Test 2 study guide BIOL 2510
Test 2 study guide BIOL 2510 BIOL 2510 - 012
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This 16 page Study Guide was uploaded by Laura Nall on Monday March 7, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to BIOL 2510 - 012 at Auburn University taught by Jeffrey Goessling in Winter 2016. Since its upload, it has received 205 views. For similar materials see Human Anatomy and Physiology II in Biology at Auburn University.
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Anatomy and Physiology Test 2 Study Guide Jeffrey Goessling March 10, 2016 1. What are the two ways O2 is transported in blood? a. 1.5% dissolved in plasma b. 98.5% bound to hemoglobin 2. What is oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin? a. Oxyhemoglobin = hemoglobin bound to O2 b. Deoxyhemoglobin = hemoglobin with no O2 3. Affinity (binding strength) of hemoglobin to oxygen (increases/decreases) with oxygen saturation? a. Increases 4. How many oxygen can each hemoglobin bind? a. 4 5. What is the relationship between hemoglobin saturation and blood PO2 in the oxygenHb dissociation curve? a. There is a steep curve in the graph and then it becomes much less steep. As hemoglobin saturation increases, so does blood PO2 6. What factors alter the curve of the oxygen dissociation graph? a. Temperature = increased temperature makes the curve less steep, while decreased temperature steepens the curve b. Blood pH c. PCO2 7. What is are the three key PO2 to remember? a. PO2 of lungs = 100 mmHg b. PO2 of resting tissues = 40 mmHg c. PO2 of exercising tissues = 20 mmHg 8. Affinity (binding strength) of hemoglobin to oxygen (increases/decreases) with carbon dioxide saturation? a. Decreases 9. During exercise, there is ________ temperature, ________ PCO2, and ________ blood pH. Fill in the blanks with increased or decreased. a. Increased temperature, increased PCO2, and decreased blood pH 10. If much CO2 is added, will the oxygen dissociation graph shift the left or right? a. Right 11. What three ways is CO2 transported in blood? a. Dissolved in plasma – 10% b. Bound to hemoglobin – 20% c. Form bicarbonate ion from CO2 reaction – 70% 12. What is hyperventilation and what does it cause? a. Breathing exceeding metabolic needs that causes low CO2, lower H+, and respiratory alkalosis (blood pH too basic) 13. What is hypoventilation and what does it cause? a. Breathing not meeting metabolic needs that causes high PCO2, higher H+, and respiratory acidosis (blood pH too acidic) 14. What is IRDS? a. Infant respiratory disease syndrome is caused from premature birth where there isn’t enough surfactant which would cause a tendency for the lungs to collapse 15. What are the prevention/treatment methods for IRDS? a. Antenatal steroids, continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), and surfactant treatment 16. What is asthma? a. The inflammation of the airways that results in shortness of breath, wheezing, and coughing 17. What are the causes of asthma? a. Genetic, exercise, cold air, and allergens 18. What is the treatment method for asthma? a. Inhalers containing steroids that reduce swelling 19. What is COPD? a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease causes difficulty breathing, hypoventilation, coughing, and pulmonary infections 20. What is the treatment method for COPD? a. Inhalers containing steroids or bronchodilators 21. What are two more possible results of COPD? a. Chronic bronchitis – excessive mucus production, inflammation of airways b. Emphysema – destruction of alveoli 22. What are the four functions of the digestive system? a. Ingestion: take in food b. Digestion: break down food into component nutrients c. Absorption: absorb nutrient molecules into blood d. Defecation: expel indigestible remains 23. Who is the fistulated man? a. Alexis St. Martin 24. Who is “The Father of Gastric Physiology?” a. William Beaumont 25. How long is the GI tract? a. 9 m 26. What are the two main divisions of the digestive system? a. Alimentary canal (GI tract) – mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum b. Accessory organs – teeth, tongue, salivary glands, gall bladder, liver pancreas 27. What are the six processes to the digestive system? a. Ingestion – taking in solids and liquids via oral cavity b. Propulsion – movement of food through the GI tract i. Deglutition = to move from oral cavity to esophagus ii. Peristalsis = wavelike alternation of contraction and relaxation of smooth muscles to move food through the GI tract c. Mechanical digestion – 3 parts i. Mastication (chewing) = increases surface area of food components and mixes the food with saliva ii. Churning = in the stomach to mix food with gastric juices iii. Segmentation = rhythmic constriction of small intestines to mix food and expose all surfaces for absorption d. Chemical digestion – enzymes break down food molecules into their component nutrients e. Absorption – passage of digested food, vitamins, minerals, and water from the GI tract into the blood and lymph (this mostly occurs in the small intestines) f. Defecation – elimination of indigestible substances from body via feces 28. What are the four serous membranes of the digestive system? a. Parietal peritoneum, visceral peritoneum, mesentery, and retroperitoneal 29. What is the mesentery serous membrane of the digestive system? a. Double layer of serous membranes extending from body wall to digestive orgnd that provides a pathway for blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves, holds organs in place, and stores fat 30. What is the retroperitoneal serous membrane of the digestive system? a. Includes most of the large intestine and part of the small intestine and is where organs have lost direct dorsal mesentery contact 31. The mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa are the four layers of the _____. a. GI tract 32. What is the mucosa and what are its functions? a. Secretes mucus, digestive enzymes, and hormones b. Absorbs the end products of digestion into blood c. Protects against infectious diseases, including ingested microbes d. Has three sublayers, including simple columnar epithelium, lamina propria (areolar connective tissue), and muscularis mucosae (smooth muscle) 33. What is the submucosa and what are its functions? a. Thick areolar connective tissue that contains blood and lymphatic vessels, nerve fibers, and small glands 34. What is the muscularis externa and what are its functions? a. Is important for segmentation and peristalsis b. Has two layers including the inner circular layer (smooth muscle that controls lumen diameter) and the outer longitudinal layer (smooth muscle that controls the tract length) 35. What is the serosa and what are its functions? a. The visceral peritoneum that is the outermost layer and is replaced by the adventitia in the esophagus 36. What type of control of the GI Tract Activity has enteric neurons and some control over segmentation and peristalsis? a. Intrinsic 37. What does the submucosal nerve plexus do? a. Controls activity of glands and mucosal smooth muscles 38. What does the myenteric nerve plexus do? a. Controls GI tract motility 39. The extrinsic control of the GI tract includes what two types of nervous system inputs? a. Sympathetic and parasympathetic 40. The sympathetic nervous system input _________ secretion and motility, while the parasympathetic nervous system input _________ secretion and motility. a. Decreases; increases 41. Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are three major classes of food ____________. a. Macromolecules 42. “–ase” is a suffix that means an _______, while “—ose” means a sugar a. Enzyme 43. What are the functions of the oral cavity? a. Ingestion, mastication (chewing), deglutition (swallowing), digestion (mechanical and chemical) 44. What are the 6 parts of the oral cavity and their description? a. Palatine tonsils = lymph notes b. Palate = roof of the mouth c. Uvula = projection off soft plate d. Lingual frenulum = secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth e. Labial frenulum = joins lip to gum f. Defensins = antimicrobial peptides produced by oral mucosa 45. What type of muscle is the tongue and what is it used for? a. Skeletal muscle that mixes food and forms bolus and is used for chewing swallowing and speaking 46. What are the four types of papillae on the tongue? a. Filiform – keratin, contains no taste buds, and is the most numerous b. Fungiform – scattered throughout and contain taste buds c. Circumvallate – a row at the back of the tongue that contains tast buds d. Foliate – posterolateral that contains taste buds but function in taste only in early infancy/childhood 47. What are the functions of saliva? a. Cleanses mouth b. Has a pH of 6.577 c. Secretes salivary amylase (which digests carbohydrates) and lingual lipase (which digests fats) d. Microorganism defense 48. What are the three types of microorganism defense in saliva? a. Defensins – antimicrobial proteins b. IgA antibodies – causes phagocytosis by white blood cells and prevent pathogens from adhering to mucous membranes c. Lysozymes – enzyme that damage bacterial cell walls 49. What are the three types of salivary glands? a. Parotid b. Submandibular c. Sublingual 50. Is saliva stimulated by the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system? a. Parasympathetic 51. When there is a strong activation of the sympathetic nervous system, what happens? a. Vasoconstriction and a decrease in blood delivery to the salivary glands which decreases salivation 52. Our 20 baby teeth fall out by age thirteen, leaving us with 32 __________ teeth as adults. a. Permanent 53. Hydroxyapatite does what for our teeth? a. Protects them against abrasion and acid 54. What is the crown of a tooth and what are the outer and inner surfaces made of? a. The exposed part of the tooth above the gumline. The outser surface is covered with enamel and has hydroxyapatite. The interior is made of dentin, which is calcified and protein rich 55. What is the root of a tooth and what are the outer and inner surfaces made of? a. This part is embedded in the jaw bone. The outer surface is covered in cement, while the interior is mostly dentin. 56. What is the esophagus and what is its function? a. Extends from the pharynx to stomach and enters the abdominal cavity through esophageal hiatus; its function is to move food to the stomach via peristalsis 57. Where does the esophagus join the stomach and what is the function of this area of the body? a. Gastroesophageal sphincter = allows food to pass into the stomach, but prevents stomach acid from entering the esophagus 58. What are the four regions of the stomach? a. Cardiac region, fundus, body, pyloric region 59. Which sphincter is at the beginning of the stomach passageway, and which is at the end? a. Gastroesophageal sphincter – beginning b. Pyloric sphincter – end, that controls emptying into intestine 60. The bolus becomes _____, which means a creamy paste. a. Chyme 61. Rugae in the stomach are ______ folds. a. Mucosal 62. The ___________ cells in the stomach secrete viscous and alkaline mucus, which protects the stomach lining from acidity. a. Surface epithelium 63. _________ has gastric glands and gastric pits, which are openings into those glands. a. Mucosa 64. What are the four glandular secretory cells? a. Mucous neck cells = secretes thin, acidic mucus b. Parietal cells = HCl and Intrinsic Factor (glycoprotein needed for Vitamin B12 absorption in the small intestine) c. Chief cells = secretes pepsinogen and small amount of lipase d. Enteroendorine cells = produce five chemical messengers 65. What are the five chemical messengers produced by enteroendocrine cells and their function? a. Gastrin – stimulates HCl secretion and stomach motility b. Histamine – stimulates HCl secretion c. Endorphins – suppress appetite d. Serotonin – causes contraction of stomach muscles e. Somatostatin – inhibits stomach secretion and motility 66. The ______ phase of gastric secretion happens before food enters the stomach and is caused from smell, taste, site, or thought of food. a. Cephalic 67. In the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, which nerve stimulates the stomach? a. Vagus nerve 68. The ______ phase of gastric secretion happens when food is in the stomach, where gastrin is released to digest food, and then gastrin is inhibited so that the stomach can empty. a. Gastric 69. What are the two parts of the gastric phase of gastric secretion? a. Stimulation = stretch receptors are activated and chemical changes cause the release of gastrin to help digest partially digested proteins, caffeine; causes an increase in pH b. Inhibition = low pH inhibits gastrin secretion so that the stomach can prepare to empty 70. The ______ phase of gastric secretion is where the food is entering the duodenum. a. Intestinal 71. What are the two parts of the intestinal phase? a. Stimulation (brief) = influx of chyme triggers intestinal gastrin release b. Inhibition = includes distension,, acidic, fatty, or hypertonic conditions 72. What is the largest gland in the body? a. Liver 73. What are the functions of the liver? a. Produces bile for fat digestion, including bile salts and lecithin that emulsify fats, and filters blood 74. What is the path of blood flow to and from the liver? a. Hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein sinusoids hepatic vein inferior vena cava right atrium 75. What is the function of the gallbladder? a. Stores and concentrates bile 76. What is the function of the pancreas? a. Produces digestive enzymes for fats, cars, and proteins, and regulates bile and pancreatic secretion 77. What are the two types of pancreatic cells? a. Islets of Langerhans – produce and release hormone i. Alpha cells produce glucagon that breaks down glycogen to make glucose (increases plasma glucose levels) ii. Beta cells produce insulin that signals cells to uptake glucose (decreases plasma glucose levels) b. Acinar cells – exocrine cells that produce enzymes and store inactive enzymes i. Examples of inactive enzymes: trypsinogen, chymotrysinogen, procarboxypeptidase ii. Examples of other enzymes: pancreatic amylase (carbohydrate, starch, oligosaccharides to disaccharides) and pancreatic lipase (lipid, triglycerides to monoglycerides, and fatty acids) 78. Secreten and cholecystokinin (CCK) are secreted when ________ enters the duodenum. a. Chyme 79. _________ stimulates the secretion of bile from liver cells and pancreatic juice fromm pancreatic acinar cells. a. Secreten 80. _________ stimulates the contraction of the gall bladder (that secretes bile into bile duct), the secretion of pancreatic juice from pancreatic acinar cells, and relaxation of hepatopancreatic sphincter so pancreatic juice and bile can enter the duodenum. a. Cholecystokinin (CCK) 81. What are the major functions of the small intestines, including the 3 divisions of it? a. Completes digestion and absorption of nutrients in the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum 82. The __________ receives chyme from the stomach, pancreatic juice, and bile, and also includes the most absorption in the small intestines. a. Duodenum 83. The middle portion of the small intestines is known as the _________. a. Jejunum 84. The last region of the small intestine, the ileum, joins the large intestine at the _______ valve. a. Ileocecal 85. The ______ folds of the small intestines are deep folds of the mucosa and submucosa that slow movement of chyme. a. Circular 86. What are the fingerlike projections of mucosa in the small intestines called? a. Villi 87. These intestinal crypts are tubular glands between villi that are made of epithelial cells that secrete intestinal juice and enteroendocrine cells that secrete CCK and secretin. a. Crypts of lieberkuhn 88. What are the tiny bristlelike projections of absorptive cells in the small intestines called? a. Microvilli 89. The apical side in carbohydrate absorption is related to cotransport with Na+, while the basolateral side is related to ________ diffusion. a. Facilitated 90. What are the six steps of fat emulsification and absorption? a. Bile salts and lecithin in duodenum break up fat globules into small droplets. b. Lipase breaks fats into monoglycerides and fatty acids. c. Bile salts and lecithin surround monoglycerides and fatty acids creating micelles. d. At apical surface of epithelial cells, lipid substances move into cells by diffusion. e. In epithelial cells converted back into fat and combined with cholesterol, phospholipids creating chylomicrons. f. Chylomicrons transported to lymphatic capillaries via exocytosis. 91. What are the two major functions of the large intestines? a. Water absorption by osmosis b. Feces production 92. Which part of the large intestines is a saclike first portion below the ileocecal valve? a. Cecum 93. Which part of the large intestines is a mass of lymphoid tissue that extends from the cecum? a. Appendix 94. Name the four regions of the colon. a. Ascending – up the right side b. Transverse – across abdomen c. Descending – down the left side d. Sigmoid – sshaped where it enters the pelvic and joins the rectum 95. What are the last two parts of the large intestines? a. Rectum and anal canal 96. What is the name of the commensal bacteria in the large intestines that synthesizes B&K vitamins, ferments undigested carbohydrates, keeps pathogenic microbes in check, and interacts with the immune system? a. Gut microbiome 97. Prebiotics are food for good bacteria, known as _________ a. Probiotics 98. Which structure of the small intestines are tiny projections that give the mucosal surface a “silky” feeling? a. Microvilli 99. The absorption of carbohydrates and amino acids utilizes a _________ cotransport system. a. Sodium (Na) 1. True or false: chylomicrons are directly absorbed into blood. a. False. They are absorbed into lacteles 2. True or false: amino acids are directly absorbed into blood. a. True 3. The inflammation of the liver that is caused by viruses and toxins and causes fibrosis (scarring) and cirrhosis (chronic inflammation) is known as what? a. Hepatitis 4. What type of hepatitis is the most common? a. Type C 5. What are erosions of the stomach wall called that is caused by helicobacter pylori and treated with antibiotics? a. Gastric ulcers 6. What is the fancy word for heartburn that is caused by acidic gastric juice going up the esophagus? a. Gastroesophageal reflux disease 7. Why doesn’t this very acidic stomach juice affect the stomach lining? a. Gastric mucosal surface 8. What is gallstones? a. Low bile results in cholesterol crystallizing in the gall bladder, and these crystals can block the cystic duct 9. What is jaundice? a. Accumulation of yellow bile pigments in the blood that can be due to bile duct blockage 10. ________ are substances in foods the body needs for growth, maintenance, and repair. a. Nutrients 11. The energy of food is measured in ________, which is the amount of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water 1 degree C a. Kilocalories 12. Chemical reactions occurring in the cells, including two types (anabolism and catabolism) is called what? a. Metabolism 13. Reactions that make smaller molecules into larger ones are called ______. a. Anabolism 14. The process that breaks down complex structures into simpler ones is known as ________. a. Catabolism 15. What are the three macro nutrients called? a. Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins 16. What are the two micro nutrients called? a. Vitamins = organic molecules that function as coenzymes; D is made in skin, B and K synth by intestinal bacteria, and A converted from betacarotine b. Minerals = are in charge of structure and ion balance 17. How does glucose enter a cell? a. Facilitated diffusion 18. In glycogenesis, ______ combines to form glycogen, where it is mostly stored in liver and skeletal muscle a. Glycogen 19. ________ is the formation of triglycerides and usually formed in adipose tissue a. Lipogenesis 20. What is the formula for the aerobic pathway for ATP synthesis and how many ATP does it give off? a. C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O gives off 32 ATP 21. What are the pros and cons to the aerobic pathway? a. Pros = yields lots of ATP for each glucose and provides energy for hours of activity b. Cons = is a slow process that needs oxygen 22. What is glycolysis? a. Is an anaerobic process that occurs in cytosol and the end products are 4 ATP (2 net), 2 NADH, 2 pyruvic acid 23. What are the steps to glycolysis? a. Glucose phosphorylated to glucose6phosphate then converted to fructose1,6 biphosphate (ATP requiring processes) b. Fructose1,6biphosphate cleaved into two 3carbon fragments c. 3carbon fragments oxidized (give up H+) d. NAD+ is reduced (picks up the H+) forming NADH i. NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is a coenzyme – activate enzymes and serve as hydrogen (or electron) acceptors e. ATP formed by substratelevel phosphorylation – P from 3carbon fragments added to ADP 24. What is the Krebs cycle? a. Occurs in the mitochondria and it has end products (for each pyruvic acid molecule) of 3 CO2, 1 FADH, 4 NADH, and 1 ATP 25. What are the steps to the Krebs cycle? a. Carbons removed from acetyl CoA (& subsequent substrates) b. Acetyl CoA (& subsequent substrates) oxidized c. NAD+ & FAD (Flavin adenine dinucleotide; another coenzyme) reduced forming NADH & FADH2 d. 1 molecule of ATP formed by substrate level phosphorylation for each “turn” of cycle 26. What is oxidative phosphoylation a. Occurs via electron transport chain at the inner mitochondrial membrane and has end products of 28 ATP and 6 H2O 27. What are the steps to oxidative phorphorylation? a. FADH2 and NADH give up H atoms to enzyme complexes within membrane b. H atoms split into proton and electron i. Electrons get passed down successive complexes, combine with O to form H2O ii. Protons pumped into intermembrane space c. H+ travel through ATP synthase providing energy for P to be attached to ADP 28. The digestion of _________ includes the change from triglycerides to monoglycerides and fatty acids because cells take up glycerol and fatty acids. a. Lipids 29. Where are lipids stored? a. Adipose tissue 30. The digestion of ________ includes the change from proteins to amino acids. a. Proteins 31. Cells take up amino acids by __________. a. Active transport 32. In a process known as _________, excess amino acids are converted to triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue. a. Lipogenesis 33. _________ is where glycogen is broken down to provide glucose and is located in liver and skeletal muscle. a. Glycogenolysis 34. _________ is where glycerol and amino acids are converted to glucose and is located in the liver. a. Gluconeogenesis 35. _________ is where triglycerides are catabolized into glycerol and fatty acids and is located in adipose tissue and the liver. a. Lipolysis 36. Tissue proteins are catabolized/anabolized during prolonged fasting. a. Catabolized 37. Which type of fat contains double bonds between carbon atoms? a. Unsaturated fats 38. Unsaturated fats undergo hydrogenation to become ________. a. Trans fats 39. Why are trans fats so bad? a. Increases LDL (low density lipoproteins), otherwise known as “bad cholesterol” b. Decreases HDL (high density lipoproteins), otherwise known as “good cholesterol” c. Reduces endothelial function 40. What are the functions of kidneys? a. Eliminate nitrogenous wastes, toxins, and drugs b. Maintains ionic balance, acid/base balance, and water balance c. Conserves important substances, such as glucose and amino acids d. Secretes renin (regulates blood pressure) and erythropoietin (hormone for red blood cell production) 41. The kidneys lie ______________ between the dorsal body wall and the parietal peritoneum. a. Retroperioneally 42. What are the three layers of tissue around each kidney? a. Renal fascia = outermost layer made of dense connective tissue b. Perirenal fat capsule = the fatty mass that holds kidney in place and cushions against mechanical trauma c. Fibrous capsule = innermost layer that adheres directly to the kidney surface and prevents surrounding infections from entering the kidneys 43. What are the three components to the internal anatomy of kidneys? a. Renal cortex = superficial region that is light colored and has a granular appearance b. Renal medulla = deep to the cortex that is a reddishbrown color and has a smooth appearance; it contains renal pyramids, which are coneshaped tissue masses that drain urine from nephrons c. Minor/major calyces = drains urine from pyramids into the renal pelvis, which then drains urine into the ureter, which then drains urine to the bladder 44. What is the blood flow through the kidney? a. Descending aorta renal artery afferent arterioles glomerulus efferent arterioles peritubular capillaries/vasa recta renal vein 45. The ______ supply filters the entire plasma volume 4060 times a day, filters 1200 mL blood/minute to create 1 mL of urine, ending in an average of about 1500 mL/day urine output a. Blood 46. What are nephrons? a. The functional unit of kidneys that are responsible for urine formation, including filtration, secretion, and reabsorption; they consist of a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule 47. What is the blood supply in nephrons? a. Afferent arteriole glomerulus (capillary bed filters plasma here) efferent arteriole peritubular capillaries/vasa recta (helps secrete/reabsorb blood in renal tubules 48. What is Bowman’s capsule and what are the two layers of it? a. A hollow structure that surrounds the glomerulus including a parietal layer made of simple squamous epithelium and a visceral layer made of podocytes that allow filtrate to drain into space inside Bowman’s capsule 49. What are the four parts of the renal tubule in nephrons? a. Proximal convoluted tubule = attached to Bowman’s capsule and where most reabsorption takes place b. Loop of Henle (LOH) = a Ushaped loop that connects Bowman’s capsule to the Distal Convoluted tubule; the descending LOH is permeable to water and impermeable to NaCL, while the ascending LOH is permeable to NaCl and impermeable to water c. Distal convoluted tubule = connects the Loop of Henle to the Collecting duct and includes some Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion d. Collecting duct = empties urine into renal pyramids and includes some water and Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion 50. This part of nephrons is the region where the ascending Loop of Henle makes contact with afferent/efferent arteriole. a. Juxtaglomerular apparatus 51. What are the three types of cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus? a. Macula densa cells = part of the ascending Loop of Henle that detects changes in NaCl contents of filtrate b. Granular cells = in the wall of afferent arteriole and detects changes in blood pressure in afferent arterioles and secrete renin c. Extraglomerular mesangial cells = between the ascending Loop of Henle and arteriole that contain gap junctions and transmit signals between the macula densa and granular cells 52. What are the two types of nephrons? a. Cortical nephrons (85%) = the Loop of Henle is short and mostly in the cortex; associated with peritubular capillaries b. Juxtamedullary nephron (15%) = the Loop of Henle is long and extends deep into the medulla; associated with vasa recta capillaries and specialized in concentrating urine to reabsorb more water 53. In the filtration part of urine formation, what is filtered out? a. Plasma 54. In the reabsorption part of urine formation, what sorts of valuable substances are moved from the filtrate to the blood? a. Water, glucose, ions, amino acids, and vitamins 55. In the secretion part of urine formation, what is moving from the blood to the filtrate? a. Unneeded substances 56. The __________________ is the volume of filtrate formed each minute, and the normal is 120125 mL/min. a. Glomerular filtration rate 57. What is the formula of net filtration pressure? a. HP GC(HP +BCP ) GC 58. What is hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HP GC a. Blood pressure in the glomerulus that pushes water and solutes into Bowman’s Capsule 59. Why is the hydrostatic pressure high in the glomerular capillaries as compared to other capillary beds? a. The diameter of efferent arteriole is less than that of afferent arterioles 60. What is the hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman’s Capsule? a. The force exerted by the filtrate in the Bowman’s Capsule that resists fluid movement into Bowman’s capsule 61. What is the colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries? a. The force created by proteins in the blood that hinders movement of filtrate into the Bowman’s Capsule 62. What is the net filtration pressure? a. HP GC(HP +BCP ) = GC – 30 – 15 = 10 mmHg 63. Glomerular Filtration Rate is directly proportional/disproportional to the Net Filtration Pressure a. Directly proportional; NFP goes up, GFR goes up 64. The ___________ mechanism responds to high blood flow rate or low blood flow rate by either vasoconstricting or vasodilating, respectively. a. Myogenic 65. Explain the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism. a. Macula densa cells detect NaCl concentration in filtrate. The response to slow flowing filtrate and low NaCl in filtrate is vasodilation of afferent arteriole, which increases Glomerular Filtration Rate. The response to fast flowing filtrate and high NaCl in filtrate is vasoconstriction of afferent arteriole, which decreases Glomerular Filtration Rate. 1. Hemoglobin is a satisfactory biomolecule to deliver O2 to _______. a. Tissues 2. __________ is effective at delivering O2 to exercising tissues. a. Hemoglobin 3. Pulse oximeters measure the percent oxygen saturation of arterial erythrocytes in the finger. A patient has an O2 saturation of 98%. Would an O2 saturation of 95% be a problem for normal physiological function? Why or why not? a. No. the oxygenhemoglobin dissociation curve plateaus at a relatively high O2 saturation, thus slight changes in saturation do not affect O2 delivery. 4. What type of shift does high pCO2 cause to the oxygenhemoglobin dissociation curve? a. Right shift 5. A left shift causes ______ O2 delivery to tissues. a. Decreased 6. Which neural respiratory center is largely responsible for stimulating inspiration (expiration is accomplished via passive recoil)? a. Ventral respiratory group 7. Infant respiratory diseases syndrome is typically caused by underdeveloped _______. a. Type 2 pneumocytes, thus the lungs produce insufficient surfactant 8. Where is the sublingual salivary gland located? a. Under the tongue in the mouth 9. Where is the submandibular salivary gland located? a. At the back of the tongue 10. Where is the parotid salivary gland located? a. Near the ear 11. Deglutition is the process of: a. Passing food from the oral cavity to the esophagus 12. Mastication is the process of: a. Mechanical digestion in the oral cavity that includes breaking foo dapart and incorporating saliva into the bolus 13. The muscular layer within the mucosa of the small intestine is the: a. Muscularis mucosae 14. MALT is an important component of the intestinal mucosa because it: a. Provides an additional level of immune defense around the alimentary canal 15. Which layer of the GI tract contains the majority of blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerve fibers, and small glands? a. Submucosa 16. In the presence of ________ conditions, pepsin is produced from pepsinogen. a. Very acidic 17. Pepsin is the main enzyme responsible for chemically digesting ______ into ______. a. Proteins; large polypeptides 18. Where is the labial frenulum located? a. Under the top lip of the mouth above the top row of teeth 19. Where is the uvula located? a. Hanging from the top of the mouth in the very back 20. Where is the lingual frenulum located? a. Under the tongue 21. Where is the soft palate? a. This is the roof of your mouth 22. Where are the palatine tonsils? a. In the very back of the mouth on the sides 23. What is occurring when someone gets very nervous (often while speaking publicly) and his/her mouth gets very dry? a. There is a sympathetic response that causes a surge of epinephrine that reduces salivation 24. The majority of the internal structure of a tooth is: a. Dentin 25. The valve that separates the esophagus from the stomach is the: a. Gastroesophageal sphincter 26. Parietal cells in the stomach secrete: a. HCl and intrinsic factor 27. What is the main function of enteroendocrine cells? a. Produce biochemical messengers that regulate digestion 28. What is the correct sequence for waste? a. Gallbladder cystic duct common bile duct duodenum 29. Glucose and amino acids are transported into intestinal epithelia using a _______ cotransporter. a. Sodium 30. In the GI tract lumen, bile salts and lecithin surround monoglycerides and fatty acids, thereby forming _______. a. Micelles 31. What is the most important function of the large intestine? a. Absorb water 32. What is the mass of lymphoid tissue that extends from the most proximal compartment of the large intestine? a. Appendix 33. Aerobic glucose metabolism and respiration is very effective, because it yields ______ net molecules of ATP per one glucose molecule. a. 32 34. The first step of glucose metabolism is _______, and it is anaerobic. a. Glycolysis 35. Glycolysis of one glucose molecule produces ______ total ATP, but because glycolysis costs ____ ATP, the net energy gain is less than the total ATP produced. a. 4; 2 36. What is the source of carbon in the Kreb’s cycle? a. Pyruvic acid 37. What is the fate of carbon in the Kreb’s cycle (i.e. how does carbon leave the Kreb’s cycle)? a. CO2 38. How many molecules of CO2 are produced from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid entering the Kreb’s cycle? a. 3 39. Lipid metabolism occurs by shuttling fatty acids directly into: a. The Kreb’s cycle 40. Trans fats cause an increase in ______ cholesterol and a decrease in ______ cholesterol. a. LDL; HDL 41. True or false. Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to a change in the chemical conditions within the cerebrospinal fluid (as in, at the brainstem). a. False 42. True or false. The alimentary canal includes salivary glands. a. False 43. True or false. The stomach is suspended from the dorsal body wall by the dorsal mesentery. a. True 44. True or false. Histologically, the intestines are different from the esophagus because the esophagus has an adventitious layer holding it in place, while the intestines have a serosal layer. a. True 45. True or false. Maltose is an enzyme that cleaves disaccharides into glucose molecules. a. False 46. True or false. Fats must be emulsified prior to digestion because they are polar, which means they are water soluble. a. False 47. True or false. The surface epithelium in the stomach secretes thick, basic mucous. a. True 48. True or false. The intestinal phase of gastric secretion has a very brief stimulation period followed by a longer inhibitory period. This phase prevents intestinal over filling. a. True 49. True or false. Taking an extremely potent antibiotic that would rid your large intestine of all bacteria would be a good decision as this would kill any potential pathogens. a. Fale 50. True or false. Glycolysis is anaerobic. a. True
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