×
Log in to StudySoup
Get Full Access to TWU - Study Guide - Midterm
Join StudySoup for FREE
Get Full Access to TWU - Study Guide - Midterm

Already have an account? Login here
×
Reset your password

TWU / Engineering / BIOL Zool 2023 / What molecules does the endocrine system release?

What molecules does the endocrine system release?

What molecules does the endocrine system release?

Description

School: Texas Woman's University
Department: Engineering
Course: Human Anatomy and Physiology II
Professor: Samanthi kottegoda
Term: Spring 2019
Tags: Cardiovascular, Blood, Heart, and Endocrine system
Cost: 50
Name: A&P II Exam One Review
Description: These notes cover everything that will be on our exam.
Uploaded: 02/01/2019
26 Pages 31 Views 6 Unlocks
Reviews

eeffiong (Rating: )

why would i have to purchase the materials again after getting your subscription for A YEAR? In my opinion is not a fair thing to still require one does that.


cdake (Rating: )


sierra.hinkel2 (Rating: )


hafsahakh (Rating: )


kolivares1 (Rating: )


tsmithers (Rating: )



CHAPTER 18- THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM Compare and contrast with Nervous System  


What molecules does the endocrine system release?



∙ What molecules does the nervous system release? neurotransmitters ∙ What molecules does the endocrine system release? hormones

∙ most hormones circulate through blood and bind to receptors on ___  ___. target cells

∙ the nervous system's target cells consist of muscle cells, ___ cells, and other  _____. gland, neurons

∙ the endocrine's system target cells consists of cells that are found  where? throughout the body

∙ the nervous system's onset of action for an impulses occurs within  ___. milliseconds

∙ The onset/duration of endocrine system's actions are generally ___ than that  of the nervous system's. longer


The nervous system's onset of action for an impulse occurs within what?



Exocrine vs. Endocrine Glands  

∙ exocrine glands secrete their products into ___. ducts

∙ exocrine glands never secrete ____. hormones

∙ endocrine glands do not have ducts. They secrete hormones directly into ___  ___ surrounding them. interstitial fluid

Major Endocrine glands and organs/tissues containing endocrine cells  If you want to learn more check out Did hayek support laissez faire?

∙ which is not an endocrine gland: pituitary, thymus, thyroid, parathyroid,  adrenal. thymus

∙ certain organs and tissues can still secrete hormones because they contain  ___ ___. secreting cells

∙ is the kidney an endocrine gland? no


Paracrine hormones are a type of hormone that acts on their what?



∙ is the pituitary gland an endocrine gland? (yes or no) yes

∙ is the hypothalamus an endocrine gland? (yes or no) no

Hormone Activity:  

Target Cells and Tissues  

∙ hormones traveling throughout the body will only affect target cells that  possess specific ___ ___ for the hormone. protein receptors

Receptors- Up and Down Regulation  Don't forget about the age old question of In 10000bce, an illness caused by evil spirits is treated with what?

∙ receptors may be ___ regulated in the presence of low concentrations of  hormone. up

∙ receptors may be down regulated in the presence of a ___ concentration of  hormone. high Don't forget about the age old question of Differentiate exothermic and endothermic reactions.

Paracrine/Autocrine  

∙ paracrine hormones are a type of hormone that acts on their ___  ____. neighboring cells

∙ ___, a type of local hormone acts on the same cell that secreted it. Autocrine

Lipid and Water Soluble 

∙ ___-soluble hormones bind to receptors within cells, while ___-soluble  hormones bind to receptors on the exterior of target cells. lipid; water

∙ lipid-soluble hormones circulate bound to ___ ____. transport proteins ∙ water-soluble hormones circulate freely in the ____. plasma If you want to learn more check out Adaptive radiation means what?

∙ which of the following is not a lipid-soluble hormone type: steroid hormones,  thyroid hormones, amine hormones, or nitric oxide? amine hormones

∙ water-soluble hormones include peptide and ___ hormones, eicosanoid  hormones, and amine hormones. protein

Chemical Class 

∙ ___ hormones are secreted in the adrenal cortex, kidneys, testes, and  ovaries. steroid

∙ epinephrine, norepinephrine, melatonin, histamine, and serotonin all belong  in the water-soluble category of ___. amines

∙ what chemical class of hormones are secreted in the adrenal cortex, kidneys,  testes, and ovaries? steroid

∙ what chemical class of hormones are secreted in the thyroid gland? thyroid

∙ what chemical class of hormones are secreted in the endothelial cells lining  blood vessels? gas (nitric oxide)

∙ which of these are not an amines: epinephrine, norepinephrine, melatonin,  histamine, calcitonin, serotonin. calcitonin If you want to learn more check out What is the function of the endocrine system?

∙ oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are secreted in the- posterior pituitary ∙ insulin and glucagon are secreted in the- pancreas

∙ prostaglandins and leukotrienes are part of the chemical class known  as- eicosanoids

Hormone Interactions 

∙ when a hormone opposes the action of another it it known as- antagonistic

∙ hormones sometimes work more effectively when present with another. This  is known as the ____ effect. synergistic

∙ ____ effect is when hormones require the activity of another  hormone. Permissive If you want to learn more check out Texans have a high poverty rate of how many percent?

Types of Stimulation  

∙ when hormone secretion is regulated by signals from the nervous system, it  is known as- neural

∙ when hormones secretion is regulated by other hormones, it is known  as- hormonal

∙ ___ stimuli of hormones comes from chemical changes in the  blood. Humoral

∙ most hormone regulation is achieved via ___ ____. negative feedback Hypothalamus  

∙ the hypothalamus and ____ gland work together to control other endocrine  glands. pituitary

∙ the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland are connected by the  ___. infundibulum

Posterior Pituitary 

∙ the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is also known as  

the- neurohypophysis

∙ the ___ ___ ___ stores and releases oxytocin and anti-diuretic  hormone. posterior pituitary gland

∙ the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland releases two hormones made by the  ____. Hypothalamus

∙ the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is made up of ___ ___. neural tissue

Anterior Pituitary  

∙ anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is also known as the- adenohypophysis

∙ the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland makes up 75% of the weight and  secretes ___ hormones. seven

∙ the anterior pituitary hormone whose function is to stimulate growth- growth hormone (GH)

∙ the anterior pituitary hormone whose function is to cause the release of  corticosteroids- adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

∙ the anterior pituitary hormone(s) whose functions are to stimulate the  development of gametes and release hormones- follicle-stimulating  hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH)

∙ the anterior pituitary hormone whose function is to stimulate milk production  from mammary glands- prolactin (PRL)

∙ the anterior pituitary hormone whose function is to stimulating thyroid gland  to release hormones- thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

∙ hormone whose exact role in humans is unknown but may influence brain  activity- melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

∙ low blood glucose stimulates the release of GH_H- GHRH

∙ high blood glucose stimulates the release of GH_H-GHIH

∙ ___ is released in response to the stretch placed on the cervix during  childbirth. oxytocin

∙ oxytocin enhances contractions and stimulates ___ production by the  mammary glands. milk

∙ the amount of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) varies with blood osmotic  pressure. An increasein blood volume causes a ____ in ADH  

secretion. decrease

∙ what substance inhibits ADH release? alcohol

Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system/tract 

∙ hormones from the hypothalamus reach the pituitary gland via the ____ portal system. hypophyseal

∙ high glucose levels is known as ___. hyperglycemia

∙ low glucose levels is known as ____. hypoglycemia

∙ axons from neurosecretory cells form the hypothalamo-______  tract. hypophyseal

Thyroid Gland

∙ the thyroid gland is located inferior to the ___ and anterior to the  trachea. larynx

∙ what gland is the largest endocrine gland? thyroid

∙ the left and right lateral lobes of the thyroid gland is connected by an  ____. isthmus

∙ what cells are stimulated by TSH to produce T3 and T4? follicular ∙ what cells produce calcitonin? parafollicular

∙ calcitonin's main function is to regulate ___ ___. calcium homeostasis ∙ thyroid hormones increase ___ metabolic rate. basal

∙ thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) is released by the ____. hypothalamus

∙ thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released by the ___ pituitary  gland. anterior

∙ low levels of T3 and T4 (low metabolic rate) stimulates the release of  ___. TRH

∙ TRH stimulates the release of TSH by ___. thyrotrophs

Parathyroid Gland 

∙ parathyroid glands contains ___ and ___ cells. chief, oxyphil ∙ chief cells produce _______ _____. parathyroid hormones

∙ calcitonin works with ___ and ___ to regulate calcium homeostasis. PTH,  calcitriol

Adrenal Glands 

∙ the adrenal glands are located on top of each ____. kidney

∙ the adrenal glands are divided into the outer ___ and the inner ___. cortex,  medulla

∙ which adrenal gland cortex secretes mineralcoritcoides? zona glomerulosa ∙ the zona fasciculata secretes ____. glucocorticoides

∙ which adrenal gland cortex secretes androgens? zona reticularis

∙ what adrenal cortex hormone is responsible for increasing blood levels of Na+ and water, and decreasing blood level of K+- mineralcorticoids

∙ what adrenal cortex hormone is responsible for increasing protein  breakdowns (except for in liver), provides resistance to stress, and depresses  immune responses? glucocorticoids

∙ what adrenal cortex hormone is responsible for assisting in early growth of  pubic hair in both sexes, and contributes to libido and estrogen after  menopause? Androgens

Pancreas 

∙ the pancreas is located in the curve of the ____. duodenum

∙ is the pancreas an endocrine gland, exocrine gland, or both? both ∙ what type of exocrine cells in the pancreas make up 99% of the cells? acinar

∙ what are the clusters of endocrine tissue cells in the pancreas? pancreatic  islets (islets of langerhan)

∙ a cluster of pancreatic exocrine cells is called an ___. acini

∙ acini produces digestive ____ that are delivered to the ___ _____ through  ducts. enzymes, gastrointestinal tract

∙ pancreatic islets (islets of langerhan) contain ____ cells. secretin ∙ alpha cells in the pancreatic islets secrete what hormone? glucagon ∙ what cells in the pancreatic islets secrete insulin? Beta (B) cells ∙ delta cells in the pancreatic islets secrete what hormone? somatostatin ∙ what cells in the pancreatic islet secretes pancreatic polypeptide? F cells

∙ low blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia) in the pancreas stimulate what cells  to release their hormones? alpha cells

∙ high blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) in the pancreas stimulate what  cells to release their hormones? beta cells

Ovaries/Testes 

∙ ___ produce estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, and inhibin. ovaries ∙ ____ produce testosterone. testes

∙ the term for ovaries and testes. gonads

∙ ____ are oocytes and sperm. Gametes

Pineal Gland 

∙ the pineal gland is attached to the roof of the ____ ventricle of the  brain. third

∙ the pineal gland secretes what hormone? melatonin

∙ melatonin regulates the body's biological ____. clock

Other Endocrine Tissues and Organs  

∙ the function of cholecalciferol (released by skin) is to play a role in the  synthesis of ____. calcitriol

∙ the function of the hormones of the gastrointestinal tract is to stimulate the  secretion of ___ ___. pancreatic juices

∙ the function of calcitriol (released by kidneys) is to aid in the absorption of  dietary calcium and _____. phosphorus

∙ the function of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) (released by heart) is to  decrease ___ ___. blood pressure

∙ the function of leptin (released by adipose tissue) is to suppress  ____. appetite

∙ hormones released by placenta mostly have the function of ___ ____. milk  production

Pituitary Gland Disorders 

∙ pituitary ____ and ____ are caused by excess secretion of growth  hormone. Gigantism, acromegaly

∙ pituitary ___ is caused by a deficiency of growth hormone. Dwarfism  

∙ __ ___ is a condition characterized by large amounts of dilute urine and  increased thirst that occurs when there is a lack of antidiuretic hormone.  Diabetes insipidus

Thyroid Gland Disorders  

∙ ___ is caused by a reduction in the production of thyroid hormone. goiter ∙ ____ ____ develops due to excess thyroid hormone. Grave’s disease

Adrenal Gland Disorders  

∙ ____ ____ is caused by excess secretion of glucocorticoids. Cushing's  syndrome

∙ ___ ___ occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid  hormones. Addison’s disease  

Pancreatic Islet Disorders  

∙    ___ ___ occurs when there are high blood sugar levels over a prolonged  period. Diabetes mellitus

Chapter 19- Blood

Characteristics 

∙ oxygen-rich blood's color can be defined as. scarlet

∙ oxygen-poor blood's color can be defined as. dark red

∙ how many liters of blood does the average female carry? 4-5L ∙ how many liters of blood does the average male carry? 5-6L ∙ the average temperature of blood in degrees Farenheit is. 100.4 ∙ the pH of blood is between ____ and ____. 7.35, 7.45

Blood Components:  

Formed Elements  

∙ whole blood is ___% plasma and ____% formed elements. 55%, 45%

∙ the formed elements of blood are red blood cells, white blood cells, and  ____. platelets

∙ whole blood is about ___% of our body weight. 8%

∙ blood plasma contains 7% ____ and 91.5% of water. proteins

∙ the three main proteins found in plasma are ____, globulins, and  fibrinogen. albumins

∙ the most abundant white blood cell is _____. neutrophils ∙ the least abundant white blood cell is ____. Basophils

∙ ___ (inorganic salts) in plasma help maintain osmotic pressure and play  essential roles in cell functions. electrolytes

Plasma Proteins

∙ which plasma protein's function is to help maintain osmotic pressure? it is the most abundant type. albumins

∙ ____ is a plasma protein whose immunoglobins help attack viruses and  bacteria. globulins

∙ _____ is a plasma protein who plays an essential role in blood  clotting. fibrinogen

Hemopoesis:  

Myeloid Line/Lymphoid Line 

∙ a ____ stem cell spawns from a multipotent stem cell, which means they can  become many times of cells. pluripotent

∙ the pluripotent stem cell can either turn into a ___ stem cell, or a ___ stem  cell. Myeloid, lymphoid

∙ a myeloid stem cell turns into a proerythroblast, and eventually a _____ which  turns into a red blood cell. reticulocyte

∙ a myeloid stem cell can become an erthyrocyte, megakaryocyte, or a _____  macrophage. Granulocyte

∙ ___ cells can turn into t cells, b cells, and natural killer cells. Lymphoid

Red Blood Cells 

∙ red blood cells are also known as _____. erthyrocytes

∙ what cell in the body has these characteristics: contain hemoglobin,  anucleate, lacks organelles, contains membrane antigens, and are  flexible. red blood cells (erythrocytes)

Hemoglobin Structure and Function  

∙ globin proteins consist of ____ polypeptides. four

∙ oxyhemoglobin is associated with ____, and its color is scarlet red. O2  (oxygen)

∙ deoxyhemoglobin is dissociated from O2 (oxygen), and its color is ___. darker (bluish)

∙ cabaminohemoglobin is associated with _____. CO2

∙ myoglobin's function is to store O2 in ___ ____. muscle cells ∙ ____ helps regulate nitric oxide (NO). hemoglobin

∙ when released, this gas induces vasodilation. nitric oxide (NO)

RBC Life Cycle 

∙ red blood cells live ____ days. 120

∙ can red blood cells repair? yes or no. no

∙ red blood cells burst due to depleted ___ ___. plasma membrane

∙ red blood cells are destroyed by phagocytic ____ in the spleen and  liver. macrophages

∙ _____ within red blood cells transport most oxygen and part of carbon dioxide  in blood. Hemoglobin

Recycling of Hb and Erythropoesis  

∙ the first step in the recycling of Hb includes _____ by macrophages in the  spleen, liver, or red bone marrow. phagocytosis

∙ in the second step in the recycling of Hb, hemoglobin splits into ____ and ____  portions. Heme, globin

∙ In the recycling of Hb, globin is broken down into ___ ___, which can be reused to synthesize other proteins. Amino acids

∙ In the recycling of Hb, iron is removed from the heme portion and associated  with the plasma protein ____, a transporter for iron in the bloodstream.  Transferrin  

∙ In the recycling of Hb, Fe3+ detaches from transferrin and attaches to a  storage protein ____. Ferritin

∙ In the recycling of Hb, iron gets absorbed into the ____ tract, and reattaches  from ferritin to transferrin again. Gastrointestinal  

∙ In the recycling of Hb, after iron reattaches to transferrin, it is carried to ___  ___ ___ where RBC cells take it up through receptor-meditated endocytosis for  hemoglobin synthesis. Red bone marrow  

∙ In the recycling of Hb, ___ is needed for the heme portion of hemoglobin  synthesis, and ___ ___ are needed for the globin portion. Iron, amino acids

∙ Iron, amino acids, and ___ ___ are needed for the synthesis of hemoglobin.  Vitamin B12

∙ In the recycling of Hb, ____ in red bone marrow results in the production of red blood cells, which enter the circulation. Erythropoiesis

∙ In the recycling of Hb, when the iron portion is removed from heme, the non iron portion is converted to ____, a green pigment, and then into ____, a  yellow-orange pigment. Biliverdin, bilirubin  

∙ In the recycling of Hb, bilirubin enters the blood and is transported to the  ____. liver

∙ In the recycling of Hb, bilirubin is released by liver cells into bile, which  passes into the ___ intestine, and then into the ___ intestine. Small, large

∙ In the large intestine, bacteria convert bilirubin to ____. urobilinogen

∙ In the recycling of Hb, some urobilinogen is absorbed back into the blood,  coverted into a yellow pigment called ___, and excreted in urine. Urobilin  

∙ Most urobilinogen is eliminated in the feces in the form of a brown pigment  called ___, which gives feces a characteristic color. Stercobilin  

∙ ____ is the production of red blood cells or erythrocytes. erythropoiesis

∙ EPO or ____ is a hormone from the kidneys that increase the rate of  production and maturation of erythrocytes. erythropoietin

Hematocrit/Anemia/Polycythemia 

∙ immature red blood cells are called ____, and enter the circulation and mature in 1-2 days. reticulocytes

∙ ____ is packed cell volume (PCV) or the percentage of blood occupied by red  blood cells. hematocrit

∙ female blood normally contains ____ to ____% of red blood cells in blood. 38- 46%

∙ male blood normally contains ____ to ____% of red blood cells in blood. 40- 54%

∙ decreased hematocrit is known as ____. anemia

∙ increased hematocrit is known as ______. polycythemia

∙ when hematocrit decreases, the amount of plasma ____. Increases

White Blood Cells 

∙ white blood cells are also known as _____. leukocytes

∙ red blood cells outnumber white blood cells ____ to 1. 700

∙ ___ is a type of white blood cell can live for months or years. Lymphocytes Leukocytosis/Leukopenia 

∙ ____ is an increase in white blood cells. leukocytosis

∙ _____ is a decrease in white blood cells. leukopenia

∙ ____ is a WBC whose nucleus is multi-lobed and whose function is to fight off  bacterial or fungal infections. Neutrophils

WBC types, charcteristics, functions 

∙ ___ is a WBC whose nucleus is bi-lobed and whose function is to fight off  parasitic infections and allergic reactions. eosinophils

∙ ____ is a WBC whose nucleus is bi/tri-lobed and whose function is releasing  histamine for allergic and antigen responses. basophils

∙ ____ is a WBC whose nucleus is kidney shaped and whose function is the  phagocytosis of pathogens. Eventually they become tissue  

macrophages. monocytes

∙ _____ have a deep, staining, eccentric nucleus. Lymphocytes

Significance of WBC count  

∙ an elevation in WBC usually indicates an ____ in the body. infection ∙ a low WBC count may develop due to several ____. causes

∙ a differential WBC count will help determine if a ____ exists. problem

Emigration of WBCs  

∙ ____ is the movement of cells towards a concentration gradient. chemotaxis ∙ emigration of cells is also known as _____. diapedesis

∙ the adhesion molecule ____ is found on endothelial cells during  diapedesis. selectin

∙ the adhesion molecule ____ is found on neutrophils during  

diapedesis. integrins

Platelets 

∙ platelets are also known as ____. thrombocytes

∙ the forming of platelets (thrombocytes) in bone marrow is known as  ____. thrombopoiesis

∙ _____ is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the liver and kidney which regulates the  production of platelets. thrombopoietin (TBO)

∙ old platelets are removed in the liver and ____. spleen

∙ platelets function is hemostasis where it is the _____. Plug

Blood Clotting

∙ hemostasis is a term used for ___ ___. blood clotting

∙ the first response of blood clotting (hemostasis) is a ____ ___ or  vasoconstriction. vascular spasm

∙ the second response of blood clotting is a ___ ___ formation. platelet plug ∙ the third response of blood clotting is _____. coagulation

∙ the protein that aids in the third step of blood clotting is ____. fibrin

∙ blood clotting can be activated in two ways, by ____ or _____  pathways. extrinsic, instrinsic

∙ both extrinsic/instrinsic pathways lead to the formation of  

____. prothrombinase

∙ clot retraction (tightening of a clot) is also known as ____. fibrinolysis ∙ during fibrinolysis, fibrin threads contract or ___. shrink

∙ small, unwanted clots during fibrinolysis are dissolved by ___, an enzyme that is a part of the fibrinolytic system. plasmin

Blood Groups & Types (transfusion, compatability) 

∙ blood group types are categorized based on presence or absence of  _____. antigens

∙ antibodies are also known as ____. agglutinins

∙ major blood group systems are ___ and ___. ABO, Rh

∙ in red blood cell type A, the antibody ____ is present, and the antigen ___ is  also present. Anti-B, A

∙ in red blood cell type B, the antibody ___ is present, and the antigen ___ is  also present. Anti-A, B

∙ the red blood cell type AB contains ____ anitbodies, and both __ & ___  antigens. no, A, B

∙ red blood cell type O contains _____ and ____ antibodies, and ____  antigens. Anti-A, Anti-B, no

Agglutination  

∙ incompatible blood transfusions can result in ____, or clumping of  blood. agglutination

∙ ____ is the universal blood donor. O-

∙ ____ is the universal blood recipient. AB+

∙ a drop of blood mixed with an antiserum will _____ blood cells that possess  agglunitogens that react with it. agglutinate

Rh factor & pregnancy (Hemolytic disease of newborn)  

∙ antiserum can be used in first pregnancies so that the mother does not  become ____ to the baby. sensitized

∙ those with sickle cell disease contain ______ in their red blood cells, which  causes red blood cells to bend into a sickle shape when they give oxygen to  the interstitial fluid. hemoglobin-S (HB-S)

∙ When a fetus’s red blood cells cross into the mother’s blood through the  placenta and the mother’s immune system sees the fetus’s cells as a  pathogen. Antibodies develop against the baby’s red blood cells. This is  called ___ ___ of the newborn. Hemolytic disease  

Steps in Hemostasis/Blood Clotting 

∙ The three main steps of blood clotting include ____, a temporary blockage of a break by a ____, and blood _____. Vasoconstriction, plug, coagulation

Chapter 20- Heart Structure and  Function

Functions 

∙ the two main functions of the cardiovascular system are ____ and  _____. transport, exchange

Superficial Anatomy  

∙ blood vessels include arteries, ____, and veins. capillaries

∙ the _____ circuit is the flow of blood between the heart and  

lungs. pulmonary

∙ the ____ circuit is the flow of blood between the heart and the cells of the  body. systemic

∙ the heart is located in the ______. Mediastinum

Internal Anatomy 

∙ the ___ ____ collects blood from the pulmonary circuit. left atrium ∙ the ____ ____ pumps blood to the systemic circuit. left ventricle ∙ the ____ ____ collects blood from the systemic circuit. right atrium ∙ the ___ ____ pumps blood to the pulmonary circuit. right ventricle

∙ the great vessels of the heart include the superior/inferior ____ ____, the ____,  and the pulmonary ____. vena cavas, aorta, trunk

∙ the ____ of the heart prevent backflow of blood, and ensure undirectional  blood flow. Valves

Pericardium  

∙ the ____ pericardium protects, anchors, and prevents overstretching. fibrous  (outer)

∙ the ____ pericardium reduces friction. serous (inner)

∙ the pericardial cavity is filled with ____ ____. pericardial fluid ∙ ____ is an inflammation/infection of the pericardium. Pericarditis Heart Wall (three layers)  

∙ the visceral layer of the serous pericardium is also known as the  _____. epicardium

∙ the epicardium is composed of ___ ___ epithelium. simple squamous

∙ the ____ is deep to the epicardium and composed of cardiac muscle  tissue. myocardium

∙ the ____ is deep to the myocardium and is composed of simple squamous  tissue. endocardium

∙ endocardium covers all ____ and is continuous to the large vessels. Valves Auricles & Sulci  

∙ the ____ of the left/right atrium's main function is expansion. auricle

∙ the ___ ___ is in the coronary sulcus, and opens to the right atrium. coronary  sinus

∙ the ____ atrium receives blood from the superior/inferior vena cavas and the  coronary sulcus. Right

∙ ___ ___ is in the anterior atrial wall and inner surfaces of the right auricle.  Pectinate muscle  

∙ the ___ ____ is a wall of tissue that separates the left and right atria of the  heart. Interatrial septum

Atria, ventricles, valves, and structures 

∙ the ____ ____ prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right  atrium. Tricuspid valve

∙ the function of ____ ____ is holding the valves to avoid backflow. chordae  tendineae

∙ the ___ ____ receives blood from the right atrium. right ventricle

∙ the right ventricle sends blood to the ____. Lungs

∙ ___ ____ attach cusps of the AV valves via the chordae tendineae and contract to prevent ventricular contraction. Papillary muscles  

∙ ___ ___ contraction pulls on the chordae tendineae to prevent leakage of  mitral and tricuspid valves (AV) valves. Trabeculae carneae

∙ the ___ ___ valve prevents back flow of blood into the right ventricle and  carries blood to the lungs. Pulmonary semilunar  

∙ the ___ valve carries blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle.  Bicuspid (mitral)  

∙ the ____ ____ is a very thick separation between the two  

ventricles. interventricular septum

∙ the ___ ___ receives blood from the lungs. left atrium

∙ the ___ ___ receives blood from the left atrium. left ventricle ∙ the left ventricle pumps systemic blood.... all over the body ∙ the left ____ has the thickest chamber and pumps systemic blood. Ventricle

∙ the ____ valve pumps blood from the left ventricle to the aorta. Aortic  (semilunar)  

∙ the ____ have thinner walls than the _____. atria, ventricles Fibrous Skeleton  

∙ the ___ ___ is located between the atria and ventricles and it forms the  foundation for which the heart valves attach. fibrous skeleton

∙ the fibrous skeleton is composed of ___ ___ tissue. dense connective

∙ the fibrous skeleton also prevents ____ of the heart valves, serves as a point  of insertion for ___ ___ bundles, and acts as an ____  

insulator. overstretching, cardiac muscle, electrical

Blood Flow 

∙ the right and left _______ valves prevent backflow from the ventricles into the  atria. atrioventricular

∙ the right and left _____ valves prevent backflow from the arteries into the  ventricles. semilunar

∙ heart valves open & close in response to ___ ___ as the heart contracts and  relaxes. pressure changes

Pulmonary Circulation  

∙ the flow of blood begins in the ___ ___ with deoxygenated blood. right  atrium

∙ blood flows from the right atrium through the ____ valve to the right  ventricle. tricuspid

∙ blood flows from the right ventricle through the ____ valve to the pulmonary  trunk and arteries. pulmonary

∙ in the pulmonary capillaries, blood loses ___ ___ and gains O2. carbon  dioxide

∙ blood flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the ___ ___. pulmonary veins ∙ blood flows from the pulmonary veins to the ___ ____. left atrium

∙ blood flows from the left atrium through the ____ valve to the ____  _____. bicuspid (mitral), left ventricle

Systemic Circulation  

∙ blood flows from the left ventricle through the ____ valve to the aorta and ___  ____. aortic, systemic arteries

∙ in the systemic capillaries, blood loses ___ and gains _____. oxygen, CO2

Coronary Circulation  

∙ from the systemic capillaries, blood flows to the superior/inferior ____ ____, or  the coronary ____. vena cavas, sinus

∙ coronary ____ delivers oxygenated blood and nutrients to the  myocardium. arteries

∙ coronary artery branches arise from the ______ _____. ascending aorta

∙ the coronary ____ remove carbon dioxide and wastes from the  myocardium. veins

∙ coronary vein branches converge at the ___ ____. coronary sinus

∙ the aorta branches off into two main coronary vessels called ___  ____. coronary arteries

∙ the left/right coronary artery are known as the anterior/posterior ______  arteries. interventricular

∙ the left coronary arteries nickname is the "_____", because it supplies blood to major areas of the heart and when cut off can be fatal. widowmaker

∙ the left coronary (anterior interventricular) artery branches off into the ____  branch. circumflex

∙ the right coronary (posterior interventricular) artery branches off into the ____ branch. marginal

∙ the ____ interventricular artery supplies the right atria & ventricles with  blood. posterior

∙ _____ or collateral routes are alternate pathways when a big vessel is  blocked. anastomoses

∙ ___ ___ drain blood from the heart into the coronary sinus. coronary veins

∙ which of these is not a major cardiac vein: great, middle, lesser, small,  anterior. Lesser

Cardiac Muscle Histology 

∙ cardiac muscle tissue is branching, ____, and has a single nucleus. striated

∙ ___ ___ support tissue contraction and occur on the z line of a  sarcomere. intercalated discs

∙ intercalated discs is made up of two important structures: ____ and ___  ____. desmosomes, gap junctions

∙ ___ are in cardiac muscle tissue and hold cells together by an adhesive  bond. desmosomes

∙ cardiac muscle tissue is: voluntary or involuntary. involuntary

∙ cardiac muscle tissue is a functional ____, meaning the entire myocardium  behaves as a single unit. syncytium

Conduction System  

∙ the two types of cardiac muscle cells include ____ cells & _____  cells. conduction, contractile

∙ _____ cells of the cardiac muscle are autorythmic. conduction ∙ conduction cells are also known as ______ cells. pacemaker

∙ conduction cells control and coordinate, and result in the spread of ___  ___. action potentials

∙ ____ cells of cardiac muscle produce contractions. contractile ∙ the _____ system is a system of specialized cardiac muscle cells. conduction

∙ the conduction system initiates and distributes ___ ____ that stimulate  contraction. electrical impulses

∙ the cardiac cycle begins with an action potential at the ____ (SA)  _____. sinoatrial node

∙ the ___ ___ produces action potentials in contractile cells. cardiac cycle

∙ activity of heart rate is influenced by the ____ nervous system by ensuring  proper timing of contractions. autonomic

∙ the SA (sinoatrial) node is in the ___ ____ of the right atrium. posterior wall ∙ the atrioventricular bundle is also known as the ___ ___ ____. bundle of His

∙ the ____ (bundle of His) bundle divides into bundle branches and purkinje  fibers. atrioventricular

∙ action potentials in ___ ___ fibers are characterized by rapid, depolarization,  plateau, and repolarization. ventricular contractile

∙ impulse contractions on the heart start in the SA node, and go through the  _____, to the ___ node. atria, AV

∙ after an impulse contraction reaches the AV node, it travels to the ___ ___ ___,  and then the bundled branches and ___ ___. bundle of His, purjinke fibers

∙ after an impulse contraction reaches the bundle ____ and purjinke fibers, they finally end the cycle at the _____. branches, ventricles

Cardiac Cycle 

∙ _____ is a ventricular contraction and ejection. systole

∙ ___ is a ventricular relaxation and filling. diastole

∙ _____ increases pressure in the heart, while ____ decreases  

pressure. contraction, relaxation

∙ ____ of the heart ensure that blood flow is forward by openinh and closing  alternately. Valves

ECG/Pressure & Volume Changes  

∙ an _____ is a device that provides a recording of the electrical changes that  accompany each heartbeat. electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG)

∙ the ___ ____ represents atrial depolarization in an electrocardiogram. P wave

∙ the peak of the P wave is produced by depolarization of ____ ____  fibers. atrial contractile

∙ the end of the P wave is produced by ___ ____. atrial systole

∙ the ____ ____ represents ventricular depolarization in an  

electrocardiogram. QRS complex

∙ the peak of the QRS complex is produced by a depolarization of ___ ____  fibers. ventricle contractile

∙ ____ ___ forms the end of a QRS complex wave. ventricular systole

∙ the ___ ___ represents ventricular repolarization in an electrocardiogram. T  wave

∙ the peak of the T wave is produced by a repolarization of ___ ___  fibers. ventricle contractile

∙ the end of the T wave is produced by ____ ____. ventricular diastole

∙ when atrial contraction begins, the left and right ____ valves are open. AV

∙ when the left and right AV valves are open, the atria eject blood into the  _____. ventricles

∙ when atrial systole begins, AV valves are ____. closed

∙ ____ ____ is the volume of blood in the ventricles at diastole. end-diastolic  volume (EDV)

∙ during ventricular systole, the pressure in ventricles ___, and all AV valves are ____. increases, closed

∙ during ventricular ejection, the ___ valves open and blood flows into the ____  and ____ trunks. semilunar, pulmonary, aortic

Stroke Volume  

∙ ___ ___ is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle of the heart in one contraction (beat). stroke volume

∙ stroke volume is about ___% of end-diastolic volume. 60

∙ when ventricular pressure falls, the ___ valves close and the ventricles  contain end-systolic volume (ESV) which is about ___% of end-diastolic  volume. semilunar, 40

∙ during ventricular _____, ventricular pressure is higher than atrial pressure  and all valves are closed. diastole

∙ ___ ___ is seen when the aortic valve closes, and the mitral valve starts to  fill. isovolumetric relaxation

∙ when the cardiac cycle starts to end, ___ pressure is higher than ___  pressure. atrial, ventricular

Heart Rate & Sounds 

∙ S1 is represented by a "____" sound. lub/lup

∙ S1 (lub) is produced by the __ ___. AV valves

∙ S2 is represented by a "____" sound. dub/dup

∙ S2 (dub) is produced by the ____ ____. semilunar valves

∙ S3 and S4 are ___ sounds made as blood flows into the ____ and aids in ___  ___. soft, ventricles, atrial contraction

Cardiac Output  

∙ ____ ____ is the volume of blood ejected from the left/right ventricle into the  aorta or trunk each minute. Cardiac output  

∙ cardiac output equals ____ ___ multiplied by __ ___. stroke volume, heart  rate

∙ which of these is not a factor that regulates heart rate: age, gender, body  weight, temperature, ions, physical fitness, hormones. body weight

Page Expired
5off
It looks like your free minutes have expired! Lucky for you we have all the content you need, just sign up here