AP Biology A: Ch 1, 52, 53 Test Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Cells are ____. A) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently B) limited in size to 200 and 500 mDon't forget about the age old question of the enhancement of a group's prevailing tendencies occurs when
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icrometers in diameter C) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms D) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms 2) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a ____. A) community B) population C) ecosystem 5) The phylogenetic tree below ____. A) depicts the three major domains of life B) includes unicellular but not multicellular life D) family 3) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Archaea and Monera C) Bacteria and Protista D) Bacteria and Archaea 4) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life? A) near universality of the genetic code B) structure of the nucleus C) structure of cilia D) structure of chloroplasts C) includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals and plants D) includes noncellular lifeforms 6) You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the following do you and the rose have in common? A) You both are multicellular. B) You both lack a membranebound nucleus. C) You are both prokaryotic. D) You and the rose have nothing in common. The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs. How does the same population of moths produce such differentlooking caterpillars on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and light conditions listed below. In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets). 7) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible hypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in this population? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars. B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike caterpillars. C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. 8) Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs. These results support which of the following hypotheses? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars. B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all twiglike caterpillars.9) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers, and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely evolutionary advantage for this difference in body shape? A) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their environment more efficiently. B) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs than like flowers. C) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings, reducing predation. D) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding efficiency; this would increase their growth rate and survival rate. 10) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help. You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jumpstarting the car from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are ____. A) testing a theory for why the car will not start B) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start C) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start 11) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of the following experiments will provide the best data to address that question? A) Determine the survival rate of Agrobacterium when exposed to different concentrations of an antibiotic. B) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various concentrations of Agrobacterium. C) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where the plants grow. D) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to Agrobacterium for different lengths of time. Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation (Living things coming from nonliving things). He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat. 12) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, flies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct? A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat. B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough. C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat. D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies.13) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment? A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment. B) The control group is identical to the experimental group except for the independent variable. C) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several. D) Only the experimental group is tested or measured. 14) Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors? A) speciation ecology B) population ecology C) community ecology D) ecosystem ecology 15) Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements are correct? I) Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature. II) Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2. III) Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation. IV) Area 2 has a larger annual temperature variation. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only II, III, and IV16) In the figure above, which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual precipitation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 17) In deep water, which of the following abiotic factors would most limit productivity? A) temperature B) light availability C) solute concentration 18) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2800 meters in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist should ____. A) study the anatomy and physiology of this species B) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude C) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth D) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year 19) In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries? A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C D) curve A or curve B 20)In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves applies to most plant species? A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C D) All 3 curves 21) Using the table above, determine which age class year would hurt the population growth most if it were wiped out by disease. A) age class year 1 B) age class year 2 C) age class year 3 D) age class year 4 22) Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size? A) 200 B) 1050 C) 1600 D) 2100 23) Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the markrecapture estimate of population size? I) Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped. II) The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with the population after being marked. III) No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate. A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) I, II, and III24) To measure the population of lake trout in a 250hectare lake, 400 individual trout were netted and marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake was netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the markrecapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following? A) 200 B) 400 C) 1,600 D) 80,000 25) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I) inhabiting the same general area II) belonging to the same species III) possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) III only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III 29) 26) An ecologist recorded twelve whitetailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square kilometer in one woodlot and twenty per square kilometer in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) density B) dispersion C) carrying capacity D) range 27) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with ____. A) patterns of high humidity B) the random distribution of seeds C) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population D) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range 28) In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302,000,000 people. How many Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008 birth rate was 0.018 and the death rate was 0.009? A) 2,700,000 B) 303,000,000 C) 304,700,000 D) 400 million In the figure above, which of the lines represents the highest percapita rate increase (r)? A) line AB) line B C) line C D) line D 30) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1000 individuals in one year. A) 120 individuals added B) 40 individuals added C) 20 individuals added D) 400 individuals added 31) Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a twohour period? A) B) C)D) 32) In the figure above, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity? A) arrow A B) arrow B C) arrow C D) Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density dependent control never reach carrying capacity. 33) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? A) The growth rate will not change. B) The growth rate will approach zero. C) The population will increase exponentially. D) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase. 34) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth? A) favorable climatic conditions B) removal of predators C) decreased death rate D) competition for resources 35) Which of the following graphs best illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has increased to a static carrying capacity? A)B) D) C) 36) According to the logistic growth equation, , A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero. B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K. C) population growth is zero when N equals K. D) the population grows exponentially when K is small. 37) Looking at the data in the figure above, what can be said about survival and clutch size? A) Animals with low survival tend to have smaller clutch sizes. B) Large clutch size correlates with low survival. C) Animals with high survival tend to have larger clutch sizes. D) Probability of survivorship does not correlate with clutch size.38) Based on the figure above, which of the following statements correctly interprets the data? A) As female density increases, clutch size increases. B) As female density increases, survivorship decreases. C) Clutch size decreases as female density increases. D) Clutch size is a density independent limiting factor 39) Which of the following is characteristic of Kselected populations? A) offspring with good chances of survival B) many offspring per reproductive episode C) small offspring D) a high population growth rate 40) Looking at the data in the figure above from the hare/lynx experiment, what conclusion can you draw? I) Food is a factor in controlling hare population size. II) Excluding lynx is a factor in controlling hare population size. III) The effect of excluding predators and adding food in the same experiment is greater than the sum of excluding lynx alone plus adding food alone. A) only I B) only II C) only III D) I, II, and III41) Infant mortality and life expectancy at birth in developed and developing countries (data as of 2005). What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above? Developed countries have ____. A) lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries B) higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries C) lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries D) higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries The following questions refer to the figure below, which depicts the age structure of three populations. 42) Which population(s) appear(s) to show slow growth? A) I B) III C) I and II D) II and III 43) Which of the following is the best natural example of uniform distribution? A) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow B) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest 44) Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you reintroduce them. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). With no natural predators impacting the population, the graph will likely appear as ____. A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation B) an "S" that ends with a vertical line C) an upsidedown "U" D) a "J," increasing with each generation45) Graph (b) in the figure above shows the normal fluctuations of a population of grouse. Assuming graph (a) in the figure above is the result of some experimental treatment in the grouse population, what can be concluded? A) The experimental treatment exacerbated AP Test Stylethe population cycling. B) The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species. C) The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population cycling. D) None of the other responses is true. 46) Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, , which of the factors is influenced by the size of the moose population? A) r B) N C) rN D) K 1) Scientists in Australia wanted to know the relationship between sea urchins, limpets, and the distribution of seaweed. Both sea urchins and limpets are herbivores that graze on seaweed. What do the data shown in this figure indicate about the pattern and distribution of seaweeds? A) Both species influence seaweed distribution, but limpets have the primary effect. B) Seaweed distribution is determined by global sea temperatures, not predators. C) Sea urchins have the greatest influence on seaweed distribution. D) The influence on seaweed distribution is roughly equal in impact from both limpets and sea urchins. 2) In this figure, notice that it indicates seaweed cover was greatest when both sea urchins and limpets were removed. The data indicate that seaweed cover was greater than expected by the addition of just the removal of limpets, or just the removal of urchins. Which of the proposals explain how the removal of both limpets and urchins together could be greater than their individual affect on seaweed cover? A) With their sea urchin competitors removed, limpet populations were able to increase causing an increased loss of seaweed cover. B) Limpets are the primary consumers of seaweed, so the removal of sea urchins allowed their population to consume a variety of algae and plants. C) The data indicate that sea urchins are stimulated to eat more seaweed in the presence of limpets. D) With the loss of sea urchins, limpet populations also declined, as shown in the graph as the difference between the green and blue lines. 3) A population of squirrels on an island has a carrying capacity of 350 individuals. If the maximum rate of increase is 1.0 per individual per year and the population size is 275, determine the population growth (Round to the nearest whole number). A) 59 squirrels per year B) 34 squirrels per year C) 75 squirrels per year D) 15 squirrels per year 4) Age structure pyramids such as those shown in the accompanying figure show the percent of males and females in age groups or cohorts. These can indicate potential societal issues that help us plan for the future. Which statement most accurately describes potential societal problems that can be inferred by the data shown here? A) Italians are likely to face intense competition for educational and employment opportunities. B) In Afghanistan, young people will rapidly face a significant financial burden for supporting the country’s increasing elderly population. C) In the United States there will be a decreasing need for social services for the elderly in the next 20 years and greater demand for more primary schools. D) Afghanistan is likely to face intense competition for educational and employment opportunities due to the large number of people entering reproductive age.AP Biology A: Ch 1, 52, 53 Test Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.1 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.1 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.2 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.2 BLM: Application/Analysis 5) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.2 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.2 BLM: Application/Analysis 7) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 8) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 9) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 10) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 11) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 12) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 13) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 1.3 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 52.1 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 52.2 BLM: Application/Analysis 16) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 52.2 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 52.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 18) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 52.4 BLM: Application/Analysis 19) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Application/Analysis 22) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Application/Analysis 23) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Application/Analysis 24) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Application/Analysis 25) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Application/Analysis 27) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Application/Analysis 28) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.2 BLM: Application/Analysis 29) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.2 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.2 BLM: Application/Analysis 31) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.2 BLM: Application/Analysis 32) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.3 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 34) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.3 BLM: Synthesis/Evaluation 35) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 36) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 37) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.4 BLM: Application/Analysis 38) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.4 BLM: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.4 BLM: Application/Analysis 40) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.5 BLM: Application/Analysis 41) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.6 BLM: Application/Analysis 42) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.6 BLM: Application/Analysis 43) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.1 BLM: Application/Analysis 44) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 45) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.5 BLM: Application/Analysis 46) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.5 BLM: Application/AnalysisAP TEST STYLE 1) ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 52.4 BLM: Synthesis/Evaluation 2) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 52.4 BLM: Synthesis/Evaluation 3) ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.3 BLM: Application/Analysis 4) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Section: 53.6 BLM: Application/Analysis