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UCI / BIO SCI / BIO 97 / uci bio counselor

uci bio counselor

uci bio counselor

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School: University of California - Irvine
Department: BIO SCI
Course: Genetics
Professor: R. warrior
Term: Fall 2015
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Cost: 50
Description: Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 Name:________________________________ Student ID: __________________________ Bio 97, Section C, 2015 Final Exam VERSION A 1
Uploaded: 06/30/2017
8 Pages 124 Views 0 Unlocks
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How many centimorgans separate two independently-assorting loci?




Ideally, what do we need to know in order to assess the couples' risk of giving birth to an affected child?



Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 Name:________________________________ Student ID: __________________________ Bio 97, Section C, 2015 Final Exam VERSION A 1.  Please enter your student number and version of the test you are  taking on the scantron right now! 2.  Please write yWe also discuss several other topics like shelby, a 13-year-old girl, is brought in by her mother. the mother is concerned about shelby's "unusual" bedtime routine. before going to bed each night, shelby spends exactly one hour writing all the events of her day in minute detail in a special journ
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our name and student number on this page.  You must  return the exam with the scantron.  Failure to do so will result in your  scantron not being scored. 3.  The exam with last 1 hour and 50 minutes; there are 36 equal valued  questions.  For each question choose the single most correct answer. 4.  You may have only pencil(s) and your ID card on your desk.   Calculators are not allowed, nor should they be needed. 5.  You may use the codon  table on this page.  There is  also a Figure at the end of the  exam.1 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 1. Which of the following is not true of a "classic" Mendelian trait:   A. Alleles of the same genes will segregate independently into gametes   B. Alleles from different genes will assort independently into gametes   C. It matters if a mutant allele is inherited from a sperm or an egg   D. Phenotypes occur in predictable ratios like 3:1, 1:2:1, etc. 2. A consanguineous union increases the likelihood that a rare recessive disorder is due to   A. a splicing mutation   B. a transposable element   C. different mutations in the same gene identical by descent   D. the same mutation identical by descent 3. A couple comes to a genetic counselor.  The male's family has a history of an autosomal  recessive disorder, and the female's family has no such history.  Ideally, what do we  need to know in order to assess the couples' risk of giving birth to an affected child?   A. We only need the disease frequency in the general population.   B. The affected/unaffected status of the male's parents, the number of the male's affected  siblings, and the frequency of the disease in the general population.   C. We only need the number of affected relatives of the male.   D. The number of affected relatives of the male (if any) and the disease frequency in the  general population. 4. How many centimorgans separate two independently-assorting loci?   A. 50   B. 100   C. 0.5   D. None of the above. 5. More than half of all cloned Mendelian disease causing mutations are   A. deletions   B. regulatory mutations   C. missense/nonsense mutations   D. spicing mutations 6. Human height has a heritability of 85%. What does this mean?   A. If you are 1 inch taller than the population mean about 0.85 of that inch is genetic   B. If you are 1 inch taller than the population mean about 0.15 of that inch is genetic   C. Height is due to many independent genetic loci each making a small contribution   D. 50% of the variation in height is due to genes and 50% the environment (e.g., how much  milk you drank as a kid, etc) 7. RNAseq reads aligned to a genome allow a researcher to   A. identify the location of coding genes   B. identify exon-intron boundaries   C. identify the location of cis-regulatory elements   D. A & B2 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 8. “Reverse Genetics” refers to:   A. a mutant gene is cloned using flanking molecular markers   B. mutations created in specific genes are introduced back into an organism and their  phenotypic effects studied   C. saturation mutagenesis of parents followed by phenotypic screening of mutant offspring   D. RNA is transcribed to make a cDNA, the cDNA is then cloned 9. Given the coding DNA sequence 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATA CAG CGG-3' (1st position of codon  #1 is position #1 of this sequence), which of the following sequences represents a  silent mutation   A. 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATA CAC CGG-3'   B. 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATA CAG GGG-3'   C. 5'-ATG TAA AAA ATA CAG CGG-3'   D. 5'-ATG TAC AAA ATG CAG CGG-3'   E. 5'-ATG TAC AAG ATA CAG CGG-3' 10. What is a problem with “gene therapy”   A. virus-based vectors could have unacceptable side-effects   B. the introduced gene does not replace a bad copy   C. the introduced gene could be rejected and thus its therapeutic value short-lived   D. all of the above 11. I cross males homozygous for a mutation to homozygous wild-type females and observe  perfectly normal offspring.  I then reverse the direction of the cross (homozygous  mutant females to homozygous wild type males) all the embryos die early in  development.  There is a very good chance that this gene   A. encodes a protein product that is deposited by the female into her eggs   B. is a homeotic gene   C. controls segmentation   D. is expressed in sperm 12. How many degrees of freedom are there in a chi-squared test analyzing the results of a  dihybrid cross with two loci with one dominant and one recessive allele per locus  and no epistasis:   A. 1   B. 2   C. 3   D. 4 13. The MCS of a cloning vector will often contain a lacZ gene.  What purpose does the lacZ  gene serve?   A. It expresses a transposase that allows the insert to integrate into a host genome   B. It allows a recombinant clone to grow in the presence of ampicillin   C. It allows the plasmid to replicate within a bacterial cell   D. It allows a researcher to distinguish between insert containing and re-circularized  vector3 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 14. Why did human geneticists largely abandon family-based mapping for dissecting  complex human diseases early in this millenium ?   A. They were never able to map any QTL   B. Mapping resolution was poor, so positional cloning was out of the question   C. Hundreds of thousands of SNP markers were required, and those markers were difficult  to obtain and/or too expensive   D. B & C 15. In his experiments with T4 bacteriophage mutants, Benzer observed a bizarre class of  mutations that could never recombine with certain other mutations in order to  restore wild-type.  What was the nature of these mutations?   A. They were upstream of the other mutants in the same pathway   B. They were deletions   C. They were dominant mutations   D. They were mutations in a different gene with the same mutant phenotype 16. Which of the following statements is not true:   A. Individuals affected by Mendelian disorders are typically "trans-heterozygotes"   B. Most genotype frequencies in the human genome are close to Hardy-Weinberg  proportions   C. Most mutations are at very different frequencies in different human populations?   D. Certain Mendelian disorders, such as sickle cell anemia, may be favored in some areas  because they protect against a different disease. 17. Which of the following is not an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?   A. There are no separate sexes   B. The population size is finite   C. There is no natural selection   D. Gametes mix at random 18. Which of the following statements is incorrect:   A. In a large population, recessive lethal alleles are quickly eliminated   B. Recurrent mutation + selection against harmful mutations results in an equilibrium with  harmful mutations present at low frequency   C. Mutation is the ultimate source of heritable genetic variation   D. None of the above. 19. What does DNA Ligase do:   A. It cuts a single piece of DNA into two pieces leaving sticky ends   B. It prevents a DNA vector from “re-circularizing”   C. It joins two molecules of DNA together   D. It cuts a single piece of DNA into two pieces leaving blunt ends4 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 20. Given the following numbers of three genotypes from a biallelic locus, what is the  frequency of the "a" allele? 30 AA 20 Aa 10 aa   A. 1/3   B. 1/6   C. 1/2   D. 2/3 21. Barbara McClintock discovered   A. transposable elements in maize   B. DNA polymerase   C. SNPs   D. RNA polymerase 22. If I laser ablate (or otherwise knock-out) the vulval anchor cell in C. elegans the  resulting phenotype is a   A. homeotic transformation   B. wild-type   C. multiple vulva   D. bag-of-worms 23. The disease caused by mutations in the gene HEXA primarily affects the children of  couples A. that are first cousins   B. of Jewish descent   C. in which the mother has mutations in DNA repair genes   D. of African (or African American) descent 24. Fill in the blanks.  A eukaryotic promoter is a __________  DNA sequence that ____________   binds to initiate transcription   A. single-stranded; RNA polymerase   B. single-stranded; a single stranded primer   C. double-stranded; DNA polymerase   D. double-stranded; RNA polymerase   E. double-stranded; a single stranded primer 25. “Enhancer bashing” requires that I create a series of different transgenic organisms.  The  different transgene constructs will typically compare   A. a regulatory region driving GAL4 that can then be crossed to different “UAS-reporter”  strains   B. a translational fusion reporter and transcription fusion reporter   C. different deletions in a regulatory region each fused to the same reporter gene   D. the same regulatory region each fused to a different report gene5 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 26. If 25% of the general population is affected by an autosomal recessive disorder, what  are the frequencies of the three genotypes assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?  (The genotype order below is AA, Aa, and aa).   A. 0.25, 0.5, 0.25   B. 0.5, 0.25, 0.25   C. 0, 0.75, 0.25   D. 0.75, 0, 0.25 27. What is so special about an embryonic stem cell   A. it is differentiated   B. it is pluripotent   C. it is immortal   D. it has the potential to become any cell type 28. What genome-wide method might a researcher use to identify genomic regions where  regulatory proteins are able to bind cis-regulatory DNA elements   A. RNAseq   B. DNAse1-HS-seq   C. ChIP-seq   D. B & C 29. You cross an individual from a strain of true-breeding plants with red flowers to an  individual from a strain of true-breeding plants with white flowers.  The result is  100% pink progeny.  What is this an example of?   A. Codominance   B. A recessive mutation   C. Variable penetrance   D. Epistasis 30. Fill in the blank.  For most complex diseases in human that have been studied using a  GWAS approach, _______ of the known trait heritability is explained by the significant  GWAS hits.   A. <5%   B. 10-20%   C. 40-60%   D. >85% 31. What distinguishes an X-linked dominant trait from an autosomal dominant trait:   A. If it is X-linked, males will pass the trait on to all daughters.   B. If it is autosomal, males will pass the trait on to all daughters.   C. If it is X-linked, males will be affected more often than females.   D. Equal numbers of males and females will be affected 32. Which of the following are NOT involved in translation   A. 60S subunit   B. Methylated cytosine nucleotides (i.e., “CpG islands”)   C. Messenger RNA   D. tRNA(s)   E. 40S subunit6 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 33. This enzyme is needed to make a cDNA library, but is not needed to make a randomly  sheared DNA library   A. Ligase   B. Reverse transcriptase   C. Taq polymerase   D. A restriction enzyme (e.g. EcoR1) 34. The upper panel of Figure 1 represents a PCR-RFLP amplicon and the site at which it is  cut using the enzyme EcoR1.  The lower panel is a gel image from the PCR-RFLP  experiment.  Lanes labeled P1 and P2 are two parent mice and lanes A, B, & C are  pups that may or may not be the offspring of those two parents.  Which pups could  be the offspring of these two parents?   A. A   B. B   C. C   D. A & B  35. Below is a table of the recombinants observed in a 3-point cross experiment.  The F1  male trans-heterozygote was test-crossed to an abq/abq homozygote female, as a  result the table only lists F2 haplotype derived from the male F1 parent. AbQ 580 aBq 592 Abq 94 aBQ 89 ABq 40 abQ 45 ABQ 3 abq 5 What were the two haplotypes (non-recombinant gamete types) in the F1 male?   A. AbQ & aBq   B. Abq & aBQ   C. ABq & abQ   D. ABQ & abq 36. What is the order of the 3 markers in the above question?   A. ABQ   B. AQB   C. BAQ   D. cannot be determined7 Bio97 Final Exam Dec 9 Figure 1:8

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