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TCTC / Biology / BIOL 101 / cell a has half as much dna as cells b, c, and d in a mitotically acti

cell a has half as much dna as cells b, c, and d in a mitotically acti

cell a has half as much dna as cells b, c, and d in a mitotically acti


School: Tri-County Technical College
Department: Biology
Course: Biological Science I
Professor: Richard reeves
Term: Spring 2015
Tags: Meiosis, Mitosis, DNA replication. Heredity., and Genetics
Cost: 50
Name: Biology 101 Practice Exam 3
Description: This document provides practice questions for the concepts of DNA, RNA, DNA replication, Meiosis, Mitosis, and genetics.
Uploaded: 04/26/2017
17 Pages 322 Views 0 Unlocks

BIO101 SI Mock Exam 3 (Ch. 12-17) 1. What is occurring in prophase 1 of meiosis? a. DNA is replicated b. Crossing over c. Cleavage furrow is formed d. Four genetically different daughter cells are formed 2. Binary fission is a type of cell division that occurs in __________ cells. a. Eukaryote b. Prokaryote c. Somatic d. Sex 3. What phase is occurring in the image below? a) Anaphase b) Metaphase 2 c) Interphase d) S phase 4. In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes align along the midline of the cell? a. Anaphase b. Telophase c. Metaphase d. Interphase 5. How many haploid daughter cells are produced in meiosis? a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. 66. In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in a. Cells with more than one nucleus b. Cells that are unusually small c. Cells lacking nuclei d. Cell cycles lacking an S phase 7. Which of the following does not occur during mitosis? a. Condensation of the chromosomes b. Replication of the DNA c. Separation of sister chromatids d. Spindle formation 8. A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in a. G1 b. G2 c. Prophase d. Metaphase 9. Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during a. Mitosis b. Meiosis I c. Meiosis II d. Fertilization 10. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that a. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase b. DNA replicates before the division c. The daughter cells are diploid d. Homologous chromosomes synapse 11. What is Gregor Mendel known for? a. Crossing rabbits b. Crossing pea plants c. Crossing purple flowers d. Crossing Tulips12. Someone is heterozygous dominant for blue eyes and homozygous recessive for blonde hair, what would their genotype be? Note: Eye color is represented by B and hair color is represented by H. a. BBHH b. bbhh c. BbHh d. Bbhh 13. A homozygous dominant brown mouse is crossed with a heterozygous brown mouse (tan is the recessive color). What are the possible genotypes of the children? a. Brown mouse and tan mouse b. Bb and bb c. BB and bb d. Bb and BB 14. Looking at the previous question, what will the ratio of the genotypes be? a. 2:1 b. 3:1 c. 1:1 d. 1:2 15. In fruit flies eye color is a sex linked trait where red is dominant to white. If you cross a pure red eyed female and a white eyed female, of the possible offspring how likely is it to get a female with white eyes? a. 0% of the time b. 25% of the time c. 50% of the time d. 75% of the time 16. Using this Punnett Square, fill in the missing genotype.

B b ? Bb bb B BB Bb

How many haploid daughter cells are produced in meiosis?

What phase is occurring in the image below?

What is occurring in prophase 1 of meiosis?

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a. B b. Bb c. bb d. b17. Read the statement and determine if it is true or false: If a person has type A blood and has a child with a someone who also has type A blood, it is possible for them to have a child with type O blood. a. True b. False 18. If you cross a parent who is homozygous dominant for having brown eyes with someone who is heterozygous dominant for brown eyes, what are the possible phenotypes of their offspring? Note: Blue eyes are recessive. a. All children will have blue eyes b. All children will have brown eyes c. 75% will have brown eyes and 25% will have blue eyes d. 75% will have blue eyes and 25% will have brown eyes 19. In humans, hemophilia is a sex linked trait. Females who have hemophilia are homozygous recessive. If a female with hemophilia is mated with a male that does not have hemophilia, what are all the possible phenotypes of their offspring? a. Males with hemophilia, females with hemophilia b. Males without hemophilia, females with hemophilia, and females without hemophilia c. Males with hemophilia, females without hemophilia d. Males without hemophilia, males with hemophilia, and females without hemophilia 20. Based on the previous question what will the ratio of phenotypes be? a. 1:1 b. 2:1:1 c. 3:1 d. 1:1:1 21. The structure of DNA includes the following features: a. Antiparallel strands, sugar-phosphate background, right hand coil b. Parallel strands, sugar-phosphate background, left hand coil c. Antiparallel strands, sugar-protein background, left hand coil d. Parallel strands, sugar-phosphate background, right hand coil 22. According to Chargaff’s rule, if a strand of DNA contains 14% guanine, how much cytosine does the DNA strand contain? a. 28% b. 86% c. 7% d. 14%23. Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative? a. The two parental strands reassociate after acting as templates for the two new strands, thus restoring the parental double helix b. The two strands of the parental molecule separate and each functions as a template for synthesis of a new, complementary strand c. Each strand of both daughter DNA molecules contain a mixture of old and newly synthesized DNA d. The strands are partially replicated before reassembly 24. Which of the following is not a requirement for DNA replication? a. dATP, dGTP, dCTP, dTTP must be present b. Enzymes c. Source of chemical energy d. Fatty Acids 25. Which enzyme unwinds the DNA helix as DNA replication occurs? a. Helicase b. Topoisomerase c. DNA primase d. Single-strand binding protein 26. Which of the following is not a function of DNA polymerase? a. Adds nucleotides to primer b. Matches template bases with complementary bases c. Proofreads and repairs d. Keeps DNA helix from supercoiling 27. Which enzyme joins the fragments of the lagging strand of DNA? a. Topoisomerase b. Helicase c. DNA ligase d. DNA primase 28. Which of the following is not a type of DNA repair? a. DNA proofreading b. Mismatch repair c. Excision repair d. Deletion repair29. Which end of the DNA strand are new nucleotides added to? a. 5’ b. Lagging strand c. 3’ d. Leading strain 30. Which of the following abides by the base pairing rules? a. A pairs with G b. C pairs with T c. A pairs with C d. C pairs with G 31. The central dogma of molecular biology states a. DNA → protein → RNA b. RNA → protein → DNA c. RNA → DNA → protein d. DNA → RNA → protein 32. Which of the following is a correct pairing? a. RNA: thymine; DNA: uracil b. RNA: double-stranded; DNA: single-stranded c. RNA: ribose; DNA: deoxyribose d. RNA: phosphate; DNA: sulfhydryl 33. Based on the genetic code (above), what string of amino acids would be created from this mRNA transcript: 5’ AUGAAUUCUUGA 3’ a. Met-Thr-Ser-Stop b. Met-Asn-Ser-Stop c. Met-Ile-Ser-Cys d. Met-Thr-Ser-Trp34. Transcription initiation involves all of the following steps EXCEPT: a. Transcription factors bind to the promoter b. RNA polymerase begins synthesis in 3’ to 5’ direction c. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter d. RNA polymerase splits the two strands of DNA apart 35. Which of the following statements about RNA processing is true? a. RNA processing occurs only in prokaryotes. b. RNA processing adds a phosphate cap to the 3’ end. c. RNA processing removes exons and links together introns. d. RNA processing adds a string of adenines to the 3’ end. 36. Select the correct pairing of enzyme and function in transcription. a. Topoisomerase: synthesizes DNA b. Helicase: unwinds DNA at the replication fork c. Ligase: relieves tension from unwinding of DNA d. Primase: lays down a DNA primer to initiate transcription 37. An substitution of a single base results in a change from 5’ UGG 3’ to 5’ UGA 3’ in the RNA transcript is an example of which type of mutation? (HINT: use the genetic code provided above question 33) a. Frameshift mutation b. Missense mutation c. Nonsense mutation d. Silent mutation 38. In which site on the ribosomal small subunit are two amino acids joined together? What is the name of the bond that forms between the two amino acids? a. A site; hydrogen bond b. P site; peptide bond c. E site; peptide bond d. P site; hydrogen bond 39. In transcription, ________________ signals termination. In translation, ______________ signals termination and release factor binding. a. Termination sequence; stop codon b. Stop codon; TATA box c. TATA box; stop codon d. Termination sequence; 3’ poly-A tail40. A dipeptide, Met-Trp is synthesized via translation. What is the sequence of the DNA template strand? (HINT: use the genetic code provided above question 33) a. 3’ TAC ACC 5’ b. 3’ UAC ACC 5’ c. 3’ ATG TGG 5’ d. 3’ ATG TCC 5’ 41. What is the specific sequence of DNA that codes for a specific protein? a. Gene b. Locus c. Character d. mDNA 42. What is the term used to describe the visible traits that can be seen? a. Phenotype b. Genotype c. Dihybrid d. Codominance 43. Which of this is not a variation of dominance? a. Incomplete Dominance b. Pleiotropy c. Codominance d. Epistasis 44. If you cross do a dihybrid cross between two parents that are heterozygous for both traits, what will the phenotypic ratio be? a. 1:2:1 b. 4:4:4:4 c. 3:1 d. 9:3:3:1 45. A flower that has alleles for red and white color, but shows up as a pink flower is an example of what? a. Incomplete Dominance b. Codominance c. Pleiotropy d. Epistasis 46. Which of these is not a part of the cell cycle? a. G1 b. G2 c. G3 d. S47. Which of these is not true of RNA? a. It is normally single stranded. b. It is composed of ribose. c. It contains uracil. d. It contains thymine. 48. If a DNA molecule has 30% A, how much C does it have? a. 30% b. 60% c. 40% d. 20% 49. If you have a DNA template that is AAGGCCTTAGCT what is the mRNA transcript? a. TTCCGGAATCGA b. UUCCGGAAUCGA c. AAGGCCTTAGCT d. CCAAGGAAUTA 50. What is the name for the other 22 pairs of chromosomes in the body other than the sex chromosomes? a. Sex chromosomes b. Chromatids c. Autosomes d. Homologous chromosomesBaracskay – SP2017 BIO101 Name: ______________________ Practice Exam #3 1. In order for a zygote to become an embryo and then a fetus, what type of cell division is needed?  a. meiosis  b. mitosis  c. replication  d. cytokinesis alone  e. binary fission 2. The two identical halves of a duplicated chromosome are called ____________. a. Chromosome arms b. Nucleosomes c. Sister chromatids d. Homologous chromosomes 3. Which of the following does not occur during the M (or mitotic) phase?  a. condensation of the chromosomes  b. replication of the DNA  c. separation of sister chromatids  d. cytokinesis  4. What cells of your body undergo meiosis? a. Epidermal cells, for repair of injury b. Sex cells, in order to produce sperm or eggs c. All somatic cells, for growth of the organism d. All diploid cells of an embryo 5. In mitosis, the daughter cells are ____________, whereas in meiosis the daughter  cells are __________. a. Haploid, diploid b. Tetraploid, diploid c. Haploid, tetraploid d. Diploid, haploid 6. A genetically normal human gamete contains ________ chromosomes. a. 1 b. 2 c. 22 d. 23 e. 461 7. During __________________ a cell replicates both its organelles & its  chromosomes. A. Mitosis B. Cytokinesis C. S phase D. Interphase E. G1 8. How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species? A. by ensuring that chromosomes are the same in each new generation B. by allowing self-fertilization C. by preventing mutations D. by allowing crossing over E. by encouraging reproduction 9. A cross between a homozygous red-flowered plant and a homozygous white-flowered  plant results in offspring with pink flowers. This demonstrates _______________. A) complete dominance  B) a dihybrid cross  C) incomplete dominance D) co-dominance  10. A purple pea plant that is homozygous dominant is crossed with a white pea plant  that is homozygous recessive. Which of the following is correct? A. Over several generations, no white individuals will appear B. One-half of the F1 generation will be purple and one-half will be white C. 75% of the F1 generation will be purple, and 25% will be white. D. All of the F1 generation will be white. E. All of the F1 generation will be purple. 11. Which of the following would allow us to visualize Mendel’s Law of Segregation? A) the replication of DNA B) homologous chromosomes separating during Meiosis I C) homologous chromosomes separating during Meiosis II D) sister chromatids separating during mitosis E) the behavior of sex-linked genes 12. One possible chromosomal abnormality is for a segment of a chromosome to be  repeated. What is this alteration called?  A) Translocation  B) Disjunction  C) Inversion  D) Deletion  E) Duplication2 13. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (MD) is an X-linked recessive disorder that leads to  muscular weakness and is the most common form of muscular dystrophy. A woman who  is a carrier for the disease has offspring with a normal male. Which of the following is  correct regarding this cross? A) All of the female offspring are predicted to have MD. B) All of the male offspring are predicted to have MD. C) One-half of the male offspring are predicted to have MD. D) One-half of the female offspring are predicted to have MD. E) None of the offspring are predicted to have MD. 14. What are alleles? A. The place on the chromosomes where a gene is located. B. Alternate versions of genes. C. The different characters like flower color, seed color, plant height, etc. D. The arms of a chromosome. 15. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT about sex-linked genes? A) A sex-linked gene refers to a gene located on either sex chromosome (X and Y). B) Many genes located on the X chromosome do not have a corresponding gene located  on the Y chromosome. C) A sex-linked gene refers solely to those genes located on the Y chromosome. D) X-linked recessive diseases are more common in males than females because a male  only needs one copy of the recessive allele to get the disease, whereas a female needs two  copies. 16. A heterozygous Blood Type B mother has offspring with a Blood Type O father.  Which of the following is true regarding the offspring? A. All offspring will be Blood Type B. B. One-half of the offspring will be Blood Type O; the other half will be Blood Type B. C. All offspring will have the genotype IBi. D. One-half of the offspring will have Blood Type A.  E. The female offspring will all be Blood Type B, and the male offspring will all be  Blood Type O. 17. In corn, purple kernels are dominant to yellow kernels, and starchy kernels are  dominant to sweet kernels. Complete dominance is the pattern of inheritance. A  homozygous purple, heterozygous starchy corn is crossed with a yellow, sweet corn. Use  P = purple, p = yellow, S= starchy, s = sweet. What are the genotypes of the parents? A. ppSS x PpSs B. PpSs x PpSs C. PPSs x PpSs D. PPSs x ppss E. PpSs x ppss3 18. In the cross above (Question #17), which of these is correct about the offspring? A. All offspring are predicted to be purple and starchy. B. One-half of the offspring are predicted to be purple and starchy, and the other half are  predicted to be purple and sweet. C. One-fourth of the offspring are predicted to be purple and starchy; ¼ are predicted to  be purple and sweet; ¼ are predicted to be yellow and starchy; ½ are predicated to be  yellow and sweet. D. All offspring are predicted to be yellow and sweet. E. One half of the offspring are predicted to be yellow and starchy, and the other half are  predicted to be yellow and sweet. 19. What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during  DNA replication?  A) the relative amounts of the four nucleoside triphosphates in the cell  B) the nucleotide sequence of the template strand  C) the particular DNA polymerase catalyzing the reaction  D) the primase used in the reaction  E) the arrangement of histones in the sugar phosphate backbone 20. What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix?  A) ionic  B) covalent  C) hydrogen  D) sulfhydryl  E) phosphate 21. DNA replication is called semiconservative because A. the two resulting DNA molecules each have one new DNA strand and one old strand  from the original DNA molecule. B. both of the resulting DNA molecules are composed of new strands of nucleotides. C. no extra nucleotides are incorporated into the replicated DNA molecules. D. the sequence of nucleotides in one strand is conserved, whereas the new DNA  molecule consists of a unique sequence of nucleotides E. one of the two resulting DNA molecules is new. 22. A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because  A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the template.  B) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3' end.  C) replication must progress toward the replication fork.  D) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end.  E) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5' direction. 4 23. Cytosine makes up 32% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.  Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?  A) 32  B) 36  C) 64  D) 18  24. Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to  which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once  in the presence of this radioactive base?  A) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive.  B) Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine.  C) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive. D) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. 25. During DNA Replication, the DNA strand that is synthesized as short Okazaki  fragment is called the ______________.  A) the leading strand  B) the promoter region C) template strand  D) the lagging strand  26. A DNA template strand reads 3’TTACGGAC5’. During DNA Replication, what  specific complementary DNA sequence will be added to the growing new strand? A) 3’AATGCCTG5’ B) 5’UAUGCCUG3’ C) 5’AAUGCCUG3’ D) 5’AATGCCTG3’ E) 3’TTACGGAC5’   27. Which of the following processes does not occur within the nucleus? A. intron removal B. DNA replication C. transcription D. translation E. RNA processing 28. During RNA Processing, which of the following are added to help(s) to stabilize  mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?  A) TATA box  B) spliceosomes  C) 5' cap and poly (A) tail  D) introns  E) RNA polymerase5 29. A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5'ACG3'. The  corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is ________. A) 3' UGA 5'.  B) 3' UGC 5'.  C) 5' TCA 3'.  D) 3'ACG 5'.  E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base. 30. Which one of the following point mutations is most likely to have no effect on the  final protein product? A. A silent mutation B. A nonsense mutation near the end of the gene C. A missense mutation D. A frameshift mutation at the beginning of the gene 31) What is the function of the release factor (RF)? A) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol. B) It separates tRNA in the A site from the growing polypeptide. C) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA. D) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a peptide  bond. E) It supplies a source of energy for termination of translation. Match the enzyme with its function. a. Ligase b. DNA polymerase c. Helicase d. Topoisomerase e. Primase 32. Unwinds the DNA double helix. _____ 33. Repairs any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone; joins okazaki fragments. ____ 34. Adds DNA nucleotides at the 3’ end using a DNA template strand to pair  complementary bases _____ 35) For the following mRNA strand, indicate the correct polypeptide sequence that will  be produced: 3’GCAUCAGCAAGG5.’ (The Codon Table is on the last page of your  exam.) A. GLY – THR – THR – THR B. VAL – SER – GLY – ARG C. MET – PRO – PRO – ALA D. ILE – GLY – PRO – VAL E. ALA – SER – ALA – ARG 36) A point mutation occurs, changing the DNA template strand from 3’CTG5’ to  3’CTC5’. What type of mutation is this?  A. Silent B. Missense C. Nonsense D. Change in reading frame E. Insertion6 37) What effect will the mutation described in Question #36 have on the polypeptide  strand that is synthesized from it? A. It will have no effect due to the redundancy of the DNA code. B. It will change an amino acid. The amino acid “Asp” will be changed to “Glu.” C. It will change an amino acid. The amino acid “His” will be changed to “Arg.” D. It will lead to a shorter polypeptide, as this particular mutation changes the mRNA  codon to a Stop Codon. E. All of the amino acids after this codon will be changed. 38) Complete the sentence with the MOST CORRECT answer. One gene codes for one  ____________. A. Protein B. Polypeptide C. Enzyme D. mRNA E. Amino acid  39) At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present  where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5' An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? A. 5' G C C U A G G 3' B. 5' A C G U U A G G 3' C. 5' A C G T T A G G 3' D. 5' G C C T A G G 3' E. 3' G C C T A G G 5' 40) Which of the following best describes Chargaff’s base-pair bonding rules? A. Pyrimidines always bind to pyrimidines. B. Purines always bind to deoxyribose. C. Purines always bind to purines. D. Pyrimidines always bind to deoxyribose. E. Pyrimidines always bind to purines. 41) An RNA copy of the DNA template strand is made. This describes the process of  ____________, which takes place in the ______________. A. transcription; nucleus B. translation; cytoplasm C. RNA processing; cytoplasm D. translation; nucleus E. replication; nucleus7  8
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