Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 1Name:________________________________ Student ID: __________________________ Bio 97, Section C, 2015 Final Exam VERSION B 1. Please enter your student number and version of the test you are tDon't forget about the age old question of the motivation behind externalism is:
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aking on the scantron right now! 2. Please write your name and student number on this page. You must return the exam with the scantron. Failure to do so will result in your scantron not being scored. 3. The exam with last 1 hour and 50 minutes; there are 36 equal valued questions. For each question choose the single most correct answer. 4. You may have only pencil(s) and your ID card on your desk. Calculators are not allowed, nor should they be needed. 5. You may use the codon table on this page. There is also a Figure at the end of the exam.1 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 1. I cross males homozygous for a mutation to homozygous wild-type females and observe perfectly normal offspring. I then reverse the direction of the cross (homozygous mutant females to homozygous wild type males) all the embryos die early in development. There is a very good chance that this gene A. is expressed in sperm B. encodes a protein product that is deposited by the female into her eggs C. is a homeotic gene D. controls segmentation 2. What does DNA Ligase do: A. It joins two molecules of DNA together B. It cuts a single piece of DNA into two pieces leaving sticky ends C. It cuts a single piece of DNA into two pieces leaving blunt ends D. It prevents a DNA vector from “re-circularizing” 3. How many degrees of freedom are there in a chi-squared test analyzing the results of a dihybrid cross with two loci with one dominant and one recessive allele per locus and no epistasis: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 4. Given the following numbers of three genotypes from a biallelic locus, what is the frequency of the "a" allele? 30 AA 20 Aa 10 aa A. (10+0.5*20)/60 = 1/3 B. 1/6 C. 1/2 D. 2/3 5. Given the coding DNA sequence 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATA CAG CGG-3' (1st position of codon #1 is position #1 of this sequence), which of the following sequences represents a silent mutation A. 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATA CAC CGG-3' B. 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATA CAG GGG-3' C. 5'-ATG TAA AAA ATA CAG CGG-3' D. 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATG CAG CGG-3' E. 5'-ATG TAC AAG ATA CAG CGG-3'2 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 6. The upper panel of Figure 1 represents a PCR-RFLP amplicon and the site at which it is cut using the enzyme EcoR1. The lower panel is a gel image from the PCR-RFLP experiment. Lanes labeled P1 and P2 are two parent mice and lanes A, B, & C are pups that may or may not be the offspring of those two parents. Which pups could be the offspring of these two parents? A. A B. B C. C D. A & B 7. Below is a table of the recombinants observed in a 3-point cross experiment. The F1 male trans-heterozygote was test-crossed to an abq/abq homozygote female, as a result the table only lists F2 haplotype derived from the male F1 parent. AbQ 580 aBq 592 Abq 94 aBQ 89 ABq 40 abQ 45 ABQ 3 abq 5 What were the two haplotypes (non-recombinant gamete types) in the F1 male? A. AbQ & aBq B. Abq & aBQ C. ABq & abQ D. ABQ & abq 8. What is the order of the 3 markers in the above question? A. ABQ B. AQB C. BAQ D. cannot be determined 9. What is a problem with “gene therapy” A. virus-based vectors could have unacceptable side-effects B. the introduced gene does not replace a bad copy C. the introduced gene could be rejected and thus its therapeutic value short-lived D. all of the above 10. You cross an individual from a strain of true-breeding plants with red flowers to an individual from a strain of true-breeding plants with white flowers. The result is 100% pink progeny. What is this an example of? A. A recessive mutation B. Variable penetrance C. Codominance D. Epistasis3 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 11. If 25% of the general population is affected by an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the frequencies of the three genotypes assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? (The genotype order below is AA, Aa, and aa). A. 0.75, 0, 0.25 B. 0.25, 0.5, 0.25 C. 0, 0.75, 0.25 D. 0.5, 0.25, 0.25 12. A couple comes to a genetic counselor. The male's family has a history of an autosomal recessive disorder, and the female's family has no such history. Ideally, what do we need to know in order to assess the couples' risk of giving birth to an affected child? A. We only need the number of affected relatives of the male. B. We only need the disease frequency in the general population. C. The affected/unaffected status of the male's parents, the number of the male's affected siblings, and the frequency of the disease in the general population. D. The number of affected relatives of the male (if any) and the disease frequency in the general population. 13. “Reverse Genetics” refers to: A. saturation mutagenesis of parents followed by phenotypic screening of mutant offspring B. RNA is transcribed to make a cDNA, the cDNA is then cloned C. mutations created in specific genes are introduced back into an organism and their phenotypic effects studied D. a mutant gene is cloned using flanking molecular markers 14. The disease caused by mutations in the gene HEXA primarily affects the children of couples A. of African (or African American) descent B. in which the mother has mutations in DNA repair genes C. that are first cousins D. of Jewish descent 15. In his experiments with T4 bacteriophage mutants, Benzer observed a bizarre class of mutations that could never recombine with certain other mutations in order to restore wild-type. What was the nature of these mutations? A. They were deletions B. They were mutations in a different gene with the same mutant phenotype C. They were dominant mutations D. They were upstream of the other mutants in the same pathway 16. What distinguishes an X-linked dominant trait from an autosomal dominant trait: A. If it is X-linked, males will pass the trait on to all daughters. B. If it is autosomal, males will pass the trait on to all daughters. C. If it is X-linked, males will be affected more often than females. D. Equal numbers of males and females will be affected4 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 17. The MCS of a cloning vector will often contain a lacZ gene. What purpose does the lacZ gene serve? A. It expresses a transposase that allows the insert to integrate into a host genome B. It allows a recombinant clone to grow in the presence of ampicillin C. It allows the plasmid to replicate within a bacterial cell D. It allows a researcher to distinguish between insert containing and re-circularized vector 18. If I laser ablate (or otherwise knock-out) the vulval anchor cell in C. elegans the resulting phenotype is a A. wild-type B. homeotic transformation C. bag-of-worms D. multiple vulva 19. RNAseq reads aligned to a genome allow a researcher to A. identify the location of coding genes B. identify exon-intron boundaries C. identify the location of cis-regulatory elements D. A & B 20. A consanguineous union increases the likelihood that a rare recessive disorder is due to A. different mutations in the same gene identical by descent B. the same mutation identical by descent C. a transposable element D. a splicing mutation 21. Fill in the blank. For most complex diseases in human that have been studied using a GWAS approach, _______ of the known trait heritability is explained by the significant GWAS hits. A. <5% B. 10-20% C. 40-60% D. >85% 22. This enzyme is needed to make a cDNA library, but is not needed to make a randomly sheared DNA library A. Taq polymerase B. Reverse transcriptase C. A restriction enzyme (e.g. EcoR1) D. Ligase 23. How many centimorgans separate two independently-assorting loci? A. 50 B. 100 C. 0.5 D. None of the above.5 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 24. Barbara McClintock discovered A. SNPs B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase D. transposable elements in maize 25. Which of the following are NOT involved in translation A. 40S subunit B. 60S subunit C. Messenger RNA D. tRNA(s) E. Methylated cytosine nucleotides (i.e., “CpG islands”) 26. Fill in the blanks. A eukaryotic promoter is a __________ DNA sequence that ____________ binds to initiate transcription A. single-stranded; RNA polymerase B. single-stranded; a single stranded primer C. double-stranded; DNA polymerase D. double-stranded; RNA polymerase E. double-stranded; a single stranded primer 27. Which of the following statements is incorrect: A. In a large population, recessive lethal alleles are quickly eliminated B. Recurrent mutation + selection against harmful mutations results in an equilibrium with harmful mutations present at low frequency C. Mutation is the ultimate source of heritable genetic variation D. None of the above. 28. Which of the following is not an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A. Gametes mix at random B. There are no separate sexes C. The population size is finite D. There is no natural selection 29. Human height has a heritability of 85%. What does this mean? A. If you are 1 inch taller than the population mean about 0.15 of that inch is genetic B. 50% of the variation in height is due to genes and 50% the environment (e.g., how much milk you drank as a kid, etc) C. Height is due to many independent genetic loci each making a small contribution D. If you are 1 inch taller than the population mean about 0.85 of that inch is genetic 30. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Most mutations are at very different frequencies in different human populations? B. Most genotype frequencies in the human genome are close to Hardy-Weinberg proportions C. Certain Mendelian disorders, such as sickle cell anemia, may be favored in some areas because they protect against a different disease. D. Individuals affected by Mendelian disorders are typically "trans-heterozygotes"6 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 31. Which of the following is not true of a "classic" Mendelian trait: A. Phenotypes occur in predictable ratios like 3:1, 1:2:1, etc. B. Alleles of the same genes will segregate independently into gametes C. It matters if a mutant allele is inherited from a sperm or an egg D. Alleles from different genes will assort independently into gametes 32. “Enhancer bashing” requires that I create a series of different transgenic organisms. The different transgene constructs will typically compare A. a translational fusion reporter and transcription fusion reporter B. a regulatory region driving GAL4 that can then be crossed to different “UAS-reporter” strains C. different deletions in a regulatory region each fused to the same reporter gene D. the same regulatory region each fused to a different report gene 33. Why did human geneticists largely abandon family-based mapping for dissecting complex human diseases early in this millenium ? A. They were never able to map any QTL B. Mapping resolution was poor, so positional cloning was out of the question C. Hundreds of thousands of SNP markers were required, and those markers were difficult to obtain and/or too expensive D. B & C 34. What is so special about an embryonic stem cell A. it is pluripotent B. it is differentiated C. it has the potential to become any cell type D. it is immortal 35. More than half of all cloned Mendelian disease causing mutations are A. regulatory mutations B. missense/nonsense mutations C. deletions D. spicing mutations 36. What genome-wide method might a researcher use to identify genomic regions where regulatory proteins are able to bind cis-regulatory DNA elements A. RNAseq B. DNAse1-HS-seq C. ChIP-seq D. B & C7 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 Figure 18