs d. Skin projections in echinoderms (e.g., the sea star) e. Tracheal system of insects 16. A heart murmur occurs when blood flows from the ventricles to the atria and can be fixed by  surgically replacing: a. The sinoatrial (SA) node b. Precapillary sphincters c. Semilunar valves d. Atrioventricular (AV) valves e. Pyloric sphincters 17. A molecule of O2 inhaled through your nose and traveling to your big toe must pass through  all of the following except the: a. Right atrium b. Left ventricle c. Pulmonary vein d. Systemic artery e. Systemic capillary 18. The rate of contraction of the heart is determined by the: a. Atria b. Diaphragm c. Transverse (T) tubules d. Sinoatrial (SA) node e. Ventricles 19. Blood pressure in the aorta is highest during: a. Atrial systole b. Atrial diastole c. Ventricular systole d. Ventricular diastole 20. What is directly involved in repairing blood vessels that have been cut? a. Epinephrine b. Hemoglobin c. Histamines d. Plasma e. Platelets6 21. Which of the following describes the pathway whereby exchange occurs between the  environment and a target body cell in a mammal? (IsF stands for interstitial fluid.) a. Highly-folded exchange surface ↔ IsF ↔ blood ↔ IsF ↔ target cell b. Blood ↔ IsF ↔ highly-folded exchange surface ↔ blood ↔ target cell c. IsF ↔ highly-folded exchange surface ↔ blood ↔ IsF ↔– target cel d. Highly-folded exchange surface ↔ blood ↔ IsF ↔ blood ↔ target cell e. Blood ↔ highly-folded exchange surface ↔ IsF ↔ blood ↔ target cell 22. Smokers are prone to emphysema where the alveoli are damaged. In patients with  emphysema, lungs will have: a. Decreased surface area; thus, respiratory rate will increase b. Decreased surface area; thus, respiratory rate will decrease c. Increased surface area; thus, respiratory rate will decrease d. Increased surface area; thus, respiratory rate will increase 23. At rest, the partial pressure of O2 (PO2) in resting body tissues is 40 mm Hg. What would be  the PO2 of body tissues during heavy exercise? a. Less than 40 mm Hg b. 40 mm Hg c. Greater than 40 mm Hg 24. Respiration is different between birds and mammals. Unlike mammals, birds: a. Use tidal ventilation b. Conduct gas exchange in alveoli c. Have lungs d. Employ negative pressure breathing e. Do not mix fresh air with air that has carried out gas exchange 25. Lymphatic vessels are most similar to which blood vessels? Consider the velocity and  pressure of fluid flow, as well as the mechanisms that help with the movement of fluid. a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Atria d. Veins e. Ventricle 26. Inflammatory response include: a. Increased phagocytic activity in an inflamed area b. Reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma c. The loss of self-tolerance that leads to autoimmune disease d. Presentation of antigen fragments by helper T cells e. Release of signals that decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area 27. Select the pathway that would lead to an activation of a cytotoxic T cell. a. B cell binds to antigen → activation of helper T cell → clonal selection b. Infection of body cell → pathogen fragments → presentation by MHC 1 c. Secretion of complement → B cell binds antigen → histamine released d. Cytotoxic T cell → endocytosis of MHC molecules → cytokine release e. Helper T cell → plasma cell → antibody release 28. A nursing baby obtains antibodies from its mother’s milk. These antibodies help the baby: a. Activate helper T cells b. Degrade antigens on pathogens into fragments for MHC molecules c. Label pathogens for phagocytosis via opsonization7 d. Mount a cell-mediated immune response e. Create a clonal population of memory cells 29. An immune cell has existed in the blood of its host for over ten years. One day it encounters  a presented antigen, binds to it, and triggers a secondary immune response. This cell is most  likely a: a. Plasma Cell b. Dendritic cell c. Macrophage d. Neutrophil e. Memory cell 30. A vaccination with a weakened/killed pathogen will prepare the adaptive immune system for  future infections by increasing the number of: a. Lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to that pathogen b. Macrophages specific for that pathogen c. Major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules that can present antigens d. Complement proteins in blood plasma e. Lymph nodes 31. You and your friend sit next to a woman who is sneezing and coughing. Both you and your  friend were exposed to this woman’s virus, but only your friend acquires it and shows  symptoms of a cold. Why? a. Your friend had antibodies to that virus b. You had adaptive immunity to that virus c. Your friend had an autoimmune disorder d. Your friend had allergies e. You are missing an innate immune response 32. Osmoregulation is partially achieved in freshwater fish by: a. Drinking lots of water b. Excreting concentrated urea c. Active uptake of salt by chloride cells d. Losing water via osmosis e. Storing ammonia in their swim bladders 33. The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be _______ with its ______ environment. a. Isoosmotic; freshwater b. Hypoosmotic; sea water c. Hyperosmotic; freshwater d. Hyperosmotic; sea water e. Isoosmotic; sea water 34. In the vertebrate nephron, filtration occurs in the: a. Proximal tubule b. Distal tubule c. Bowman’s capsule d. Descending limb of the loop of Henle e. Renal pelvis8 35. If the number of aquaporins in the collecting duct decreases, osmolarity of the processed  filtrate leaving the collecting duct will be: a. Less than 2,000 mOsm/L b. In dynamic equilibrium with the interstitial fluid, i.e., at 2,000 mOsm/L c. Greater than 2,000 mOsm/L 36. In a normal functioning kidney, blood can be found in the: a. Bowman’s capsule b. Proximal tubule c. Loop of Henle d. Collecting duct e. Vasa recta 37. The loop of Henle dips into the renal cortex and shows differential permeability it its  descending and ascending limbs. This is an important feature of osmoregulation in terrestrial  vertebrates because: a. This is the last chance for reabsorption to occur prior to excretion b. This structural arrangement establishes an osmotic gradient c. Additional filtration takes place along the loop of Henle d. Toxic substances are added into the filtrate in the loop of Henle e. It allows for countercurrent heat exchange9 38. Urea: a. Is insoluble in water b. Requires more ATP to make than the other nitrogenous waste products c. Has the highest toxicity of the three main nitrogenous waste products d. Is the primary nitrogenous waste product of mammals e. Is diluted to the greatest extent within animals that use it 39. While falling asleep, your heart rate decreases and your rate of glycogen production  increases due to actions of the __________________ division of the  ____________________ nervous system: a. Afferent: enteric b. Enteric: motor c. Parasympathetic: autonomic d. Sympathetic: motor e. Autonomic: reflex 40. A neuron has a resting potential of -70 mV. What is responsible for establishing this resting  potential? a. The Na+/K+ pump b. Ungated (a.k.a. leak) channels c. Voltage-gated channels d. A and B e. All of the above 41. Which is a neurotransmitter? a. Acetylcholine b. Cholecystokinin (CCK) c. Gastrin d. Glucagon e. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)10 42. Which phase of the graph shows when Na+channels open? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 43. Pre-synaptic neurons communicate with post-synaptic neurons via: a. Release of Ca2+ into the synapse b. The activation of the Na+/K+ pump c. The stimulation of ungated K+ (leak) channels d. ATP hydrolysis e. Neurotransmitters that bind to ligand-gated channels 44. A “sarcomere” in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to: a. One actin binding site and its myosin partner b. All of the actin and myosin filaments located between a pair of Z lines c. One myofibril and all of its filaments d. One motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers on which it synapses e. The organelle that stores Ca2+11 45. Identify the dendrite. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 46. The contraction of skeletal muscles is based on: a. Myosin filaments shortening b. Actin filaments shortening c. Actin and myosin filaments both shortening d. Actin and myosin filaments sliding past each other e. Cycles of binding and release orchestrated by the heads of actin filaments 47. A skeletal muscle deprived of adequate ATP will: a. Immediately relax b. Enter a state where actin and myosin are unable to separate c. Fire many more action potentials than usual d. Sequester all free calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum 48. Listed below are some of the steps involved in skeletal muscle contraction. These steps are  not listed in chronological order. Which step occurs last? a. Neurotransmitters are released into the neuromuscular junction b. Myosin-binding sites are exposed on thin filaments c. The action potential travels deep into the muscle fiber cell via T tubules d. A depolarization of the muscle fiber occurs e. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol12 49. An endoskeleton is the primary body support for: a. Annelids, including earthworms b. Insects, including beetles c. Bivalves, including clams d. Cnidaria, including the hydra e. Mammals, including elephants Pre-Lecture Quizzes Quiz 17 1. Which of the following is NOT true for countercurrent heat exchange? a. It assists with thermoregulation b. Arteries and vein are located as far apart as possible c. Fluids flow in opposite directions d. Temperature gradients between extremities and the environment are minimized e. It is a circulatory adaptation 2. Homeostasis refers to: a. Signaling molecules released into the bloodstream b. The hierarchical organization of body plans c. Maintenance of a constant internal environment d. The source of heat e. The receipt, processing, and transmission of information 3. How does negative feedback regulate animal systems? a. By changing the polarity from positive to negative b. A control mechanism increases the stimulus c. Helping to drive the process to completion d. a control mechanism reduces the stimulus 4. Where would you expect a lining of stratified squamous epithelium in a mammal? a. Capillaries b. Air sacs of the lungs c. The outer skin d. The Bowman’s capsule 5. The giant striated muscle cells involved in voluntary movements form: a. Smooth muscle tissue b. Skeletal muscle tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Cardiac muscle tissue e. Epithelial tissue 6. A bat can conserve energy by entering into a state of torpor (during which body  temperature decreases). This mammal is an example of an: a. Endotherm and a homeotherm b. Ectotherm and a homeotherm c. Endotherm and a poikilotherm d. Ectotherm and a poikilotherm 7. Which is an evolutionary adaptation that enables sufficient exchange of materials with the  environment? a. Pumping of circulatory fluid b. Transmission of electrical impulses13 c. Synchronized rhythmic contraction d. Linking highly-folded exchange surfaces to all body cells e. The sinoatrial node 8. How do laws of physics constrain body plans? a. Maximum size is constrained by adequate support and exchange with  environment b. Minimum size is constrained by adequate support and exchange with  environment c. Larger organism have no way to exchange gases and liquids with their  environment d. Smaller organisms have complex body plans 9. The endocrine system and nervous system both act in signaling, what is the difference  between them? (Select all that Apply) a. The endocrine system signals with hormones and nervous system signals via  neurons. b. The endocrine system signals with neurons and nervous system signals via  hormones. c. They differ in type, transmission, speed and duration of signals. d. The do not differ but are redundant examples of convergent evolution. 10. Which body tissue is primarily outside the cells? a. Epithelial Tissue b. Connective Tissue c. Muscle Tissue d. Nervous Tissue Quiz 18 1. An example of an essential nutrient in a human: a. A biosynthesized macromolecule b. ATP c. Gastrin d. Vitamin B2 e. Pepsin 2. Gastric juice does not destroy the stomach cells that make it because: a. The stomach is highly convoluted b. Food remains in the stomach for 2-6 hours c. Ingredients of gastric juice are kept inactive until release d. The stomach is expandable e. Protein digestion begins in the stomach 3. What triggers release of the hormone glucagon? a. Peristalsis b. A decrease in blood glucose levels c. Insulin d. An increase in body weight e. Arrival of chyme into the duodenum 4. In vertebrates, a typical herbivore may have all of the following adaptations except: a. An enlarged cecum b. A long alimentary canal c. Pointed canines d. Broad premolars e. Mutualistic microorganisms that digest cellulose14 5. __________________ live in or on their food source. a. Substrate feeders b. Suspension feeders c. Bulk feeders d. Fluid feeders e. Filter feeders 6. What is the digestive function of the liver? a. Fermenting ingested material b. Absorption of nutrients c. To produce alkaline solution that neutralizes chime d. To produce bile that aids in the digestion of lipids e. Mechanical digestion of food 7. In which type of digestive structure does food move in one direction between  compartments, so digestion and absorption can be carried out in stepwise fashion? a. Appendix b. Food vacuole c. Alimentary canal d. Gastrovascular cavity e. Nephron 8. How is food pushed through the alimentary canal? (select all that apply) a. It isn’t pushes, it just falls b. Via peristalsis. c. Via contractions and relaxation of the smooth muscles lining the canal d. By more food coming in that forces it downward 9. How is malnutrition different from under nutrition? a. Malnutrition is the lacking of one or more essential nutrients while undernutrition  is lack of appropriate chemical energy. b. Malnutrition is the lacking of appropriate chemical energy while undernutrition is  lack of one or more essential nutrients. c. These are essentially the same thing. d. Malnutrition is a great way to lose weight, undernutrition can cause serious  irreversible damage. 10. Why all amino acids are not considered essential to animal diets? a. 21-22 amino acids can be synthesized by animals using enzymes b. They are not essential for animals. c. About half of amino acids only function in plants. d. Only infants require essential amino acids. Quiz 19 1. During diastole, backflow of blood from arteries into ventricles is prevented via: a. High total cross-sectional area b. Semilunar valves c. Systole d. The heart murmur e. Stroke volume 2. What are the two names of chambers in vertebrate hearts? a. Arteries and veins b. Atria and ventricles c. Arterioles and venules d. Open and closed e. Systemic and Diastolic15 3. What is a lymph node? a. A network of tiny vessels that bring fluid back to the capillaries b. Rings of smooth muscle located at the entrance to capillary beds c. A single layer of flat epithelial cells d. The interstitial fluid of the body e. A honeycomb of connective tissues with spaces filled by white blood cells 4. What is the role of capillaries? a. Bring oxygen-rich blood back to the heart b. Bring oxygen-rich blood to different areas in the body c. Allow critical exchange of substances between the blood and interstitial fluids d. Bring oxygen-poor blood back to the heart e. Bring oxygen poor blood to different areas in the body 5. What is the role of the systemic circuit in double circulation? a. To deliver oxygen-poor blood to the gas exchange tissues b. To deliver oxygen-poor blood to the organs and tissues throughout the body c. To deliver oxygen-rich blood to the gas exchange tissues d. To deliver oxygen-rich blood to the organs and tissues throughout the body 6. How does blood vessel diameter influence blood flow?  a. It doesn’t b. The larger the blood vessel the faster the blood flow c. Blood flow slows when it moves to the narrower capillaries due to the large  number of capillaries resulting in the larger total cross-sectional area than the  arteries d. Blood flow increases in the capillaries because of the narrower capillaries result  in increased pressure like a nozzle on a hose. 7. What causes changes in blood pressure during the cardiac cycle?  a. The flow of blood out of the veins back into the heart b. The larger size of capillaries compared to arteries. c. The impact of the blood returning to the heart d. When heart contracts, blood enters arteries faster than it can leave 8. Which of the following statements is false about mammalian circulatory systems?  a. Arteries always carry blood away from the heart. b. The heart is split into four chambers c. The aorta carries blood to the rest of the body d. The stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by a ventricle in a single  contraction 9. Buildup of fatty substances (e.g., cholesterol) in the lining of arteries leads to: a. Elephantiasis b. AIDS c. Autoimmune disease d. An excitatory postsynaptic potential e. Atherosclerosis 10. Which of the following makes up the largest percentage of blood? a. Plasma b. Cellular elements c. Water d. Erthrocytes16 Quiz 20 1. How does partial pressure relate to gas exchange? a. A gas exerts a certain amount of pressure around its environment and on other  gases b. A gas always diffuses from a region of lower partial pressure to a region of higher  partial pressure. c. A gas always diffuses from a region of higher partial pressure to a region of lower  partial pressure. d. The atmosphere exerts a downward force. e. Gas exchange is the uptake of oxygen from the environment 2. If Carbon dioxide levels rise in the body, what happens to pH and respiration rates? a. Increase, Increase b. Increase, Decrease c. Decrease, Increase d. Decrease, Decrease 3. Which is true? In insects, gas exchange with the environment is accomplished:  a. Without the participation of the circulatory system b. Through rigid tubes called bronchioles c. Using countercurrent exchange mechanisms d. All of the above e. None of the above 4. A good respiratory organ should: a. Maximize thickness over which gases move b. Minimize the gradient of the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 across its surface c. Maximize the surface area over which diffusion occurs d. All of the above 5. Where are the breathing control centers? a. in the lungs b. in the throat c. In the medulla oblongata d. in the nares e. in the bronchial tube 6. Which of the following correctly lists structures from largest to smallest? a. Lung, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli b. Lung, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli c. Alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, lung d. Alveoli, bronchi, bronchioles, lung 7. Which of the following organisms has no specialized respiratory structures? a. Alligators b. Salmon c. Ants d. Earthworms e. Crabs 8. An advantage of gas exchange in fresh water, compared with gas exchange in air, is that  _____. a. water usually contains a higher concentration of oxygen than air b. the respiratory surface does not have to be as extensive in water c. water loss through evaporation across the respiratory surface can be minimized d. water is easier to move over the respiratory surface e. ventilation requires less energy in water17 9. The smallest airway through which inspired air passes before gas exchange occurs in the  mammalian lungs is the _____. a. Bronchus b. Bronchiole c. Larynx d. Trachea e. Pharynx 10. _____ in carbon dioxide in your red blood cells, which causes _____ in pH, causes your  breathing to speed up. a. A decrease ... a drop b. An increase ... a drop c. An increase ... a rise d. A decrease ... a rise e. Actually, it is the rise and fall of oxygen, not carbon dioxide, that controls  breathing Quiz 21 1. To be activated, a cytotoxic T cell needs to interact with a(n): a. B cell b. Antigen-presenting cell c. Erythrocyte d. Plasma cell e. Glial cell 2. In the inflammatory response of the innate immune system: a. Macrophages release cytokines b. Fluid with antimicrobial proteins flows out of leaky capillaries into injured tissues c. Mast cells release histamine d. All of the above 3. During neutralization, antibodies: a. Bind to toll-like receptors b. Participate in clonal selection c. Inhibit viral infection of host cells d. Activate helper T cells 4. Which is a component of innate immunity? a. Antibodies b. Cytotoxic T cells c. Acidic secretions of the stomach d. B cells e. Plasma cells 5. Plasma cells produce: a. Antibodies b. Plasma c. Cytotoxic proteins d. Antigens e. Cytokines 6. What is the role of an interferon? a. To be attracted to signals from infection an engulf and destroy pathogens b. To engulf large infectious areas c. To provide defense by interfering with viral infections d. To stimulate adaptive immunity against cells they engulf and encounter e. To cause blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable.18 7. How does a host cell use MHC for antigen presentation? a. The site specificity makes the antigen bind to MHC b. The antigen is presented to the MHC c. The MHC puts the antigen into the pathogen d. The MHC creates a disulfide bridge with the T cell antigen receptor e. The MHC binds to an antigen and moves it to the cell surface to “display” it 8. An antigen _____. a. Could be an invading bacterium b. Is a protein attacked by an invading microorganism c. Is a foreign molecule that evokes a specific response by a lymphocyte d. Is a protein molecule that helps defend the body against disease e. Induces development of white blood cells in the bone marrow 9. The fact that there are about a million different antigen receptors possible in human B  cells is based on _____. a. Recombination of the segments of the receptor DNA that make up the functional  receptor genes of differentiated B cells b. Constant changes in the splicing pattern of receptor genes after the  differentiation of the B cell c. Temporary changes in the ways that RNA is spliced in the B cells d. The capacity of memory cells to produce antibodies e. Having one million different immunoglobulin genes 10. Helper T cells are part of _____. a. A group of phagocytic white blood cells b. The complement system c. Innate immunity d. Cell-mediated immune responses e. The first cells to bind to antigens Quiz 22 1. Explain water movement in isosmotic conditions? a. Water does not move in these conditions b. Water will continually cross the membrane in both directions c. Water will move into the less dilute solution d. Water will move into the more dilute solution 2. An appropriate group of animals to examine to observe a Malpighian tubule would be  _____. a. Birds b. Annelids c. Flatworms d. Insects e. Amphibians 3. The process whereby animals rid their body of metabolic waste products is called: a. Thermoregulation b. Osmoregulation c. Osmosis d. Excretion e. Elimination 4. How do freshwater fish maintain their osmolarity? a. Take up salt with chloride cells b. Produce copious amounts of dilute urine c. Drink seawater d. Absorb ions across the gills19 5. Osmoregulation and excretion are _____. a. Mechanisms that maintain volume and composition of body fluids b. Ways that animals control their external environment c. Chemical processes that completely stop during torpor and hibernation d. Mechanisms that require continual water loss e. Mechanisms for the homeostatic control of body temperature 6. Why is ammonia not the waste product for terrestrial animals? a. It is too expensive for the body to make b. It is the waste product for terrestrial animals c. Terrestrial animals have a different type of kidney d. It is too toxic e. It requires more energy than urea to make 7. What is osmoregulation? a. The process by which animals control their temperature b. The process by which animals get rid of wastes c. The process by which animals control solute concentrations d. The process by which animals control their air flow e. The process by which animals control their digestive inputs 8. What do insects and spiders use to dispose of nitrogenous wastes? a. Kidneys b. Tracheal systems c. Gastrovascular cavities d. Malphigian tubules e. Ligand-gated ion channels 9. Terrestrial animals are _____. a. Osmoregulators that must obtain water from the environment b. Likely to have the same problems with osmoregulation as do freshwater fish c. Either arthropods or vertebrates d. Usually nocturnal e. Obligated to protect their eggs from drying with water-resistant shells 10. To solve osmoregulatory problems, a marine fish in seawater can:  a. Take up salt with chloride cells  b. Produce copious amounts of urine c. Drink seawater d. Absorb ions across the gills Quiz 23 1. Aquaporins in the collecting duct of the vertebrate nephron: a. Decrease the permeability of the transport epithelium to water b. Assist with the conduction of action potentials c. Increase in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. Help to dilute urine’ e. Regulate O2 content of the blood 2. Aldosterone is _____. a. Is released in great quantities when ethanol intoxication takes place b. A protein hormone that decreases blood pressure without changing blood volume c. Triggers the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin II d. A steroid hormone that reduces the amount of fluid excreted in the urine e. Decreases water reabsorption in the kidneys20 3. What is the function of the osmotic gradient found in the kidney? The osmotic gradient  allows for _____. a. The filtration of large cells at the glomerulus b. The precise control of the retention of water and electrolytes c. Electrolytes to move from low to high concentrations in the absence of ATP d. The loop of Henle to deliver water to the renal vein 4. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is likely after _____. a. Blood pressure becomes abnormally high b. Eating a small sugary snack c. Drinking lots of pure water d. Sweating-induced dehydration increases plasma osmolarity 5. After drinking alcoholic beverages, increased urine excretion is the result of _____. a. Increased blood pressure b. Increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule c. Increased aldosterone production d. Inhibited secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 6. As a result of the non-selectivity of the kidney's filtration of small molecules, _____. a. useful substances must be selectively reabsorbed b. the kidneys have little control over body fluid composition c. urine is always much less concentrated than blood d. many useful substances are lost in the urine e. the proportions of all the substances in the blood are the same as in the urine 7. The structural component(s) of the mammalian nephron where the transcytosis of water  increases due to the action of anti-diuretic hormone is/are the _____. a. Glomeruli b. collecting duct c. nephrons d. Bowman's capsules e. afferent and efferent arterioles 8. The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is maintained by all of the following EXCEPT  _____. a. active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb b. diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle c. the spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons d. diffusion of urea from the collecting duct 9. If you are hiking through the desert for several days, one would pack which of the  following to ensure proper hydration? a. a drink with a combination of water and electrolytes b. caffeinated beverages c. bottled water that had been frozen to ensure that it would be as cold as possible d. bottled water kept at room temperature 10. In humans, the transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle _____. a. have plasma membranes of low permeability to water b. are not affected by high levels of nitrogenous wastes c. are not in contact with interstitial fluid d. are the largest epithelial cells in the body21 Quiz 24 1. What is the typical resting potential of a neuron? a. 60 mV to 80mV b. 80 mV to 140mV c. -80mV to -140 mV d. -60mV to -80mV e. It varies widely by location in the body 2. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) carries information to the central nervous system  (CNS) using: a. Interneurons b. Efferent neurons c. Motor neurons d. Afferent sensory neurons e. Glial cells 3. Based on the graph in figure 48.11 in the text showing an action potential in a  mammalian neuron. Phase 5 of this action potential is primarily due to flow of: a. Na+into the cell b. K+into the cell c. Na+ out of the cell d. K+ out of the cell 4. Ions move in the direction opposite to that favored by the chemical concentration gradient  when _____. a. proteins leak out of a neuron b. sodium ions enter a neuron during the depolarization phase of an action potential c. potassium ions exit the neuron during the repolarization phase of an action  potential d. simple diffusion operates after active transport has been permanently halted by  being poisoned e. they are pumped by proteins that require ATP hydrolysis and when the electrical  charge gradient repulses or attracts them 5. Which of the following is not an efferent system of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Sensory receptors b. Motor system c. Autonomic nervous system d. They all are systems of the efferent parasympathetic nervous system 6. What are the two components of the vertebrate central nervous system? a. Brain and longitudinal nerve cords b. Brain and spinal cord c. Brain and ganglia d. Peripheral nervous system and ganglia e. Peripheral nervous system and brain 7. In gated-ion channels, describe the change in membrane potential that occurs if Na+  channels open. a. The membrane potential hyperpolarizes. b. The membrane potential does not change. c. The membrane potential depolarizes. d. The action potential is always activated. e. The magnitude varies with the strength of the stimuli.22 8. The resting membrane potential in mammalian neurons is achieved through action of the  sodium-potassium pump and: a. Voltage-gated K+channels b. Ligand-gated K+channels c. Ungated K+channels d. Ca2+-gated K+channels e. Closed K+channels 9. Choose the set that includes the most charged compounds that are more abundant  inside neurons, in the cytosol, than outside the neurons, in the extracellular fluid. a. proteins and sodium ions b. chloride ions and proteins c. sodium and potassium ions d. sodium and chloride ions e. potassium ions and proteins 10. The central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricles of the human brain contain a  filtrate of the blood, called _____. a. renal filtrate b. blood c. lymphatic fluid d. salivary fluid e. cerebrospinal fluid Quiz 25 1. A nerve poison that blocks acetylcholine receptors on dendrites would _____. a. reduce the binding of acetylcholine to its receptors on the postsynaptic membrane b. inactivate acetylcholinesterase, allowing acetylcholine to persist in the synapse c. inhibit the regeneration of acetylcholine for use by the presynaptic terminals d. cause continued stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane e. cause an immediate and enduring depolarization 2. Opening all of the sodium channels on an otherwise typical neuron, with all other ion  channels closed (which is an admittedly artificial setting), should move its membrane  potential to _____. a. -90 mV b. 0 mV c. +62mV d. +30mV 3. Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter? a. Norepinephrine b. GABA c. Serotonin d. Endorphins 4. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more permeable  to _____. a. ATP b. potassium ions c. all neurotransmitter molecules d. sodium ions23 5. Select the choice that describes neurons with the fastest conduction velocity for action  potentials. a. thin, nonmyelinated neurons b. thick, myelinated neurons c. thin, myelinated neurons d. thick, nonmyelinated neurons e. All of these choices conduct action potentials at the same velocity. 6. Acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle  binds to a sodium channel and opens it. This is an example of _____. a. a voltage-gated potassium channel b. a chemical that inhibits action potentials c. a ligand-gated sodium channel d. a second-messenger-gated sodium channel 7. A graded hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by _____. a. decreasing its membrane's permeability to Cl- b. increasing its membrane's permeability to Na+ c. increasing its membrane's permeability to K+ d. increasing its membrane's permeability to Ca+ 8. A neuron has the most negative membrane potential at what phase? a. Resting potential b. Depolarization c. Action potential d. Hyperpolarization 9. The simultaneous arrival of graded depolarization and a graded hyperpolarization of  equal but opposite magnitude at a particular location on the dendritic membrane is likely  to _____. a. cause the apoptosis of the neuron b. cancel each other out, making it appear as if there was no change in membrane  potential c. cause hyperpolarization, because graded hyperpolarizations are more important  to neuron function d. cause depolarization, because graded depolarizations are more important to  neuron function e. allow only the entry of sodium ions into the neuron, and prevent potassium ions  from exiting the neuron 10. The "threshold" potential of a membrane is the _____. a. minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials b. lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce c. peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential d. minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and  potassium channels Quiz 26 1. What is the name of the fluid-based skeleton that lacks hardened support structures? a. Endoskeleton b. Hydrostatic skeleton c. Aquaporin skeleton d. Exoskeleton24 e. Watervascular skeleton 2. In muscle fibers, which chemical element causes regulatory proteins on thin filaments to  change position so that actin and myosin can interact? a. K+ b. Epinephrine c. Na+ d. Ca2+ e. ATP 3. What powers the slide-filament model? a. Contracting muscles shortening b. Telescoping support pole c. Globular head regions d. Myosin molecules e. Thin filaments 4. The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to _____. a. one actin binding site and its myosin partner b. one sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments c. one myofibril and all of its sarcomeres d. one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers on which it has synapses 5. In a sarcomere, thin filaments (made primarily of actin) are attached to the: a. ABC lines b. M lines c. X lines d. Y lines e. Z lines 6. What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?  a. When Ca2+ accumulates in the cytosol the thin and thick filaments slide past  each other and the muscle fiber contractions. b. When the Ca2+ rises in the cytosol, the binding sites are covered and the  contraction stops. c. Ca creates strong bones connected to muscle fibers. d. All of the above e. None of the above 7. Which is not a difference between fast oxidative and fast glycolytic muscle fibers? a. The contraction speed b. The major source of ATP c. Myoglobin content d. The rate of fatigue e. the number of mitochondria 8. How does the T tubule contribute to muscle movement? a. It diffuses at the synaptic cleft and triggers the action potential b. They bind the troponin in the thin filament c. They slide the thin filament toward the center of the sarcomere d. It is a conduit for the action potential to enter the SR and release Ca2+ e. They are a conduit for the SR to remove calcium from the cytosol 9. Rigor mortis occurs following death and is typified by muscles in the corpse becoming  stiff (i.e., permanently contracted). This occurs because: a. Thick and thin filaments are changing in length25 b. There is almost no overlap between thick and thin filaments c. Input from efferent motor neurons increases d. The body lacks ATP to pump Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum e. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft 10. Why does the striated muscle have that name? a. Because of its function b. Because of the hierarchical nature of muscles fibers c. Because the borders of sarcomeres line up in adjacent myofibrils forming bands d. Because the muscle cells lie in a longitudinal bundle of myofibrils e. Because the long fibers run parallel to the length of the muscle. Answer Key 1. D 2. D 3. A. e B. c C. d D. a E. b 4. A. c B. d C. a D. b 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C Practice Exam 1. C 16. D 31. B 46. D 2. A 17. A 32. C 47. B 3. D 18. D 33. E 48. B 4. B 19. C 34. C 49. E 5. E 20. E 35. A 6. D 21. A 36. E 7. C 22. B 37. B 8. D 23. A 38. D 9. A 24. E 39. C 10. C 25. D 40. D 11. B 26. A 41. A26 12. A 27. B 42. A 13. E 28. C 43. E 14. B 29. E 44. B 15. E 30. A 45. A Pre Lecture Quizzes 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 1. B 1. D 1. B 1. C 1. B 2. C 2. C 2. B 2. C 2. D 3. D 3. B 3. E 3. A 3. C 4. C 4. E 4. C 4. C 4. C 5. B 5. A 5. D 5. C 5. A 6. C 6. D 6. C 6. B 6. C 7. D 7. C 7. D 7. D 7. E 8. A 8. B, C 8. A 8. C 8. C 9. A, C 9. B 9. E 9. B 9. A 10. B 10. C 10. A 10. B 10. D 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 1. B 1. C 1. D 1. A 1. B 2. D 2. D 2. D 2. C 2. D 3. D 3. B 3. D 3. B 3. D 4. B 4. D 4. E 4. B 4. D 5. A 5. D 5. A 5. B 5. E 6. D 6. A 6. B 6. C 6. A 7. C 7. B 7. C 7. C 7. A 8. D 8. B 8. C 8. D 8. D 9. A 9. A 9. E 9. B 9. D 10. C 10. A 10. E 10. D 10. C

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