Exam #2 Study Guide
Exam #2 Study Guide BIO 183
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This 10 page Study Guide was uploaded by Anna Huryn on Sunday February 28, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to BIO 183 at North Carolina State University taught by Dr. Miriam Ferzli in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 37 views. For similar materials see Intro to Bio Cell/ Micro in Biological Sciences at North Carolina State University.
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Date Created: 02/28/16
Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli Exam #2 Study Guide Key 1. Calvin cycle reactions occur in the ___, while light reactions occur in the ___. a. stroma; thylakoid membranes b. stroma; thylakoid lumen c. intermembrane space; stroma d. thylakoid membranes; inner membrane 2. During an experiment which measures photosynthesis, you observe that photosynthetic activity is highest at 410nm and at 700nm, corresponding to blue and red light, respectively. This means that at these two wavelengths, the plant is: a. Reflecting light b. Absorbing light c. Transmitting light d. All of the above Use the following image for the next three questions A B 3. The structure labeled “A” is best described as: a. Stroma b. Mesophyll c. Granum d. Intermembrane space 4. The structure labeled “B” is best described as: a. Stroma b. Mesophyll c. Grana d. Intermembrane space 5. The entire image shown above depicts a ___ found in the ___ layer of the plant’s tissues. a. Thylakoid; photosystem b. Stomata; mesophyll c. Granum; chloroplast d. Chloroplast; mesophyll 6. The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis resemble aerobic respiration as both: a. synthesize NADH b. require an electron transport chain to synthesize ATP c. require oxygen as the final electron acceptor d. have the same initial energy source 1 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli 7. When NADPH piles up in the Calvin Cycle, the plant reverts to which type of reaction: a. non-cyclic electron flow b. the regeneration of ribulose bisphosphate c. cyclic electron flow d. CAM pathway 8. Which of the following is a waste product of photosynthesis? a. Oxygen b. CO 2 c. Water d. Both a and c are correct 9. How have C pl4nts adapted to harsh environmental conditions that would normally lead to photorespiration? a. They have a structural adaptation in the mesophyll to keep Rubisco within the bundle sheath layer so that it does not come into contact with oxygen. b. They have PEP carboxylase, which specifically binds with carbon dioxide even in the presence of high oxygen concentrations within the mesophyll layer. c. They have substituted oxaloacetate for ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP). d. Both a and b are correct 10. Plants like cacti and pineapples live in hot, arid regions where desiccation is a real danger. These plants have evolved a mechanism that allows: a. CO2 to enter only at night when the stomata are open b. A series of reactions using PEP carboxylase to bind and store CO2during the night for use during the light reactions. c. PEP carboxylase to only bind to oxygen d. Both a and b are correct 11. Neurotransmitters are released from presynaptic axon terminals into the synaptic cleft by which mechanism? a. Receptor-medicated endocytosis b. Active transport c. Facilitated transport d. Signal transduction e. Exocytosis 12. Neurons communicate with each other through synaptic clefts, which are a type of ____. a. Tight junction b. Anchoring junction c. Gap junction d. Stomata e. plasmodesmata 13. Which animal movement could be used as an analogy for representing impulse conductance along a myelinated axon? a. A person on a power walk 2 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli b. An earthworm moving along the surface of the ground c. An amoeba extending pseudopodia d. A moth moving toward a light e. A frog leaping between lily pads 14. Which of the following cells produce myelin: a. Oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Dendrocytes e. Both answers a and b are correct 15. When sodium comes into the cell as a result of a stimulus, it must reach the threshold potential in order to cause an action potential. What is the threshold potential? a. -70mV b. -50mV c. +40mV d. -60mV 16. What three factors contribute to returning a cell to rest: a. Na+/K+ pumps, action potentials, voltage-gated channels b. Large negatively charged proteins inside the cell, action potentials, voltage-gated channels c. Na+/K+ pumps, leaking of K+ out of the cell, large negatively charged proteins inside the cell d. None of the above 17. The threshold potential is reached when “sufficient” ____, causing an all-or-none response: a. Calcium exits the cell b. Sodium enters the cell c. Sodium exits the cell d. Potassium exits the cell e. Both answers a and b are correct 18. Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for muscle contraction, it is one of the most common neurotransmitters in both invertebrates and vertebrates. Can be inhibitory or excitatory, depending on the type of receptor. a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Norepinephrine e. Neuropeptides 19. Mating a male donkey to a female horse produces mules, which are sterile organisms because their chromosomes cannot pair properly during metaphase I of meiosis. Horses have 64 chromosomes and donkeys have 62 chromosomes. How many chromosomes do mules have? a. The mule has 64 chromosomes as does its mother. b. The mule has 63 chromosomes. c. The mule has 126 chromosomes. d. The mule has 62 chromosomes as does its father. e. None of the above 3 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli 20. What events are responsible for the genetic variability seen in meiosis? a. The direction in which a parental chromosome faces during metaphase I is random b. Homologous chromosomes exchange DNA with one another. c. Sister chromatids separating d. Homologous chromosomes separating during Anaphase I e. Both answers a and b are correct. 21. A duplicated chromosome contains: a. two DNA double helices b. four strands of DNA c. two sister chromatids d. all of the above e. none of the above 22. During the metaphase stage of mitosis or meiosis, spindle fibers attach to a portion of the chromosomes known as the: a. kinetochore b. centrioles c. centromere d. chromatin e. synaptonemal complex 23. Which of the following correctly lists the order of the stages during mitosis? a. anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase b. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase c. telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase d. metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase 24. A chiasma is a specific point between two chromosomes that allows: a. Crossing over to occur during synapsis b. Homologous pairs to exchange genetic material c. Spindle fibers to attach d. Tetrads to form e. Both a and b are correct 25. Meiosis comes from a Greek word that means "to decrease." What decreases during the process of meiosis? a. the length of the DNA double helices b. the size of chromosomes c. the number of chromosomes d. sister chromatids during meiosis II e. none of the above 26. To what does the term haploid refer? a. chromosomes that contain the same genes 4 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli b. a complete set of chromosomes from a single cell that have been stained for microscopic examination c. cells that contain a pair of each type of chromosome d. cells that contain only one of each type of chromosome Use the following diagram to answer the following three questions: A B 27. The cell depicted above has four chromosomes in its diploid state. Which phase does it show? a. Metaphase of mitosis; metaphase I of meiosis b. Anaphase of mitosis; anaphase I of meiosis c. Anaphase of meiosis d. Prophase of mitosis; prophase II of meiosis e. Metaphase of mitosis 28. Which of the following is true about the structure labeled “A”? a. It produces spindle fibers used to pull sister chromatids apart b. It is a pair of centrioles c. It replicates during metaphase I d. All of the above e. Answers a and b are correct 29. Structure “B” represents: a. kinetochores b. spindle fibers c. centrioles d. centromeres e. chromatids 30. The following diagram shows the result of a parent cell which has four chromosomes in its diploid state. Which phase is represented? a. Telophase of meiosis I b. Telophase of meiosis II c. Telophase of mitosis d. Prophase of meiosis II 5 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli 31. If the diploid chromosome number of an organism is 48, its haploid chromosome number must be ______24_________. 32. DNA replication occurs during the _________S_____________ stage of Interphase. 33. ___NADP+____________________ is the final electron acceptor in the light reactions of photosynthesis. 34. ______PSII___________________________, found in the light reactions of photosynthesis, is the only protein complex that can oxidize water. 35. In photosynthesis, light energy transfer proceeds from the ______accesory (secondary; ½ pt. for chlorophyll b, carotenoids, or xanthophylls)__________________ to chlorophyll a. 36. In the neuron, the __terminal branches_______________________________________ is the site where intracellular calcium binds to vesicles to stimulate neurotransmitter release 37. The synaptic cleft is the junction between the __pre-synaptic_________________________ and ___post-synaptic____________________________ membranes. 38. Use the following image of a photosystem to do the following (a-b): a. Label the light harvesting complex[structure where pigment molecule, chlorophyll, is labeled on the diagram] b. Label the reaction center AND state its function: primary pigment (is the P680 in this diagram), corresponding to chlorophyll a; gets photoexcited as accessory pigments transfer light energy to it. Its photoexcited electrons are taken up by the primary electron acceptor before they go down to ground state. c. What is the main product of PS II AND what is it used for? 6 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli ATP used for the Calvin cycle d. What is the main product of PS I AND what is it used for? NADPH used for the Calvin cycle e. Where does PS II get its electrons once the primary electron acceptor is reduced? From water f. Where does PS I get its electrons once the primary electron acceptor is reduced? From PS II’s electron transport chain 39. List and explain the three phases of the Calvin Cycle. (NOTE: you must use the following in your explanation: number of each molecule used; RuBP, Rubisco, G3P, glucose, CO , ATP, 2 NADPH, NADP , ADP + P ) i; a. Carbon fixation: rubisco is fixing CO 2o RuBP must say this at minimum in order to make stable 3C molecules. For a total Calvin process (two turns of the cycle), 6 CO2 molecules are used and 6 RuBP molecules; 12 3C molecules result. [NOTE: all answers indicate the total Calvin process] b. Reduction and carbohydrate formation: CO i2 being reduced by accepting electrons from NADPH (and phosphate groups from ATP)—must say something to the effect that ATP and NADPH are helping to “build” up CO t2 result in G3P which is used to make glucose. NADP+ and ADP + Pi are left over from this process (are outputs) and return to the light reactions (photosystems/ETC to make more NADPH and ATP); 12 NADPH and 12 ATP molecules are used; 2 G3P molecules leave the cycle to make glucose. 10 G3P molecules continue to the regeneration phase. c. Regeneration: RuBP returns back to its original configuration with the help of ATP; 10 G3P molecules are used for the regeneration of RuBP with the help of 6 ATP molecules. 40. Compare and contrast C4 and CAM plants: a. Both have adaptations to secure CO2 and store it by using the enzyme PEP carboxylase. C4 plants have a structural adaptation, while CAM plants have a temporal adaptation. In C4 plants, PEP carboxylase fixes CO2 to make a 4-carbon molecule, hence, C4-pathway. This molecule is shunted into the bundle sheath layer, a specialized region of the plant, where rubisco is housed and where the Calvin cycle can proceed as normal. By having this structural separation, the C4 plants prevent rubisco from coming into contact with oxygen, which can bind to it and cause photorespiration. CAM plants open their stomata 7 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli at night to prevent water loss when it is hot. They then store the CO2 by producing a 4- carbon molecule in the same manner as C4 plants. In the daytime, they close their stomata and use the stored up 4-carbon molecule to release CO2 for the Calvin cycle to proceed. The Calvin cycle can proceed in the daytime, because the light reactions can operate and produce the ATP and NADPH. 41. For the following diagram: a. Label these structures: i. cell body: integrates info ii. dendrites: picks up info iii. axon:transmits signal iv. nodes of Ranvier:where the action potential is generated; impulse travels from node to node; causes salutatory action; conducts impulse v. Myelin sheath:insulates; causes salutatory action; protect axon, etc. b. Give the function of each structure 1-5 c. Indicate where a synaptic cleft would occur.(must indicate this where the two neurons come together; at the synapse) d. Explain the movement of a signal in the neuron. (jumps from node to node; salutatory; in one direction through the axon) 42. For the following diagram: a. Label the threshold potential: 2 b. What is important about the threshold potential?: must be reached to get an impulse; (-50 to -55mV) c. Label where the cell is being depolarized: 3 d. What causes depolarization?: opening of sodium gates (the activation gates) and Na+ going into the cell; cell getting more positive inside and peaks at about +40-+50mV) e. Label repolarization: 4 f. What causes repolarization?: shutting of sodium channel by closing inactivation gate and opening of potassium gates; sodium kept from coming into the cell and potassium going out; the inside of the cell gets negative. g. Label the resting potential and state what it is in millivolts: 1; -70mV h. Explain why a nervous impulse can only travel in one direction down an axon. The sodium inactivation gates do not allow the sodium channels to reopen in response to a nearby stimulus. 8 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli 43. The following parent cell has a total of four chromosomes. It has not undergone Interphase. Do the following: a. Show how this cell would look at each phase of meiosis I and II b. On your drawings, label the following structures: i. Tetrad ii. Homologous pairs iii. Sister chromatids iv. Show when crossing over would occur See the class assignment we completed and be prepared to answer a similar question on the exam with a different chromosome number. 9 Anna Huryn Exam #2 Study Guide Key – BIO 183 Dr. Miriam Ferzli 44. Compare mitosis and meiosis with regard to type of cell, number of nuclear divisions, number of DNA replications, type/number of daughter cells, haploid/diploid: Mitosis Meiosis Autosomal (or body) Sex cell (gamete) Type of Cell Number of 1 2 cell/nuclear divisions Number of DNA 1 1 replications Diploid or haploid Diploid Haploid Number of Daughter 2 4 cells Type of daughter cell Identical Unique 10
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