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Bio 202o2o3 Professor Susan Erster Exam 2 Answers Fall 2010 THIS IS YOUR ANSWER SHEET o If your exam starts with GProteinlinked 3 9 quot quot39gt9 rngtUcuUrnwrnrucu 3 9 l 139gt9 Jgtl391Jgtl39I39IUUl39lJl39l39l39l39l39l 3PPN9WPPP Uwuwuwumwm 3PPN9WPPP omwwoUgtwgtw 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 If your exam starts with Cytosolic calcium ion 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 If your exam starts with A drug that 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 If your exam starts with Exocytosis is 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 gt391UUUUWJgtUJgt OUUOgtJgtWWUW gt391gtOWUWJgtWU gtUUWUUUUgtJgt 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 gtUW3939UUWWgtO OWUUWWgtUgtW WUWWUO39393939UU WUUOUWUOWI11 32 33 34 35 37 38 40 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 OWUgtOWUUOU O3939OJgtUJgtgtWUU UWJgtOUWOWWO OUWWPOWPIDO 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 UOWWU391W3939WJgt gt391UWWf39OgtOU UgtUUJgtgtWUUO UgtOOUWW391WJgt BIO 202 Fall 2006 Practice Exam 2 October 2006 CTransport vesicles among the membranes of the endomembrane system depend on the function of the cytoskeleton DChemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would prevent many different processes in cells EThe dynamic aspect of cytoskeletal function is made possible by the assembly and disassembly of a few simple types of proteins into large aggregates 9Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane Aphospholipids and proteins Bproteins and cellulose Cnucleic acids and proteins Dphospholipids and cellulose Efats and cholesterol 10When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer The best explanation for this is that Awater that is present in the middle of the bilayer freezes and is easily fractured Bthe hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this point Cthe integral membrane proteins are not strong enough to hold the bilayer together Dhydrophilic interactions between the opposite membrane surfaces are destroyed on freezing Ethe carbon carbon bonds of the phospholipid tails are easily broken 1 1All of the following molecules are part of the cell membrane except Anucleic acids Bproteins C sterols Dphosphate groups Elipids 12What is one of the ways that the membranes of plant cells are able to remain uid when it is extremely cold Aby increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane Bby decreasing the number of hydrophobic proteins in the membrane Cby decreasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane DA and B only EA B and C 13What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily Alarge and hydrophobic Bionic Csmall and hydrophobic Dmonosaccharides such as glucose Elarge polar 14The solutions in the two arms of this U tube are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose Side A is half filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose Side B is half filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose Initially the liquid levels on both sides are equal After the system reaches equilibrium what changes are observed AThe water level is unchanged BThe molarity of sucrose and glucose are equal on both sides CThe water level is higher in side A than in side B DT he water level is higher in side B than in side A EThe molarity of glucose is higher in side A than in side B 15A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood In an attempt to replenish the blood uid distilled water equal to the volume of blood lost is transferred directly into one of his veins What will be the most probable result of this transfusion AThe patient39s red blood cells will swell because his blood uid became hypotonic compared to the cells BIt will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria Page 2 B10 202 Fall 2006 Practice Exam 2 October 2006 23From the perspective of the cell receiving the message the three stages of cell signaling are Asignal reception signal transduction and cellular response Bsignal reception nucleus disintegration and new cell generation Cthe alpha beta and gamma stages Dthe paracrine local and synaptic stages E signal reception cellular response and cell division 24When a cell releases a signal molecule into the environment and a number of cells in the immediate vicinity respond this type of signaling is Asynaptic signaling Bparacrine signaling Cautocrine signaling Dendocrine signaling Etypical of hormones 25The process of transduction usually begins Awhen the signal molecule changes the receptor protein in some way Bwhen the chemical signal is released from the alpha cell Cafter the target cell divides Dwhen the hormone is released from the gland into the blood E after the third stage of cell signaling is completed 26What would be true for the signaling system in an animal cell that lacks the ability to produce GTP AIt would be able to carry out reception and transduction but would not be able to respond to a signal BIt could activate only the epinephrine system CIt would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane DOnly A and C are true EA B and C are true 27Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to speci c amino acids in proteins are A are coenzymes Bimportant in yeast mating factors that contain amino acids Cnot found in humans Da class of GTP G protein signal receptors Ecalled receptor tyrosinekinases 28Testosterone functions inside a cell by A acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins Bbecoming a second messenger that inhibits adenylyl cyclase Ccoordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases glycogen metabolism Dbinding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates speci c genes E acting as a signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins 29Which is true of transcription factors AThey regulate the synthesis of DNA in response to a signal BThey are needed to regulate the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm CThey control which genes are turned on to form mRNA DSome transcribe ATP into CAMP EThey initiate the epinephrine response in animal cells 30Which of the following is not considered a second messenger AcAMP BGTP Cdiacylglycerol DAG Dinositol trisphosphate IP3 E calcium ions 31Which of the following is not part of the phosphorylation cascade model Page 4 B10 202 Fall 2006 Practice Exam 2 October 2006 Bthere are 700 chlorophyll molecules in the center Cthe plastoquinone re ects light with a wavelength of 7 00 nm Dthis pigment is best at absorbing light with a wavelength of 700 nm Ethere are 700 photosystem I components to each chloroplast 39In the thylakoid membranes what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules Aharvest photons and transfer light energy to the reactioncenter chlorophyll Bconcentrate photons within the stroma Ctransfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPH Dsynthesize ATP from ADP and Pi E split water and release oxygen to the reactioncenter chlorophyll 40What does cyclic electron ow in the chloroplast produce ANADPH Bglucose CATP DA and B EA B and C 4lAssume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes A the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll Bthe ow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I Cthe synthesis of ATP Dthe reduction of NADP Ethe splitting of water 42What is the term for metabolic reactions that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules Acatabolic reactions Bfermentation reactions Cthermodynamic reactions Dbioenergetic reactions Eanabolic reactions 43What is the term used for the metabolic pathway in which glucose C6012H6 is degraded to carbon dioxide CO2and water Aoxidative phosphorylation Bfermentation C citric acid cycle Dglycolysis Ecellular respiration 44Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction C6H 1206 602 gt 6CO2 6H20 Energy A CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized BO2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized CO2 is oxidized and H20 is reduced D C6H 1206 is oxidized and O2 is reduced E C6Hl206 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized 45Where does glycolysis takes place A mitochondrial intermembrane space Bcytosol Cmitochondrial matrix Dmitochondrial outer membrane E mitochondrial inner membrane 46Which process in eukalyotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen O2is present or absent Page 6 BIO 202 Fall 2006 Practice Midterm Exam 1 1 2 Which of these is an example of an organelle a maple leaf b chloroplast c epidermis d intestine e muscle The chemical reactions within cells are regulated by organic catalysts called a feedback b feedback c metabolites d nutrients e enzymes activators inhibitors Which of the following is true regarding deoxyribonucleic acid DNA in human cells a Each deoxyribonucleic acid molecule is composed of two long chains of nucleotides arranged in a double helix b DNA is composed of chemical building blocks called nucleotides c Genes are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid d Only A and C are correct e A B and C are correct What are the basic quotbuilding blocksquot of deoxyribonucleic acid DNA a 26 different kinds of chromosomes b 100000 different kinds of proteins c 20 different kinds of amino acids d 3 different kinds of genomes e 4 different kinds of nucleotides Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common a linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein b a membrane bounded nucleus c ribosomes d a cell wall made of cellulose e agella or cilia that contain microtubules What element is found in all organic compounds a helium b carbon c iron d nitrogen e oxygen Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other Vertebrates a phosphorus b sodium c calcium d iodine e nitrogen Which of the following statements is false a An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the properties of the element b Atoms of the various elements differ in their number of subatomic particles c All atoms of a particular element have the same number of protons in their nuclei d The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are almost identical in mass each has a mass of about 1 dalton e Protons and electrons are electrically charged particles Protons have one unit of negative charge and electrons have one unit of positive charge The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of in an atom of that element a Isotopes b energy levels c protons and neutrons d neutrons and e electrons protons and electrons 10The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen a The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7 The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons c The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams d The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 grams and an atomic number of 14 e The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14 1 1Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40 Therefore a calcium atom must have a 40 electrons b 40 neutrons c 20 protons d A and B only e A B and C Page 1 B10 202 Fall 2006 Practice Midterm Exam 1 22A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominant functional group Which of the following statements is true concerning this compound a It should dissolve in water b It should dissolve in a nonpolar solvent c It lacks an asymmetric carbon and it is probably a fat or lipid d It is hydrophobic e It won39t form hydrogen bonds with water 23What is the name of the functional group W E quot39 39 H OH 9 a ketone b hydroxyl c aldehyde d carbonyl e carboxyl 24Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon oxygen and hydrogen a an alcohol such as ethanol b a monosaccharide such as glucose c a hydrocarbon such as benzene d an amino acid such as glycine e a steroid such as testosterone 25Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids a carboxyl and amino b phosphate and sulfhydryl c carbonyl and carboxyl d hydroxyl and aldehyde e ketone and aldehyde 26A chemist wishes to make an organic molecule less acidic Which of the following functional groups should be added to the molecule in order to do so a phosphate b sulfhydryl c carboxyl d sulfate e amino 27 Question omitted 28When sodium chloride NaCl is placed in water the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions Na and chloride ions Cl In contrast the atoms of covalently bonded molecules eg glucose sucrose glycerol do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest number of particles molecules or ions a 1LO5M b 1Lof10M c 1LofO5M d 1Lof10M e CandDonly glucose glucose NaCl NaCl 29The molecular mass of glucose is 180 g To make a 1 M solution of glucose you should do which of the following a Dissolve 180 g of glucose in water and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L b Dissolve 1 g of glucose in 1 L of water c Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water d Dissolve 180 mg milligramsof glucose in 1 L of water e Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 100 g of water 30Which of these is a correct representation of the hierarchy of biological organization from least to most complex a hydrogen water muscle cell nucleus heart muscle cell heart heart muscle tissue human b hydrogen water heart muscle cell heart muscle cell nucleus heart muscle tissue heart human c heart muscle cell nucleus hydrogen water heart muscle cell heart heart muscle tissue human d water hydrogen heart muscle cell nucleus heart muscle cell heart muscle tissue heart human e hydrogen water heart muscle cell nucleus heart muscle cell heart muscle tissue heart human Page 3 B10 202 Fall 2006 Practice Midterm Exam 1 48Of the following which is probably the most common route for membrane ow in the endomembrane system a nuclear envelope gt lysosome gt Golgi gt plasma membrane b tonoplast gt plasma membrane gt nuclear envelope gt smooth ER c Golgi gt lysosome gt ER gt plasma membrane d ER gt chloroplasts gt mitochondrion gt cell membrane e rough ER gt vesicles gt Golgi gt plasma membrane 49Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules a steroids b lipids c starches d proteins e glucose 50Which of the following cell components is not directly involved in synthesis or secretion a smooth endoplasmic reticulum b rough endoplasmic reticulum c ribosome d Golgi body e lysosome Page 6 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 1 1 What is the atomic mass of an atom that has 6 protons 6 neutrons and 6 electrons a 18 b 1 c 12 d 8 e 6 2 An refers to two or more atoms held together by covalent bonds a ion b shell c community d isotope e molecule 3 In salt what is the nature of the bond between sodium and chlorine a nonpolar b ionic c hydrophobic d hydrogen e polar covalent covalent 4 What name is given to the bond between water molecules a hydrogen b ionic c nonpolar d hydrophobic e polar covalent covalent 5 Compared to 3 P the radioactive isotope 32P has a one more electron b a different atomic number c a different charge d one more neutron e one more proton 6 The reactivity of an atom arises from a the potential energy of the valence shell b the energy difference between the s and p orbitals c the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell d the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus e the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells 7 Which of these statements is true of all anionic atoms a The atom has more electrons than protons b The net charge is 1 c The atom has more neutrons than protons d The atom has more protons than electrons e The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element 8 In the term trace element the modifier trace means the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism39s metabolism the element passes rapidly through the organism the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism39s long term survival the element is very rare on Earth e the element is required in very small amounts QOC39D 9 Acid precipitation has lowered the pH of a particular lake to 40 What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake a 40 M b 1039 M c 10394 M d 104 M e 4 10 How many grams of acetic acid C2H4O2 would you use to make 10 L of a 01 M aqueous solution of acetic acid Note The atomic masses in daltons are approximately 12 for carbon 1 for hydrogen and 16 for oxygen a 100 g b 01 g c 60 g d 600 g e 06 g 11We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their a mass in daltons mass in grams number of molecules number of atoms volume Cquot 98 Page 1 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 1 31 Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence Nucleotides are to as are to proteins a nucleic acids amino acids b amino acids polypeptides c glycosidic linkages polypeptide linkages d genes enzymes e polymers polypeptides 32 The molecular formula for glucose is C5H12O5 What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions 3 C60H120O60 b C6H12O6 C C60H102O51 d C60H100O50 9 C60H111O51 33 Which of these is a difference between DNA and RNA a RNA is doublestranded DNA is singlestranded b DNA is found in the nucleus RNA is never found in the nucleus c In DNA adenine pairs with guanine in RNA adenine pairs with thymine d DNA contains thymine RNA contains uracil e DNA consists of five different nucleotides RNA consists of four different nucleotides 34 Which of the following is not considered part of the endomembrane system a nuclear envelope b chloroplast c Golgi apparatus d plasma membrane e ER 35 Cells of the pancreas will incorporate radioactively labeled amino acids into proteins This quottaggingquot of newly synthesized proteins enables a researcher to track the location of these proteins in a cell In this case we are tracking an enzyme that is eventually secreted by pancreatic cells Which of the following is the most likely pathway for movement of this protein in the cell a ER gt Golgi gt nucleus b Golgi gt ER gt lysosome c nucleus gt ER gt Golgi d ER gt Golgi gt vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane e ER to lysosomes to vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane 36 Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell a mitochondrion b ribosome c nuclear envelope d chloroplast e thylakoid 37 Cyanide binds with at least one of the molecules involved in the production of ATP Following exposure of a cell to cyanide most of the cyanide could be expected to be found within the a mitochondria b ribosomes c peroxisomes d lysosomes e endoplasmic reticulum 38 Which of these structures is unique to plant cells a mitochondrion peroxisome c ER d central vacuole nucleus Page 4 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 1 46 In the following branched metabolic pathway a dotted arrow with a minus sign symbolizes inhibition of a metabolic step by an end product sf g 3 ag EiHE I39M Which reaction would prevail if both Q and S were present in the cell in high concentrations a LgtM b MgtO c LgtN d OgtP e RgtS 47 What name is given to the reactant in an enzymatically catalyzed reaction a EA b products c active sites d reactors e substrate 48 During energy coupling what is the fate of the phosphate group that is removed when ATP is converted to ADP a It is acquired by a reactant in an endergonic reaction b It is used to convert an ATP into an AQP c It is acquired by a reactant in a spontaneous reaction d It is acquired by a reactant in an exergonic reaction e It is broken down into one phosphorus and four oxygen atoms 49 In the reaction A gt B C heat a there is a net input of energy b the energy of the molecules of the products is greater than that of the reactants c the energy of the molecules of the products is the same as that of the reactant d the energy of the molecules of the products is less than that of the reactant e entropy has decreased 50 What type of reaction breaks the bonds that join the phosphate groups in an ATP molecule a condensation synthesis hydrolysis c dehydration decomposition d entropic dehydration synthesis Page 6 Bio 202 02 03 Exam III November 25 2008 9 If mammalian cells receive a goahead signal at the G1 checkpoint they will A show a drop in MPF concentration B complete cytokinesis to form daughter cells C proceed to DNA replication D move directly into telophase E exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state 10 When translating secretory or membrane proteins ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by A a chemical signal given off by the ER B a specific characteristic of the ribosome itself which distinguishes free ribosomes from bound ribosomes C a signalrecognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane D moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus E a unique tRNA molecule Use the following information to answer the question below Labrador retrievers are black brown or yellow In a cross of a black female with a brown male results can be either all black puppies 12 black to 12 brown puppies or 34 black to 14 yellow puppies 11 These results indicate which of the following A There is incomplete dominance B Brown is dominant to black C Epistasis is involved D Black is dominant to brown and to yellow E Yellow is dominant to black 12 Which of the following statements describes genomic imprinting A It is greatest in females because of the larger maternal contribution of cytoplasm B It may explain the transmission of Duchenne muscular dystrophy C It involves an irreversible alteration in the DNA sequence of imprinted genes D It explains cases in which the sex of the parent from whom an allele is inherited affects the expression of that allele 13 Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle are called A kinases B ATPases C centrioles D kinetochores E cyclins 14 In his transformation experiments what did Griffith observe A Mixing a heat killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living bacteria into the pathogenic form B Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice C Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections D Mixing a heat killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic E lnfecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains Page 2 Bio 202 02 03 Exam III November 25 2008 22 Which term describes centromeres uncoupling sister chromatids separating and the two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell A telophase B prometaphase C metaphase D prophase E anaphase 23 Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that A the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants B members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character but members of the F2 had two alleles for each character C the traits were lost in the F1 due to blending of the parental traits D traits can be dominant or recessive and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1 E new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny quotreinventingquot traits that had been lost in the F1 24 A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 539 AGT 339 The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is A 539 ACU 339 B 539 TCA 339 C 339 UGA 539 D 339ACU 539 E either UCA or TCA depending on wobble in the first base 25 When T2 phages infect bacteria and make more phage in the presence of radioactive sulfur what is the result A The phage proteins will be radioactive B The bacterial DNA will be radioactive C The phage DNA will be radioactive D both A and B E both A and C 26 Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I A Four daughter cells are formed B Sister chromatids are separated C The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end D The chromosome number per cell is conserved E Homologous chromosomes are separated 27 Males are more often affected by sex linked traits than females because A female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X B X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females C mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X inked mutations D male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X chromosome E males have only one X chromosome Page 4 Bio 202 02 03 Exam III November 25 2008 31 Abnormal chromosomes are frequent in malignant tumors Errors such as translocations may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse A Expression of inappropriate gene products B An increase in non disjunction C Death of the cancer cells in the tumor D A decrease in mitotic frequency E Sensitivity of the immune system 32 Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells A anaphase B prometaphase C telophase D prophase E metaphase 33 If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis ll during gametogenesis what will be the result at the completion of meiosis A There will be three extra gametes B All the gametes will be diploid C Half of the gametes will be n 1 and half will be n 1 D 14 of the gametes will be n 1 one will be n 1 and two will be n E Two of the four gametes will be haploid and two will be diploid 34 Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes A PDGF platelet derived growth factor B protein kinase C Cdk D MPF Mphase promoting factor E cyclin 35 Why did the improvement of microscopy techniques in the late 1800s set the stage for the emergence of modern genetics A It showed genes functioning to direct the formation of enzymes B It revealed new and unanticipated features of Mende39s pea plant varieties C It allowed the study of meiosis and mitosis revealing parallels between behaviors of genes and chromosomes D It led to the discovery of mitochondria E It allowed scientists to see the DNA present within chromosomes 36 A cell that has 2n 1 chromosomes is A euploid B trisomic C monosomic D triploid E polyploid 37 The human X and Y chromosomes A include genes that determine an individual39s sex B are of approximately equal size and number of genes C include only genes that govern sex determination D are almost entirely homologous despite their different names E are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike Page 6 Bio 202 02 03 Exam III November 25 2008 46 Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis A Synapsis of chromosomes B Production of daughter cells C Condensation of chromatin D Alignment of chromosomes at the equator E Chromosome replication 47 Which of the following can be determined directly from X ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA A the diameter of the helix B the bond angles of the subunits C the sequence of nucleotides D the rate of replication E the frequency of A vs T nucleotides 48 Calico cats are female because A the males die during embryonic development B multiple crossovers on the X chromosome cause both black and orange pigment production C the male cats have too many Barr bodies D a male inherits only one of the two X linked genes controlling hair color E the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration 49 What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule A van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms B hydrogen bonding between base pairs C ionic bonding between phosphates D covalent bonding between sulfur atoms E peptide bonding between amino acids 50 Alternative RNA splicing A can allow for the production of several different proteins from one gene B is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs C increases the rate of transcription D is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription E can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs Page 8 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 2 1 The symptoms of a certain inherited disorder in humans include male sterility Which of the following is a reasonable hypothesis for the molecular basis of this disorder a a defective enzyme in the mitochondria b defective actin molecules in cellular microfilaments c defective dynein molecules in flagella d abnormal hydrolytic enzymes in the lysosomes e defective ribosome assembly in the nucleolus 2 Where is calcium stored inside cells a nucleus b ER c centrioles d ribosomes e calcium depository granules 3 allow a bacterium to move a Cell walls b Celia c Ribosomes d Mitochondria e Microvilli 4 Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through a plasmodesmata b intermediate c tight d desmosomes e gapjunctions filaments junctions 5 When a potassium ion K moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root it must pass through several cellular structures Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion a plasma membrane gt primary cell wall gt cytoplasm gt tonoplast b secondary cell wall gt plasma membrane gt primary cell wall gt cytoplasm gt tonoplast c primary cell wall gt secondary cell wall gt plasma membrane gt cytoplasm gt tonoplast d primary cell wall gt plasma membrane gt tonoplast gt cytoplasm gt vacuole e tonoplast gt primary cell wall gt plasma membrane gt cytoplasm 6 The cell walls of bacteria fungi and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane Which of the following is not a characteristic of all of these extracellular structures a They must be highly permeable to water and small molecules in order to allow cells to exchange matter and energy with their environment b They must permit information transfer between the cell39s external environment and the cytoplasm c They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area to volume d They are constructed of materials that are largely synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell e They are composed of a mixture of proteins and carbohydrates 7 All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells Which of the following are distinct from the others in terms of composition a microtubules b microfilaments plant cell walls intermediate filaments nuclear lamina c d e ggxy 8 Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is incorrect a The dynamic aspect of cytoskeletal function is made possible by the assembly and disassembly of a few simple types of proteins into large aggregates b Microfilaments are structurally rigid and resist compression while microtubules resist tension stretching c Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other d Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would prevent many different processes in cells e Transport vesicles among the membranes of the endomembrane system depend on the function of the cytoskeleton Page 1 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 2 18 When a membrane is freeze fractured the bilayer splits down the middle between the two layers of phospholipids In an electron micrograph of a freeze fractured membrane the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are a peripheral proteins b phospholipids c carbohydrates d integral proteins e cholesterol molecules 19 Of the following functions which is most important for the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes facilitated diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients active transport of molecules against their concentration gradients maintaining the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane maintaining membrane fluidity at low temperatures e a cell39s ability to distinguish one type of neighboring cell from another 9832 20 The solutions in the arms of a Utube are separated at the bottom of the tube by a selectively permeable membrane The membrane is permeable to sodium chloride but not to glucose Side A is filled with a solution of 04 M glucose and 05 M sodium chloride NaCl and side B is filled with a solution containing 05 M glucose and 01 M sodium chloride Initially the volume in both arms is the same If you examine side A after 3 days you should find a a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level b a decrease in the concentration of NaCl an increase in water level and no change in the concentration of glucose c no net change in the system d a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level e no change in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level 21 You are working on a team that is designing a new drug In order for this drug to work it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells Which of the following would not be a factor that determines whether the molecule enters the cell a size of the drug molecule b polarity of the drug molecule c charge on the drug molecule d similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells e lipid composition of the target cells plasma membrane 22 In fermentation is a NADH b NAD c NADH d pyruvate e ethanol reduced oxidized oxidized oxidized oxidized 23 Most of the energy that enters electron transport enters as a ATP b acetyCoA c glucose d CO2 e FADH2 and NADH 24 Pyruvate is formed a on the inner mitochondrial membrane b in the mitochondrial matrix c on the outer mitochondrial membrane d in the nucleus e in the cytosol 25 Glycolysis is an reaction a exergonic b endothermic c unregulated d endergonic e abnormal Page 3 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 2 33 Amplification of a chemical signal occurs when a b C d 9 a receptor in the plasma membrane activates several G protein molecules while a signal molecule is bound to it a cAMP molecule activates one protein kinase molecule before being converted to AMP phosphorylase and phosphatase activities are balanced receptor tyrosine kinases dimerize upon ligand binding Both A and D occur 34 Protein phosphorylation is commonly involved with all of the following except a b C d 9 activity of protein kinases enzyme activation activation of G protein linked receptors activation of receptor tyrosine kinases activation of protein kinase molecules 35 Which observation suggested the involvement of a second messenger in epinephrine39s effect on liver cells a b C d 9 Enzymatic activity was proportional to the amount of calcium added to a cellfree extract Receptor studies indicated that epinephrine was a ligand Glycogen breakdown was observed only when epinephrine was administered to intact cells Glycogen breakdown was observed when epinephrine and glycogen phosphorylase were combined Epinephrine was known to have different effects on different types of cells 36 Which of the following provides the best evidence that ce signaing pathways evolved early in the history of life a b C d 9 Protein kinases are involved in signal transduction Yeast cells signal each other for mating Signal transduction molecules found in distantly related organisms are similar Signals can be sent long distances by cells Most signals are received by cell surface receptors 37 Which of these is not correct 38 Testosterone hormones bind to 8893 39 8893 Phospholipase C catalyzes the formation of IP3 Receptor tyrosine kinases consist of two polypeptides that join when activated by a signal molecule Ion channels are found on both the plasma membrane and the endoplasmic reticulum Cyclic AMP binds to calmodulin Kinases are enzymes that phosphorylate other molecules receptors receptor tyrosine kinases plasma membrane ion channel steroid intracellular G protein linked catalyzes the production of into the cell39s cytoplasm which then opens an ion channel that releases Adenylyl cyclase cyclic AMP Ca2 Adenylyl cyclase IP3 Ca2 Protein kinase PIP2 Na Phospholipase C cyclic AMP Ca2 Phospholipase C IP3 Ca2 Page 5 Bio 202 Practice Exam 3 Answers Fall 2008 THIS IS YOUR ANSWER SHEET 0 If your exam starts with How are chromosomes separated from each other 1 C 10 A 19 C 28 C 37 C 46 C 2 D 11 B 20 D 29 D 38 C 47 A 3 A 12 E 21 E 30 E 39 E 48 D 4 E 13 E 22 D 31 D or E 40 A or D 49 C 5 D 14 B 23 B 32 D 41 E 50 D 6 B 15 A 24 E 33 A 42 D 7 D 16 A 25 B 34 E 43 B 8 A 17 B 26 C 35 A 44 A 9 E 18 C 27 A 36 D 45 E Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 3 1 How are chromosomes separated from each other in bacteria during cell division a Mitosis b Motor proteins c Attachment to fixed points on the membrane of the growing cell d Attachment to microtubules that slide past each other e Helicases untwist the chromosomes to allow them to separate All of the following occur during prometaphase of mitosis except a The nuclear envelope breaks down b The mitotic spindle invades the nucleus c Kinetochore fibers attach to chromosomes at the kinetochores d The chromosomes line up at the center of the cell e The spindle contains both kinetochore and nonkinetochore fibers What happens in metaphase of mitosis a Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell because equal forces pull toward each centrosome b Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell because equal forces push away from each centrosome c Chromosomes move away from the center of the cell d The nuclear envelope breaks down e Chromosomes first become attached to kinetochore fibers What is true of cytokinesis in animal cells but NOT plant cells a Each daughter cell gets a nucleus b Vesicles line up at the cell plate and fuse c Daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes as the original cell d Cytokinesis can start before telophase finishes e The cell divides when microfilaments form a cleavage furrow and pinch the cell in half Many somatic eukaryotic cells can stop passing through the cell cycle and remain for long periods in Go phase What is true of these cells a They have the n number of chromosomes b The last phase of the cell cycle they were in before entering Go could have been S c The last phase of the cell cycle they were in before entering Go could have been G2 d The last phase of the cell cycle they were in before entering Go could have been G1 e They can contain pairs of sister chromatids What does PDGF do a Phosphorylates other proteins b Triggers a signal transduction pathway c Acts as a cyclin d Stimulates blood clotting e Orchestrates the events of mitosis What is true of MPF a It triggers entry into mitosis b It consists of 2 proteins bound to each other c It contains a cyclin that is present at a high level throughout the cell cycle d A and B ONLY e A B and C are correct MPF affects anaphase by Activating a protease that cleaves the proteins holding sister chromatids together Activating the motor proteins that move chromatids along microtubules Removing tubulin subunits from microtubules as they shorten Causing microtubules to slide past each other to lengthen the spindle Maintaining the connection between chromatids and microtubules 88832 Page 1 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 3 16 Mende s Law of Segregation said that each individual has two alleles for each gene and that each gamete gets one of these alleles Later work showed the molecular basis of this law What is it a Genes are on homologous chromosomes and each gamete gets one chromosome of each homologous pair Chromosomes contain DNA and protein Sister chromatids are separated during mitosis One allele is dominant and the other recessive Individuals can be homozygous or heterozygous V833 9 17 Black fur in mice B is dominant to brown fur b Short tails T is dominant to long tails t What proportion of the progeny of the cross BbTt x Bbtt will be BbTt a 18 b 14 c 12 d 34 e 916 18 In a particular flower red color R is dominant over white color r Large petals P are dominant over small petals p What proportion of the progeny of the cross RrPp x RRPp will have red flowers with small petals a 116 b 316 c 14 d 12 e 916 19 In a cross of AaBBCc x AABbCc what is the frequency of AABbcc progeny a 164 b 132 c 116 d 18 e 14 20 Snapdragons show incomplete dominance in flower color You cross a red fowered plant and a pink flowered plant What will the progeny look like a 4 red 2 pink 4 white b All red c 12 red 12 white d 2 red 2 pink e 34 red 14 pink 21 What is true about ABO blood type a The IA and IB alleles are co dominant b The i allele is recessive c The IAIA and lAi genotypes give the same phenotype d B and C are correct e A B and C are correct The following information is for questions 22 and 23 You cross two flies one with mutant short antennae s and mutant big feet b and one with wild type long antennae s and wild type small feet b You get the following number of progeny 9 short antennae small feet 11 big feet long antennae 37 short antennae big feet 43 long antennae small feet 22 What is the recombination frequency of the 2 genes a 9 b 10 c 11 d 20 e 25 23 What were the genotypes of the flies that you crossed to get these progeny a pp bb X pp bb pp bb x pp bb Could be either A or B pp bb X pp bb pp bb x pp bb Cquot 9EV Page 3 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 3 31 Two Neurospora mutants can39t make their own arginine and can grow only if arginine is added to the media Mutant 1 can grow if the media contains citrulline even without arginine while Mutant 2 can t What is true a Citrulline is needed to make arginine b Mutant 1 can39t make citrulline while Mutant 2 can39t convert citrulline to arginine c A different gene is defective in each of the two mutants d A and C ONLY e A B and C are correct 32 What information on DNA structure was not known previously but was revealed only by X ray crystallography a DNA is a helix of uniform width b Bases are stacked 034 nm apart c The amount of A the amount of T d A and B ONLY e A B and C are correct 33 The 5 end of a DNA strand a Faces the 3 end of the complementary strand b Contains a free OH group c is linked to an incoming NTP during DNA replication d A and B ONLY e A B and C are correct 34 DNA polymerase a Checks base pairing of an incoming nucleotide b Forms a covalent bond between a phosphate of the incoming nucleotide and an OH group at the end of the growing strand c Proofreads after the nucleotide is inserted to check for accuracy of base pairing d A and B ONLY A B and C are correct 35 What is true about semiconservative DNA replication a Each strand serves as the template for synthesis of a new strand b Each new strand has the same nucleotide sequence as its template c The two new strands both have the same nucleotide sequence d A and B ONLY A B and C are correct 36 Okazaki fragments a Are made in the 3 to 5 direction b Are made on both leading and lagging strands c Are made without primers d Are joined together by DNA ligase e Do not become a continuous strand 37 What is TRUE about telomerase a It is present in all somatic cells It is a complex made entirely of protein c It adds nucleotides to a DNA strand without using DNA as a template d It shortens telomeres by removing short repeated sequences It is required at the replication fork to keep DNA strands apart Page 5 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 3 46 Proteins destined for secretion from the cell are made on and then a Membrane bound ribosomes on the plasma membrane threaded through pores in the plasma membrane b Free ribosomes transported to the plasma membrane in vesicles c Membrane bound ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum transported to the plasma membrane in vesicles d Free ribosomes threaded through pores in the plasma membrane e Membrane bound ribosomes on vesicles transported to the plasma membrane in the same vesicles 47 A frame shift mutation a Can result from insertion of 1 extra nucleotide b Can result from insertion of 3 extra nucleotides c Can be silent d Does not change the amino acid order in a protein e Always results from a translocation event 48 What is present in some but not all viruses a Proteins b DNA c A membrane envelope d Both B and C are correct e Both A and C are correct 49 The influenza genome a Is mRNA b Is rRNA c Serves as a template for synthesis of complementary RNA molecules d Is recognized by DNA polymerase during transcription e Binds ribosomes that synthesize viral proteins 50 An influenza virus envelope is made a By host cell enzymes after a nucleocapsid has selfassembled b When a nucleocapsid wraps itself in part of the host ce s endoplasmic reticulum c By viral enzymes that enter host cells in the nucleocapsid during infection d When a nucleocapsid wraps itself in part of the host ce s plasma membrane e By viral glycoproteins made on bound ribosomes inside the host cell Page 7 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 amp Final Exam MIDTERM EXAM 4 covers Questions 1 through 42 Each correct answer is worth 1 point FINAL EXAM cumulative consists of Questions 43 through 84 Each correct answer counts 1 point Do not leave ANY blank spaces on the scantron between Midterms 4 and the Final Exam MIDTERM EXAM 4 Questions 1 through 42 1 Defective mutant Trp bacteria can39t ever make Trp You mix live Trp bacteria with heat kied wid type bacteria and plate them on media that doesn39t contain Trp A few bacteria grow and can now grow permanently without Trp This happened because the Trp bacteria a Made proteins that do not contain Trp b Received a gene needed to make Trp from the dead wid type bacteria c Lost the Trp repressor d Received Trp from the wildtype bacteria e Upregulated the genes for Trp synthesis 2 How is a bacteriophage that will carry out transduction abnormal a Can t bind to bacteria b Has no DNA in its head c Has the wrong DNA in its head d Can t inject DNA into bacteria e Has abnormal sex pili 3 What is an F factor a A protein that is part of sex pili b An antibiotic resistance plasmid c A defective phage d A piece of DNA that is important in bacterial conjugation e A phage genome that exists in a bacterial cell 4 A DNA sequence called an operator a Binds RNA polymerase b Binds small molecules like Trp c Contains several genes d Binds a repressor protein e Codes for a repressor protein 5 Genes in an operon a Each have their own separate promoter b Are each transcribed into their own separate mRNA c Each code for one protein d B and C are correct e A B and C are correct 6 What is present in the basal transcription complex in eukaryotes a Transcription factors ONLY b RNA polymerase ONLY c Transcription factors AND RNA polymerase d Control elements ONLY e RNA polymerase AND control elements 7 What is true of enhancers a They consist of DNA b Binding of activators to enhancers can stimulate transcription c They always contain a TATA box d A and B are correct e A B and C are correct Page 1 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 amp Final Exam 17 SH2 domains a Are often present in proteins that bind receptor tyrosine kinases b Can be present in proteins that also contain other domains c All bind phospho tyrosine PTyr d A and B are correct e A B and C are correct 18 PDGF a Sends a signal by entering cells b Sends a signal by entering the nucleus c is a transcription factor d Sends a signal by binding a receptor protein on the cell surface e Sends a signal by binding a receptor protein in the cytoplasm 19 Ras is mutated in 30 of human tumors How does mutant Ras contribute to cancer a Sends a signal even without receiving one b Does not send a signal even after receiving one c Binds PDGF even without receiving a signal d Enters the nucleus and binds an enhancer even without a signal e Phosphorylates another protein even without a signal 20 The p53 protein ITSELF a Replicates DNA b Repairs DNA c Slows the cell cycle d Both B and C e is a transcription factor 21 Why do plasmids used for cloning contain antibiotic resistance genes a So that the plasmids can replicate in bacteria b So that foreign DNA can be cloned into the plasmids c So that the correct restriction enzyme recognition site is present d To allow selection so that only bacteria containing plasmids will grow e To prevent the bacteria from being infected by phage 22 What is used to JOIN TOGETHER two pieces of DNA that have the same sticky ends a Base pairing and DNA ligase only b Base pairing and DNA polymerase only c Base pairing DNA ligase and DNA polymerase d Base pairing and restriction enzymes only e Base pairing DNA ligase and restriction enzymes 23 The Ti plasmid a Contains DNA that integrates into a plant chromosome b Contains DNA that integrates into a bacterial chromosome c Contains DNA that integrates into an animal chromosome d Enhances the rate of gene transfer between bacteria e is injected into animal cell nuclei to make transgenic animals 24 Which sequence is likely to be a Restriction Enzyme recognition site a TCCTCC b CAGCTG c TTTTTT d AGAGAG e AGTTGA 25 What is a nucleic acid probe used for a To identify a specific DNA sequence To identify any foreign DNA in a plasmid To cleave a specific gene To introduce a specific gene into a plasmid To identify 2 pieces of DNA that have the same restriction enzyme recognition site Cquot 9EV Page 3 Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 amp Final Exam FINAL EXAM Questions 43 through 84 43 What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons 15 protons and 15 electrons a 15 daltons b 16 daltons c 30 daltons d 31 daltons e 46 daltons 44 Which of the following molecules contains the strongest polar covalent bond a H2 b 02 c CO2 d H20 e CH4 45 How many molecules of glucose C5H12O1e molecular mass 18O daltons would be present in one mole of glucose a 24 b 342 c 23 x 10 d 180 x 10 e 6022 x 1023 46 The molecular mass of glucose C5H12O1e is 180 g To make a 1 M solution of glucose you should do which of the following Dissolve 1 g of glucose in 1 L of water Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 100 g of water Dissolve 180 mg milligrams of glucose in 1 L of water 47 What types of bonds does carbon have a tendency to form a ionic b hydrogen c covalent d A and B only e A B and C 48 A carbon skeleton is covalently bonded to both an amino group and a carboxyl group When placed in water it would function only as an acid because of the carboxyl group would function only as a base because of the amino group would function as neither an acid nor a base would function as both an acid and a base is impossible to determine how it would function 49 A molecule with the chemical formula C15H32O15 is most likely a carbohydrate lipid protein nucleic acid e hydrocarbon 50 The alpha helix and the beta sheet are both common polypeptide forms found in which level of protein structure a primary secondary tertiary quaternary all of the above Cquot 9EV Page 6 Dissolve 180 g of glucose in water and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L Fall 2008 BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 amp Final Exam 58 The molecular oxygen 02 consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event a glycolysis b accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain c the citric acid cycle d the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA e the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP 59 In the thylakoid membranes what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules a split water and release oxygen to the reaction center chlorophyll b harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction center chlorophyll c synthesize ATP from ADP and P d transfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPH e concentrate photons within the stroma 60 Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle a The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle and the cycle returns ADP Pi and NADP to the light reactions b The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions c The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP d The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split e There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle 61 In a plant cell where are the ATP synthases located a thylakoid membrane b plasma membrane c inner mitochondrial membrane d A and C e A B and C 62 Which of the following is true of synaptic signaling and hormonal signaling a Hormonal signaling occurs in animals only b Hormonal signaling is important between cells that are at greater distances apart than in synaptic signaling c Both act on target cells by a G protein signaing pathway d Only A and B are true e A B and C are true 63 Which of the following would be directly inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins a G proteinlinked receptor signaling b ligand gated ion channel signaling c adenylyl cyclase activity d phosphatase activity e receptor tyrosine kinase activity 64 What happens during anaphase of mitosis a Centromeres of sister chromatids come apart from each other b Kinetochore microtubules get shorter c Nonkinetochore fibers slide past each other and lengthen the spindle d A and B are correct e A B and C are correct Page 8 Bio 202 0203 Exam II October 23 2008 23 During aerobic respiration electrons travel downhill in which sequence A glucose gt citric acid cycle gt ATP gt NAD B glucose gt oxygen gt NADH gt ATP C glucose gt pyruvate gt ATP D glucose gt ATP gt electron transport chain gt NADH E glucose gt NADH gt electron transport chain gt oxygen 24 Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase A It both splits molecules and assembles molecules B It attaches and detaches phosphate groups C It first uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP D It uses glucose and generates alcohol E It moves molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion 25 In addition to ATP what are the end products of glycolysis A CO2 and pyruvate B H2O FADH2 and citrate C NADH and pyruvate D CO2 and NADH E ethanol and lactic acid 26 The oxygen used during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event A the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP B accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain C glycolysis D the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA E the citric acid cycle 27 Where does glycolysis takes place A the extracellular matrix B mitochondrial intermembrane space C the chloroplast D mitochondrial inner membrane E cytosol 28 Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction C5H12O5 6 02 gt 6 CO2 6 H20 Energy A C5H12O5 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized B 02 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized C C5H12O5 is oxidized and O2 is reduced D 02 is oxidized and H20 is reduced E CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized 29 When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom what happens A The more electronegative atom is reduced B Energy is consumed C Energy is released D The more electronegative atom is oxidized E A and C are correct Page 4 Practice Midterm 4 B10 202 Fall 2006 WITH ANSWERS You ll take the 4 midterm covering lectures 3442 at the same time as the cumulative final which covers the whole course including the 4 part However they re really separate tests You can drop the 4 midterm grade if it s your lowest midterm grade but you can t drop the final There will be 42 questions on the 4 midterm and 42 questions on the cumulative final LECTURE 34 1 What is transduction A Infection of bacteria by phages B Formation of bacterial spores C Transfer of bacterial DNA from one cell to another by phages D Hydrolysis of bacterial DNA by phages E Transfer of DNA from one phage to another 2 After conjugation between an F and an F cell A Both cells are F B Both cells are F C The F cell remains F but the F cell becomes an Hfr cell D The F cell remains F but the F cell becomes an Hfr cell E The F cell remains F and the F cell remains F 3 What do bacteria use plasmids for A Exchange genes between cells B Take up nutrients C Destroy foreign DNA D Defend against viruses E E coli genome project 4 Which is the fastest response of bacteria to changing growth conditions such as amino acid levels in the environment A Transduction B Transformation C Regulation of gene expression D Lysogeny E New production of plasmids 5 How does the Trp operon work A High concentrations of Trp induce transcription B Binding of Trp to a repressor protein allows the repressor to bind DNA C Binding of a regulatory protein to the operator is required for transcription D Binding of Trp to RNA polymerase represses transcription E Binding of RNA polymerase to the operator is required for transcription LECTURE 35 6 What is NOT a mechanism of gene regulation in eukaryotes A Histone acetylation B Binding of transcription factors to control elements E The cell cycle is slowed LECTURE 38 21 What is NOT used to make a recombinant DNA molecule A Restriction enzyme B DNA ligase C plasmid D Sticky ends E DNA primers 22 Which sequence is likely to be a Restriction Enzyme recognition site A AGGAGG B AGTTGA C AAAAAA D AGAGAG E AGTACT 23 What is a nucleic acid probe used for A To identify a specific gene B To make large amounts of a specific gene C To cleave a specific gene D To insert a specific gene into a plasmid E To insert a plasmid into a bacterial cell 24 In agarose gel electrophoresis DNA fragments are separated from each based on differences in A Charge B Sequence C Size D Restriction enzyme recognition sites E Fluorescent dye color Lecture 39 26 PCR A Requires only one DNA primer that binds to the coding strand B Requires only one DNA primer that can bind to either strand B Requires two DNA primers that bind to the same template strand C Requires two DNA primers that bind to opposite template strands D Requires two DNA primers that can bind either to the same or opposite strands 27 DNA from the same part of the genome of Joe J and Susan S was cut with the same restriction enzyme and run on a gel The following pattern of fragments was seen What could explain this result C Fertilized egg D Blastomere E Blastula 33 What happens in gastrulation A Three primary germ layers are established B Cells divide rapidly C Yolk is formed D The blastocoel is formed E The embryo forms a hollow ball of cells 34 In mammals the placenta A Is formed entirely by the embryo B Is formed entirely from the endometrium of the mother C Is partly formed from the trophoblast D Is partly formed from the inner cell mass E Is formed at gastrulation Lecture 41 35 Transplanting cells from Spemann s organizer at the dorsal lip of the blastopore to another early embryo resulted in A Abnormal cleavage B Abnormal distribution of cytoplasmic determinants C Formation of a second embryo attached to the first D Prevention of gastrulation E Substitution of one body part for another 36 What occurs during C elegans vulva development A The anchor cell develops into the inner vulva B The anchor cell develops into the outer vulva C The anchor cell induces other cells by cell cell contact D Cells of the inner vulva induce other cells by releasing morphogens E Cells of the inner vulva induce other cells through cell cell contact 37 What is true about the gray crescent in frog eggs A It induces the development of neighboring structures B It contains cytosolic molecules required for normal development C It develops into mesoderm D It restricts the developmental potential of blastomeres E It develops into the archenteron 38 Bicoid has a greater effect in cells near the anterior end of the Drosophila embryo than those at the posterior end because A Posterior cells lack the bicoid receptor B Posterior cells make less bicoid RNA than anterior cells C The region of the egg that gives rise to posterior cells contains less bicoid RNA D Another signal over rides the bicoid signal in posterior cells Exam Name MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question 1 Carbon dioxide CO2 is released during which of the following stages 1 of cellular respiration A glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B oxidative phosphorylation and fermentation C oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle D fermentation and glycolysis E the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation 2 One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts 2 to ligand binding by forming dimers becoming phosphorylated and then activating relay proteins Which type does this A G protein linked receptor 3 ligand gated ion channels C receptor tyrosine kinases D steroid receptors 3 An inhibitor of phosphodiesterase activity would have which of the 3 following effects A block the response of epinephrine B block the activation of protein kinase A C decrease the amount of cAMP in the cytoplasm D block the activation of G proteins in response to epinephrine binding to its receptor E prolong the effect of epinephrine by maintaining elevated cAMP levels in the cytoplasm 4 Among enzymes kinases catalyze phosphorylation while phosphatases 4 catalyze removal of phosphates A cell39s use of these enzymes can therefore function as an on off switch for various processes Which of the following is probably involved A the change in a protein39s charge leading to cleavage B a change in the optimal temperature at which a reaction will occur C the excision of one or more peptides D the change in a protein39s charge leading to a change in the protein39s conformation shape E a change in the optimal pH at which a reaction will occur 5 In the thylakoid membranes what is the main role of the antenna 5 pigment molecules A split water and release oxygen to the reaction center chlorophyll 3 harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction center chlorophyll C synthesize ATP from ADP and Pi D concentrate photons within the stroma E transfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPH 6 Many medicines used today exert their effects by influencing signalling 6 pathways involving A cholesterol 3 ligand gated ion channel receptors C tyrosine kinases receptors D G proteins E growth factors 7 Testosterone functions inside a cell by 7 A binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and alters the expression of specific genes B coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases glycogen metabolism C acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic 9 9 energy A a boy mowing grass B an insect foraging for food C a food molecule made up of energy rich macromolecules D water rushing over Niagara Falls E a firefly using light flashes to attract a mate 10 When a membrane is freeze fractured the bilayer splits down the 10 j middle between the two layers of phospholipids In an electron micrograph of a freeze fractured membrane the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are A peripheral proteins B integral proteins C carbohydrates D phospholipids E cholesterol molecules 11 When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom what 11 happens A Energy is released B Energy is consumed C The more electronegative atom is reduced D The more electronegative atom is oxidized E A and C are correct 12 What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity 12 of energy per photon A They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum B They have a direct linear relationship C They are logarithmically related D They are inversely related E They are separate phenomena 13 Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers The 13 cells lining the small intestine however rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose rich food into their glucose poor cytoplasm Using this information which transport mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells A exocytosis B osmosis C simple diffusion D facilitated diffusion E active transport pumps 14 Which of the following statements best represents the relationships 14 between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle A The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP B The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle and the cycle returns ADP Pi and NADPquot39 to the light reactions C The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split D There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin c cle E The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions A amphipathic B completely hydrophilic C exposed on only one surface of the membrane D osmotic E saturated 23 During glycolysis when glucose is catabolized to pyruvate most of the energy of glucose is A transferred directly to ATP B transferred to ADP forming ATP C used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose 6 phosphate D stored in the NADH produced E retained in the pyruvate 24 The toxin of Vibrio cholerae which causes cholera causes profuse diarrhea because it A modifies a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion B modifies cholesterol and activates a cascade of protein kinases C binds with adenylyl cyclase and triggers the formation of cAMP D alters the proportion of saturated phospholipids in the plasma membrane E decreases the cytosolic concentration of calcium ions making the cells hypotonic to the intestinal cells 25 What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle A synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide B transport RuBP out of the chloroplast C use NADPH to release carbon dioxide D split water and release oxygen E use ATP to release carbon dioxide 26 Which of the following is likely to lead to an increase in the concentration of ATP in a cell A an increased influx of cofactor molecules B the cell39s increased transport of materials to the environment C an increase in a cell39s catabolic activity D an increase in a cell39s anabolic activity E an increased amino acid concentration 27 In chemiosmotic phosphorylation what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP P1 to ATP A energy released from substrate level phosphorylation B energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport system C energy released from ATP synthase pumping hydrogen ions from the mitochondrial matrix D energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase E No external source of energy is required because the reaction is exergonic 28 The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is A protein kinase B phosphorylase C protease D ATPase E phosphatase 29 A chemical reaction that has a positive AG is correctly described as A exothermic B endoscopic C spontaneous D endergonic 23 j 24 j 25 j 26 j 27 j 28 j 29 j 40 Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural 1 C 2 C 3 E 4 D 5 B 6 D 7 A 9 C 10 B 11 E 12 D 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 C 18 E 19 E 20 A 21 D 22 A 23 E 24 A 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 A 29 D 30 D 31 E 32 D 33 C 34 A 35 B 36 D 37 A 38 A 40 C components of the cell membrane A glycoproteins and cholesterol B phospholipids and cellulose C phospholipids and proteins D nucleic acids and proteins E proteins and cellulose 40 E Exam Name MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question 1 Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with 1 living things A responding to the environment B growth and reproduction C evolutionary adaptations D energy processing E all of the above 2 About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life 2 Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96 of living matter A oxygen hydrogen calcium sodium B carbon sodium chlorine nitrogen C carbon oxygen sulfur calcium D carbon sulfur phosphorus hydrogen E carbon hydrogen nitrogen oxygen 3 Which of the following best describes the relationship between the 3 atoms described below Atom 1 Atom 2 1 3 1 1 H H A They are polymers B They are isotopes C They are isomers D They each contain 1 neutron E They contain 1 and 3 protons respectively 4 A covalent chemical bond is one in which 4 A the inner shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the outer shell of another atom B protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms C outer shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms D electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged E outer shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the inner electron shells of another atom 6 In a single molecule of water two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a 6 single oxygen atom by A nonpolar covalent bonds B polar covalent bonds C ionic bonds D van der Waals interactions E hydrogen bonds 7 Water39s high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the 7 A small size of the water molecules B inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air C high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms D fact that water is a poor heat conductor E absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form 8 Why does ice float in liquid water 8 is galactose D humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the beta B glycosidic linkages of starch but not the alpha oz glycosidic linkages of cellulose E humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the alpha oz glycosidic linkages of starch but not the beta B glycosidic linkages of cellulose 22 All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true except A They are more common in animals than in plants B They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms C They generally solidify at room temperature D They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis E They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids 23 What is a triacylglycerol triglyceride A a lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol B a lipid that makes up much of the plasma membrane C a carbohydrate with three sugars joined together by glycosidic linkages D a molecule formed from three alcohols by dehydration reactions E a protein with tertiary structure 24 All of the following contain amino acids except A antibodies B enzymes C cholesterol D hemoglobin E insulin 25 There are 20 different amino acids What makes one amino acid different from another A different amino groups attached to an alpha on carbon B different asymmetric carbons C different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha on carbon D different side chains R groups attached to an alpha on carbon E different alpha oc carbons 26 The on helix and the B pleated sheet are both common polypeptide forms found in which level of protein structure A primary B quaternary C tertiary D secondary E all of the above 27 The tertiary structure of a protein is the A organization of a polypeptide chain into an on helix or B pleated sheet B bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds C unique three dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide D overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits E order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain 28 The function of each protein is a consequence of its specific shape What is the term used for a change in a protein39s three dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds disulfide bridges or ionic bonds 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 j 36 The differences among the three categories of cytoskeletal elements 36 would suggest that each of the following has specialized roles Which of the following is a correct match A microtubules and cleavage furrow formation B microfilaments and ciliary motion C microfilaments and the nuclear lamina D intermediate filaments and cytoplasmic streaming E microtubules and chromosome movement 37 The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of 37 animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following A integrins B gap junctions C the nucleus D DNA and RNA E plasmodesmata H H H H H H H H H O I I I I I I I I I I I I quotC I I I C I quot H H H H H H 0 Figure 53 38 Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule 38 illustrated in Figure 53 A Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature B A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis C It is a saturated fatty acid D A and B only E A B and C 39 Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure 39 of a protein A hydrogen bonds B disulfide bonds C peptide bonds D phosphodiester bonds E A B and C 40 A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica Scientists 40 there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans 65 differences from a gibbon 49 differences from a rat and 5 differences from a frog These data suggest that the new organism A is more closely related to humans than to rats B is more closely related to humans than to frogs C is more closely related to frogs than to humans D may have evolved from gibbons but not rats E may have evolved from rats but not from humans and gibbons Exam Name MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question 1 Introns are significant to biological evolution because 1 A they are translated into essential amino acids B their presence allows exons to be shuffled C they maintain the genetic code by preventing incorrect DNA base pairings D they protect the mRNA from degeneration E they correct enzymatic alterations of DNA bases 2 Sequencing an entire genome such as that of C elegans a nematode 2 worm is most important because A it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a quotbetterquot nematode resistant to disease B a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have acquired the introns from higher organisms C a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode may have a closely related function in higher organisms D the nematode is a good animal model for trying out cures for viral illness E it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about 3 In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes gene expression is primarily 3 regulated at the level of A transcription B mRNA splicing C protein stability D translation E mRNA stability 4 Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with 4 living things A responding to the environment B growth and reproduction C energy processing D evolutionary adaptations E all of the above 5 What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons 15 5 protons and 15 electrons A 31 daltons B 15 daltons C 46 daltons D 30 daltons E 16 daltons 6 In a single molecule of water two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a 6 single oxygen atom by A ionic bonds B polar covalent bonds C hydrogen bonds D nonpolar covalent bonds E van der Waals interactions 7 Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize 7 A polar covalent bonds B covalent bonds C nonpolar covalent bonds D ionic bonds E the cell will become turgid 14 DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle A M B G2 C S D interphase E G1 16 Mendel39s observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following A Prophase II of meiosis B fertilization C Anaphase I of meiosis D Prophase I of meiosis E chromosomal nondisjunction 17 A couple has 3 children What is the probability that all 3 will be boys A 18 B 19 C 316 D 38 18 The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes will be which of the following A Proportional to the distance between them B Determined by their relative dominance C Dependent on how many alleles there are D The same as if they were not linked E Higher if they are recessive 19 What is the function of DNA polymerase III A to rejoin the two DNA strands one new and one old after replication B to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands C to degrade damaged DNA molecules D to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand E to unwind the DNA helix during replication 20 For living organisms which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics A Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics B The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment C The energy content of an organism is constant D Organisms are unable to transform energy E The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity 21 Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction39s A entropy B activation energy C endothermic level D free energy content E calorie content 22 The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event A the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B glycolysis C accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain D the citric acid cycle E the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP 23 Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high energy foods A They have a lot of electrons associated with hydrogen B They have a lot of ATP 14 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 j 23 j 30 Which of the following best describes the flow of information in 30 eukaryotic cells A DNA gt RNA gt proteins 3 RNA gt proteins gt DNA C DNA gt proteins gt RNA D proteins gt DNA gt RNA E RNA gt DNA gt proteins 1 B 2 C 3 A 4 E 5 A 6 B 7 E 8 B 9 A 10 C 11 E 12 C 13 E 14 C 16 C 17 A 18 A 19 D 20 B 21 B 22 C 23 A 24 E 25 E 26 A 27 C 28 E 29 A 30 A Bio 2020203 Exam 1 October 6 2008 7 What is a triacylglycerol A a protein with tertiary structure B a molecule formed from three alcohols by dehydration reactions C a lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol D a carbohydrate with three sugars joined together by glycosidic linkages E a lipid that makes up much of the plasma membrane 8 Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because A humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the beta B glycosidic linkages of starch but not the alpha 1 glycosidic linkages of cellulose B the monomer of starch is glucose while the monomer of cellulose is galactose C the monomer of starch is glucose while the monomer of cellulose is maltose D humans harbor starch digesting bacteria in the digestive tract E humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the alpha oi glycosidic linkages of starch but not the beta B glycosidic linkages of cellulose 9 Which of the following statements is are true about enzyme catayzed reactions A The free energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction in the absence of the enzyme B The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical equilibrium C The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme D A and B only E A B and C 10 The tertiary structure of a protein is the A overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subun s B order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain C unique threedimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide D organization of a polypeptide chain into an of helix or B pleated sheet E bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds 11 How many molecules of glycerol C3H8O3 would be present in 1 L of a 1 Mglycerol solution A 1 1 x 107 14 602 x 1023 E 92 12 What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate A the presence of deoxyribose sugar B the purinepyrimidine backbone C twisting of the molecule to form an of helix D complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases E the phospho diester bonds 13 Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is true A Microfilaments are structurally rigid and resist compression while microtubules resist tension stretching B The dynamic aspect of cytoskeletal function is made possible by the assembly and disassembly of a large number of complex proteins into larger aggregates C Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other D Transport vesicles among the membranes of the endomembrane system produce the cytoskeleton E Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would cause little effect on the cell39s metabolism Page 2 Bio 2020203 Exam 1 October 6 2008 28 The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is CH2D OH The R group orside chain of the amino acid alanine is CH3 Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution A Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular protein B Alanine would be in the interior and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein C Serine would be in the interior and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein D Both serine and alanine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein E Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein 29 For living organisms which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics A Organisms are unable to transform energy B Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics C The energy content of an organism is constant D The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment E The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity 30 Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction39s A entropy B caloric content C endothermic level D activation energy E freeenergy content 31 Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water A The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon to hydrogen linkages B They are less dense than water C They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity D They are hydrophilic E The majority of their bonds are ionic 32 Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids A They are usually liquid at room temperature B They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil C They are usually produced by plants D They have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids E They are the principal molecules in lard and butter H O I ll H CI C O H H Figure 32 33 How many grams of the molecule in Figure 32 would be equal to 1 mol of the molecule Carbon 12 Oxygen 16 Hydrogen 1 A 29 B 342 C 60 D 30 E 150 Page 5 Bio 2020203 Exam 1 October 6 2008 39 Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following A allosteric inhibition B negative energy of activation C saturation of the enzyme activity D competitive inhibition E denaturization of the enzyme 40 Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism A It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions B Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions C Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that when hydrolyzed releases free energy D Its terminal phosphate bond has less energy than the other two E A B C and D 41 Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics A Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some gain of free energy B Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization C Without an input of energy organisms would tend toward decreasing entropy D Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe E Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work 42 Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom39s nucleus A atomic weight B mass number C atomic number D molecular weight E atomic mass 43 A chemical reaction that has a positive A G is correctly described as A enthalpic B spontaneous C pathetic D endergonic E exergonic 44 Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because A their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature B they are able to maintain a cooler internal temperature C they use molecules other than proteins or RNAs as their main catalysts D high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary E their enzymes have high optimal temperatures 45 Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells A the need for a surface area of sufficient area to allow the cell39s function B the evolution of larger cells after the evolution of smaller cells the observation that smaller cells usually have a bigger cell volume the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes C D E the evolution of eukaryotes after the evolution of prokaryotes f f f f Page 7 BIO 202 Fall 2006 Practice Midterm Exam 3 1 1 2006 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 What is ALWAYS TRUE of cell division in both bacteria and eukaryotes except for meiosis a It proceeds by mitosis b It involves microtubules c Cells are pinched in half at the end d DNA is replicated before cell division e Chromosomes attach to the plasma membrane What happens during prometaphase of mitosis a DNA replicates b Chromatin fibers first start to condense c The nuclear envelope fragments d Chromosomes are lined up along the prometaphase plate e Equal and opposite forces pull on chromosomes What happens during anaphase of mitosis a Sister chromatids become attached to each other b The nuclear envelope fragments c Duplicated chromosomes line up at the center of the cell d Kinetochore microtubules get shorter e The cell divides Cytokinesis usually but not always follows mitosis If cells undergo mitosis and not cytokinesis this would result in a a cell with two or more nuclei b cells with abnormally small nuclei c death of the cell line d haploid cells e a cell with a single large nucleus In the experiment discussed in class scientists fused two cells in different stages of the cell cycle The result showed that a Cytosolic molecules regulate the cell cycle b Two nuclei can fuse with each other c S phase must occur before chromosomes can condense d Cells in G0 have left the cell cycle e Many cells in the adult never divide When in the cell cycle is the restriction point a Before G1 b Before S c Before M phase phase phase d Before G2 phase e At cytokinesis What is TRUE about cyclins a They all phosphorylate other proteins b Their abundance varies at different times in the cell cycle c They act only in mitosis d They do not interact with other proteins e They are most abundant during S phase A kinetochore that is not attached to microtubules in the spindle during mitosis sends a signal that a Prevents a protease from breaking the bonds that hold sister chromatids together b Prevents nuclear lamin phosphorylation and nuclear envelope breakdown c Prevents MPF from working d Prevents cyclin breakdown e Prevents cyclin accumulation Homologous chromosomes a Are identical Page 1 B10 202 Fall 2006 Practice Midterm Exam 3 1 12006 18 In Martians 3 unlinked genes determine skin color G green is dominant to g or purple antenna length L long is dominant to 1 short and ear shape P pointed is dominant to p or round What proportion of the offspring of a cross between GgLLPp and ggLlPp will be GgLLPp a 164 b 132 c 116 d 18 e 316 19 You find a species of bird that can have either red green or white feathers You cross 2 red feathered birds and get red green and white feathered offspring in a 934 ratio The most likely explanation is a Incomplete dominance b Epistasis c Gene linkage d Codominance of two alleles at one locus e Multiple alleles at one locus 20 The ABO blood type system in humans is an example of one locus with multiple alleles The i allele is recessive while the IA and IB alleles are co dominant A woman with A blood type marries a man with B blood type and they have a child with 0 blood type What do we know about these people a The mother was IAIA and the father was 11313 b Both parents could be IAIB c Both mother and father were heterozygotes d The mother was IAi but we don t know the genotype of the father e The father was IBi but we don t know the genotype of the mother 2 1 When does the Law of Independent Assortment NOT hold a When 3 or more genes are examined at once b When genes are on the same chromosome c When one gamete gets two alleles of the same gene d When an individual is heterozygous e When an individual is homozygous For questions 22 and 23 Assume that in potatoes large size s is dominant over small size s and oval r is dominant over round r A farmer crosses a large oval potato plant with a small round one and gets the following offspring 91 large oval 79 small round 14 large round 16 small oval 22 What is the recombination frequency between the two genes a 14 b 15 c 16 d 30 e 85 23 What is true of the s allele and the r allele in the large oval parent a They are present on the same chromosome of the homologous pair b They are present on different chromosomes of the homologous pair c We can t tell whether they re on the same or different chromosomes of the homologous pair d They are not linked e The large oval parent is homozygous for each of these alleles 24 A genetic map a Is a karyotype b Is a list of the genes in a species c Describes the number of chromosomes characteristic of a species d Describes the relative distances of genes along a chromosome e Describes the relative sizes of the different chromosomes 25 A recessive allele on the X chromosome causes color blindness in humans A woman with normal vision whose father is color blind marries a color blind man They have a son What is the probability that he is color blind a 0 b 14 c 12 d 34 e 1 Page 3 B10 202 Fall 2006 Practice Midterm Exam 3 1 12006 e First revealed that DNA contains 4 different nitrogenous bases 34 What is the function of DNA polymerase a To unwind the DNA helix during replication b To seal together the broken ends of DNA strands c To add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand d To degrade damaged DNA molecules e To join the two DNA strands one new and one old after replication 35 RNA primers a Are only present on the lagging strand b Are only present on the leading strand c Are extended by DNA polymerase which makes a DNA strand d Remain permanently in the new strand e Can be made in either the 5 to 3 or the 3 to 5 direction 36 How is the lagging strand of DNA synthesized a Short fragments are made while DNA polymerase moves toward the replication fork b Short fragments are made while DNA polymerase moves away from the replication fork c Short fragments are made while DNA ligase moves toward the replication fork d As a continuous strand e In the 3 to 5 direction 37 What happens to prepare DNA for replication a The two strands are pulled apart at each end of the chromosome b The two strands are pulled apart at only one end of the chromosome c The two strands are pulled apart at origins of replication all along the chromosome d Nothing replication starts without strand separation e One strand is degraded by nucleases while the other serves as a template for new synthesis 38 A promoter a Is made of protein b Is used in transcription but not DNA replication c Is used in both transcription and DNA replication d Is used in DNA replication but not transcription e Is a transcription factor 39 Transcription a Results in a stable DNA RNA hybrid molecule b Starts at Origins of Transcription distributed at uniform distances along the chromosome c Makes an RNA molecule with bases complementary to those in the template strand of one gene d Goes in the 3 to 5 direction e Is semi conservative so each daughter molecule has one old and one new strand 40 The spliceosome a Contains only protein b Contains only RNA c Brings intron ends together to be cut by a protein called a nuclease d Splices exon ends together after they are cut by a protein called a nuclease e Removes introns and also splices exon ends together 41 How is eukaryotic RNA modified a 5 cap and b 3 cap and c 5 cap and d 3 cap and e poly A tail polyA tail poly A tail poly U tail poly U tail only 42 The Genetic Code a Specifies each amino acid with only one codon Page 5 B10 202 Fall 2006 Practice Midterm Exam 3 1 12006 c It copies both strands of the template d It uses TTP instead of UTP e It uses RNA as a template Page 7 8 Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely 8 serve the organism39s survival in which of the following ways A allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions B allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times C organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order D allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote39s genome E allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms 9 Genomic imprinting DNA methylation and histone acetylation are all 9 examples of A epigenetic phenomena B DNA repair mechanisms C cell cycle checkpoints D genetic recombination in bacteria E recombinant DNA technologies 10 Approximately what proportion of the DNA in the human genome 10 codes for proteins or functional RNA A 13 B 46 C 83 D 985 E 15 11 Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called 11 ubiquitin attached to it A an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated B a protein that is to be degraded C a gene that is about to be expressed D an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization E a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER 12 The process of differentiation is a direct result of 12 A the formation of nucleosomes B the presence of dominant alleles C frameshift mutations D DNA sequence polymorphisms E differences in the patterns of gene expression 13 Which of the following statements describes proto oncogenes 13 j A Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth B They can code for proteins associated with cell growth C They are introduced into a cell by cancer causing viruses D They are produced by chromsomal nondisjunction E They are never expressed in cancer cells 14 Tumor suppressor genes 14 are cancer causing genes introduced into cells by viruses B can encode proteins that block cell cycle progression C often encode growth factors or growth factor receptors D are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells E all of the above 15 Using mRNA as a template for protein synthesis instead of translating 15 proteins directly from the DNA is advantageous for the cell because A RNA is much more stable than DNA B RNA acts as an expendable copy of the genetic material C mRNA molecules are subject to mutation but DNA is not D only one mRNA molecule can be transcribed from a single gene lowering the potential rate of gene expression be 19 related to which of the following A the various domains of the polypeptide product B the number of restriction enzyme cutting sites C the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein D the number of start sites for transcription E the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon 20 As a ribosome translocates along an mRNA molecule by one codon which of the following occurs A The tRNA that was in the A site departs from the ribosome via a tunnel B The tRNA that was in the A site moves to the E site and is released C The tRNA that was in the P site moves into the A site D The tRNA that was in the A site moves into the P site E The polypeptide enters the E site 21 When translating secretory or membrane proteins ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by A a signal recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane B a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message C a chemical signal given off by the ER D a specific characteristic of the ribosome itself which distinguishes free ribosomes from bound ribosomes E moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus 22 What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene A It prevents introns from being excised B It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein C It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein D It alters the reading frame of the mRNA E It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA 23 Which term describes centromeres uncoupling sister chromatids separating and the two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell A telophase B prophase C metaphase D anaphase E prometaphase 25 If mammalian cells receive a go ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint they will A replicate their DNA B show a drop in MPF concentration C move directly into telophase D complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls E exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state 26 Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex A kinesin B Cdk 20 j 21 j 22 j 23 j 25 j 26 j 33 Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs the pancreas the digestive system and 33 other organs resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections Which of the following terms best describes this A Pleiotropy B Multiple alleles C Epistasis D Incomplete dominance 34 Cinnabar eyes is a sex linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies If a 34 j female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild type male what percentage Of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes A 75 B 50 C 0 D 25 E 100 35 Which of the following statements describes genomic imprinting 35 A It is greatest in females because of the larger maternal contribution of cytoplasm B It explains cases in which the gender of the parent from whom an allele is inherited affects the expression of that allele C It involves an irreversible alteration in the DNA sequence of imprinted genes D It may explain the transmission of Duchenne muscular dystrophy 36 Chargaff39s analysis of the relative base composition of DNA was 36 significant because he was able to show that A transformation causes protein to be brought into the cell B the amount of A is always equivalent to T and C to G C the relative proportion of each of the four bases differs within individuals of a species D the human genome is more complex than that of other species E the amount of ribose is always equivalent to deoxyribose 37 What is meant by the description quotantiparallelquot regarding the strands 37 that make up DNA A The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands B One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged C The 539 to 339 direction of one strand runs counter to the 539 to 339 direction of the other strand D One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines E Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands 38 What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized 38 strand during DNA replication A the nucleotide sequence of the template strand B the primase used in the reaction C the arrangement of histones in the sugar phosphate backbone D the particular DNA polymerase catalyzing the reaction E the relative amounts of the four nucleoside triphosphates in the cell 39 The leading and the lagging strands differ in that 39 A the leading strand is synthesized in the first round of DNA replication and the lagging strand is synthesized in the second round of DNA replication B the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 339 end of the growing strand and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 539 end C the lagging strand is synthesized continuously whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together D the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction 1 A 2 E 3 A 4 E 5 D 6 E 7 E 8 A 9 A 10 E 11 13 12 E 13 13 14 13 15 13 16 C 17 E 18 13 19 A 20 D 21 A 22 E 23 D 25 A 26 D 27 13 28 13 29 D 30 C 31 E 32 A 33 A 34 E 35 13 36 13 37 C 38 A 39 D 40 13
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