BME 111 Quiz Answers
BME 111 Quiz Answers BME 111
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This 60 page Study Guide was uploaded by Quintin Woods on Thursday January 22, 2015. The Study Guide belongs to BME 111 at Arizona State University taught by Stephen Massia in Fall2013. Since its upload, it has received 297 views.
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Date Created: 01/22/15
CHAPTER 2 Q Particles that are found in the atomic nucleus are A Protons and neutrons Q Which of the following indicates a strong acid A Dissociates completely Q Which of the following helps blood to be a good buffer A Carbonate protein and phosphate Of the following which has the highest concentration of H ions Lemon juice pH 2 Mylanta pH 10 Sprite pH 3 seawater pH 8 A Lemon juice pH 2 Q Which of the following is an example of diffusion A salt dissolving in water without stirring Q Which of the following concepts best describes a chlorophyll molecule absorbing light and changing it into chemical energy A The Law of Conservation of Energy Q Which of the following concepts help explain why water can travel up a narrow tube 1 Cohesion II Adhesion 111 Specific Gravity A I and 11 Q When do the strongest chemical bonds occur A When two atoms share electrons in a covalent bond Q Which of the following statements are true I Electrons travel in predictable orbits known as electron shells II The energy of electrons decreases with increasing distance from the nucleus III Electrons can be removed from an atom to increase stability IV Electrons can be added to an atom to increase stability A III and IV Q If a silicon atom has four valence electrons what is the maximum number of bonds it can form A 4 Q What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the 2s orbital A 2 Q Oxidation describes the process of A losing electrons Q Complete neutralization of KOH with HCl will yield what products I KOH II KCl 111 H20 A II and 111 Q In covalently bonded molecules oxidation and reduction are determined by A Electronegativity of individual atoms in the molecule Q Which of the following solutes would NOT form a solution if added to water A Methane CH4 Q Which of the following atoms is most likely to participate in an ionic bond with chlorine an atom with 7 valence electrons A Rubidium l valence electron Q Two atoms with the same electronegativity would form what kind of bond A Nonpolar covalent Q What is the role of a buffer A To maintain pH homeostasis Q Why does ice oat in water A Ice is less dense than water Q If a carbon atom has four valence electrons which of the following statements are true 1 Carbon can form a triple covalent bond with another carbon atom 11 A carbon atom cannot form two double bonds simultaneously III A carbon atom can form four single covalent bonds simultaneously A I and 111 Q The reactant in a redox reaction that readily donates electrons is called a an A reducing agent Q Which of the following is NOT true A Solute molecules will move across semipermeable membranes to equalize concentration on both sides of the membrane Q Nitrogen atoms can form triple bonds with each other What is a triple bond A Two nitrogen atoms sharing three electron pairs Q Which of the following statements are true I Noble gases complete their valence level by sharing electrons II Covalent bonds are weak and easily broken III Covalent bonds allow us to make predictions on how the molecule will look A 111 Q A redox reaction can easily be explained as A transferring electrons between reactants Q An element is defined by the number of A Protons Q A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 10 M would have a pH of A 1 Q What would you eXpect to happen to a piece of celery you put into a hypertonic solution A It would shrivel up Q Which of the following statements about water is true A Water has a high specific heat Q Given the following information which elements are most likely to lose electrons I Iodine is a member of Group VII 11 Strontium is located in the second column of the periodic table 111 Selenium has siX valence electrons A Strontium Q The second law of thermodynamics states that 1 Energy can neither be created nor destroyed II All free energy cannot be converted into usable energy 111 The entropy of a system increases over time A II and III Q Which of the following is responsible for swelling our hands after exercising A Osmosis Q Which of the following statements accurately describe ice I Ice is denser than water II Hydrogen bonds hold ice molecules closer together than they do liquid water molecules III Ice oats on water A III Q What differentiates a nonpolar covalent bond from a polar covalent bond I Unequal sharing of electrons II Ions III Atoms of partial charge A I and III Q If Argon is a noble gas and its atomic number is 18 how many electrons can be found in the valence level A 8 Q The conjugate base of a strong acid is a A Weak base Q If only one type of atom makes up a substance what can you call this substance A an element Q Which of the following is a strong acid A HCl Q What does the atomic number represent A number of protons Q What is the part of the atom that determines how the atom behaves chemically A The electron CHAPTER 3 Q Proteins in our hair and nails are A Structural proteins Q When a protein makes it easier for a biological reaction to happen it is acting as A Enzyme Q Proteins are biological molecules made of A Amino acids Q What atoms are connected by a peptide bond A carbonyl carbon and amine nitrogen Q All lipids are fats A False Q What is the functional group that is formed when glycerol reacts with carboxylic acids to form triglycerides A Ester Q Which of the following types of food will give you the most energy per pound A Fat Q Why does soap remove grease from pans when we wash dishes A Part of the soap molecule is polar and dissolves in water while part is non polar and dissolves in the lipids Q Which of the following roles do lipids NOT play in our bodies A Generate heat Q Which set of functional groups is always found in sugars A hydroxyl groups and ethers Q What type of reaction causes the formation of sugar molecules larger than monosaccharides A Dehydration Q Which sugar is the one our bodies use for fuel A Glucose Q How many monosaccharides make up a polysaccharide A Greater than 3 Q Which structure represents only the order of amino acids in a protein A Primary Q Which of the following is the breakdown of protein secondary tertiary and quaternary structure A Denaturation Q Which of the following secondary structures is not held together by hydrogen bonds A Random Coil Q Which of the following are involved in the 3 D structure of proteins A A B and C covalent bonds hydrogen bonding hydrophobic interactions Q How many natural amino acids are there A 20 Q Which category of amino acids cannot participate in hydrogen bonding with its side chain A non polar Q Which amino acid has no side chain A Glycine Q Which amino acid is involved in formation of disulfide bonds A Cysteine Q Which of the following reactions forms peptide bonds A Dehydration Q A peptide bond is the linkage between A The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the nitrogen of the amine of another amino acid Q What are the monomer units in protein polymers A Amino Acids Q What does N terminus refer to A The end of a protein with a free amine group Q Which of the following functional groups contain oxygen A Alcohol Ether and Carboxylic Acid Q Which of the following functional groups contains nitrogen A Amine Q Which of the following is true about organic molecules A They must contain carbon Q There are natural polymers A True Q What holds high density polyethylene together A Intermolecular forces between polymer chains Q Proteins contain one type of amino acid A false Q If a single sugar is called a 39monosaccharide which word describes a three sugar polymer A Trisaccharide Q What is the shorthand for carbon or a carbon chain in organic chemistry A R Q Which of the following statements about proteins is false A They make up the phospholipid bilayer Q Which of the following characteristics distinguishes carbohydrates from other macromolecule types A Carbohydrates consist of a carbon bonded to hydrogen and a hydroxyl group Q A five carbon sugar is known as a A pentose Q The characteristic of phospholipids that allows them to form a bilayer is their A hydrophobic fatty acid tail Q A macromolecule with many hydrogen and peptide bonds is most likely a what A protein Q Which atom can be found in organic molecules A All of the above sulfur hydrogencarbonnitrogen Q Which of the following statements about lipids is false A All of these statements are true CHAPTER 4 Q Information sources used by Watson and Crick to determine the structure of DNA included A X ray crystallography of double stranded DNA Q Which of the following is a primary function of a nucleic acid A Storage of information Q The following concepts led to the hypothesis that DNA has a double helix structure A The ratio of AT is 11 DNA strands are antiparallel Q Which of the following scientists are credited with discovering the structure of DNA A James Watson and Francis Crick Q Which of the following are pyrimidines that can be found in RNA A Cytosine and uracil Q Which of the following bases are categorized as purines A Guanine and adenine Q The antiparallel relationship of the two strands of DNA refers to the A alignment of the strands such that one strand starts with a 339 carbon and the other starts with a 539 carbon Q Which of the following statements is true A Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine QGriffith39s experiments showing the transformation of Rough strain pneumococcus bacteria to Smooth strain pneumococcus bacteria in the presence of heat killed Smooth strain bacteria provided eVidence that A an external factor was affecting the Rough strain bacteria Q Which of the following can be found in a DNA molecule A A amp C sugar and phosphate Q Which of the following forms the backbone of a DNA molecule A Deoxyribose and a phosphate group Q How does RNA differ from DNA A RNA contains uracil instead of thymine and it is usually single stranded Which of the following are ways in which RNA is different than DNA A I Single stranded II Ribose Q The 39central dogma39 of molecular biology states that A information ow in the cell is unidirectional from DNA to RNA to protein Q Which of the following are reasons why RNA is generally less stable than DNA A 1 Fewer hydrogen bonds II Prevalence of proteins that can degrade RNA Q A nucleic acid monomer is called A A nucleotide Q Which of the following statements is true A Hydrogen bonds can form between bases in a single RNA molecule Q The nitrogenous bases and the two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by A hydrogen bonds Q A phosphodiester bond links A A sugar and a phosphate group Q Watson and Crick39s model allowed them to Visualize what A A B amp C CHAPTER 5 Q Which of the following is true about enzymes A Enzymes lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction Q The location of substrate binding on an enzyme is called the A Active site Q The change in free energy of a reaction the change in energy between the start and end of a chemical reaction is A unchanged with the help of an enzyme Q Which of the following is NOT true of lactase A It can break down different sugar substrates besides lactose Q The following conditions can denature an enzyme A Extreme temperature and extreme pH Q Pepsin works optimally in your stomach due to its A acidic pH Q An enzyme will reach its saturation point A When no more enzyme is available to work on substrates Q An increase in temperature A Increases the likelihood an enzyme and substrate will collide Q What type of bond is often formed between prosthetic groups and proteins A covalent Q A coenzyme is differentiated from the broader class of cofactors because it is A organic Q Many coenzymes are derived from A vitamins Q Cellular respiration includes a step that converts pyruvate into Acetyl coA Acetyl coA is also known as Coenzyme A This implies that Acetyl coA A Helps an enzyme perform a function Q Iron binds tightly to the heme group in the protein hemoglobin What types of helper molecule would is this considered A A prosthetic group and cofactor Q Competitive inhibition involves an inhibitor A binding to the active site Q A non substrate molecule binds to an enzyme Now the enzyme is able to bind its substrate when it previously could not What has likely occurred A the active site has changed shape Q Which of the following is NOT true of a noncompetitive inhibitor A The inhibitor can bind in the active site Q Which of the following statements about enzymes is true A Enzyme activity increases as temperature increases up to a point Q You are investigating a new species never before studied It lives in acidic pools in volcanic craters where temperatures often reach 100 C and normally stay above 90 C You determine that it has a surface enzyme that catalyzes a reaction leading to its protective coating and you decide to study this enzyme in the laboratory Under what conditions would you most likely find optimal activity of this enzyme A 95 degrees Q Ascorbic acid found in citrus fruits acts as an inhibitor to catecholase the enzyme responsible for the browning reaction in fruits such as apples peaches and pears The mechanism of inhibition may be that the pH of the ascorbic acid solution is altering the protein folding of catecholase If this is true then this inhibition is most likely an example of what type of inhibition A enzyme denaturation Q How does substrate concentration affects the rate of an enzyme mediated reaction A increases it until the enzyme saturation point it reached CHAPTER 6 Q Nuclear DNA exists as a complex of proteins called that condenses into during cellular division A chromatin chromosomes Q Which of the following is NOT a function of the cytoskeleton A Transporting molecules into the cell Q Which of the following provides support to the nucleus A Nuclear lamina Q Where can you find ribosomes performing translation A abcd Q Which part of a phospholipid is hydrophobic A Fatty acid chain Q A mass of cells is found in the sediment surrounding a thermal vent in the ocean oor The salinity in the area is quite high Microscopic examination of the cells reveals no evidence of membrane enclosed organelles What type of cell is this A prokaryotic cell Q What are ribosomes comprised of A rRNA and protein Q Active transport involves A Chemical energy Q What is another term for the intracellular space A Cytoplasm Q In What singular part is chlorophyll located A Q What type of c A Liver ER Q Which of the following functions is carried out by intermediate laments but not microtubules A Providing nuclear lamina structure Q Which process best describes nonspeci c internalization of dissolved ions outside the cell A Pinocytosis Q Which of the following makes up agella A Microtubules in a 9 plus 2 arrangement Q The Fluid Mosaic Model describes proteins A oating laterally throughout the space Q Where are the A P and E sites located A Large Subunit Q Which of the following is NOT true of the phosphate group in a phospholipid The Phosphate group is A Positively Charged Q Where is the starting point of ribosome synthesis A Nucleolus Q What is the function of a lysosome A The breakdown of phagocytized material QWhich part of the endomembrane system synthesizes lipids and steroids A Smooth ER Q Which of the following does NOT take place in the nucleus A Translation Q This type of integral membrane protein moves two substances in the same direction A Symport Q Which process best describes the internalization of a speci c substrate molecule outside the cell A Receptor mediated endocytosis Q A foreign cell has entered your blood stream Which process describes how it can be engulfed by one of the cells in your immune system A Phagocytosis Q The following cytoskeleton components can by dynamic shrinking and growing by adding and subtracting subunits A Microtubules and Micro laments Q What is stored in the central vacuole of plants A abcampd Q The packaging of proteins to be used outside the cell occurs in what organelle A Golgi Apparatus Q Which part is a granumg Q Which of the following describes the nuclear envelope A a b c amp d Q Which of the following is NOT contained in a chloroplast A Nucleus Q Movement of cells in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes is accomplished by which of the following structures A Flagella Q The inside of a cell contains more solutes than the outside of the cell Which describes the inside of the cell and the direction of water A Inside the cell is hypertonic Water will move towards the inside of the cell Q A plant cell in a hypotonic solution will respond by A Putting pressure on the cell walls through the central vacuole Q Which of the following is NOT true of the endomembrane system A Continuous part of the cell membrane Q Protons pumped into the central vacuole can affect this space by making it A Acidic Q Which of the following first binds to the mRNA message A Small Subunit Q Which of the following is true of the lysosome A It digests molecules from endocytosis Q Where does photosynthesis occur A Chloroplast Q Diffusion of small polar molecules across the cell membrane along a concentration gradient is A Simple Q Carbohydrates in the cell membrane contribute to A Cell to cell adhesion Q Microfilaments are composed of A Chains of actin in double helix Q Which of the following is involved in cell to cell communication A Integral Proteins Q How is the phospholipid bilayer oriented A Tails face towards each other Q Which is NOT a membrane bound organelle A Ribosome Q Which does NOT describe the mitochondria inner membrane A Selective Permeable Q Which part of the endomembrane system is a site for protein synthesis A Rough ER Q The following cellular compartments contain a lumen created by their membranes A Rough ER Smooth ER Golgi Q What do all eukaryotes have that prokaryotes do not A Nucleus Q What process takes place in the chloroplast turning light energy into food A Photosynthesis Q The purpose of cellulose is to A Provide Structure to the cell wall Q What is the cellular function of the RER A Protein synthesis Q Exocytosis can be used to secrete newly made proteins out of the cell It can be used to add this directly to the cell membrane A Integral membrane protein Q Which of the following is true about chlorophyll A Absorbs specific light wavelengths Q Which types of molecules will easily pass through the fatty acid chains of the bilayer A Hydrophobic Q What part of the mitochondria creates more surface area for cellular respiration A Inner membrane CHAPTER 7 Q In which method of DNA Replication would new DNA consist of alternating parent and daughter DNA A Dispersive Q What is the cellular process in which a new copy of DNA is created A DNA Replication Q How is the N lS isotope different from the N l4 atom A N 15 has one extra neutron Q In which method of DNA Replication would all parent DNA be conserved in the original molecule A Conservative Q How many rounds of DNA Replication were needed to disprove the Conservative method A 1 Q Who performed the experiment that proved semi conservative DNA replication was correct A Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl Q Why does N lS DNA sink to a lower level than N 14 in a centrifuge tube A N 15 DNA has a higher density than N 14 DNA Q The Dispersive method of DNA Replication was disproved when the scientists observed A two separate bands of DNA of different densities Q What kind of organism was used to investigate the method of DNA Replication A Bacteria Q Because hydrogen bonds are weak bonds they create a perfect site for A separating nucleic acid strands Q The location where the process of DNA replication begins is called the A origin of replication Q When DNA helicase separates the two parental strands it creates a Y shape called a A replication fork Q The enzyme responsible for unwinding the double heliX is A DNA helicase Q What links together the nitrogenous bases in the center of the DNA molecule A Hydrogen bonds Q What happens to the RNA primer once DNA replication is begun by DNA polymerase A The primer is removed Q What are the small components monomers that make up the large DNA polymer A Nucleotides Q Which is the enzyme that attaches daughter nucleotides to the parent strand during DNA replication A DNA Polymerase Q Which word part is used to designate that a molecule is an enzyme A The suffix 39 ase39 Q Which is the enzyme that builds the RNA primer A RNA Primase Q What is the purpose of the RNA primer A To initiate the process of DNA replication Q Which enzyme is responsible for binding Okazaki fragments together A DNA Ligase Q Why do we call DNA an antiparallel molecule A Because the 339 and 539 ends of each strand run in opposite directions Q Why can39t DNA polymerase work continuously on both parent strands A It only works in the 339 to 539 direction Q Which enzyme is responsible for laying down the daughter nucleotides during DNA replication A DNA polymerase Q Which of the parent DNA strands is replicated discontinuously A the lagging strand Q What is the role of DNA polymerase A To assemble daughter nucleotides on the parent strand Q How many replication forks are contained in each replication bubble A 2 Q Which is the strand that replicates just as quickly as the replication fork opens up A the leading strand Q On the lagging strand one RNA primer is required for the beginning of every A Okazaki Fragment Q What happens to the replication bubbles in order to complete replication A They grow and merge together Q The structure of the DNA Molecule is described as What kind of molecular model A Helical double stranded and antiparallel Q Why is the enzyme DNA ligase is required continuously during DNA replication A Fragments of the lagging strand must be joined together Q Which of the parent DNA strands is replicated discontinuously A the lagging strand Q Why are Okazaki fragments necessary A Because DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the 3 prime end of a DNA strand Q How many replication forks are contained in each replication bubble A 2 Q What is the purpose of the RNA primer A To initiate the process of DNA replication Q DNA polymerase extends a polynucleotide strand by doing what A covalently linking a single new nucleotide to a previously existing strand Q What happens to the replication bubbles in order to complete replication A They grow and merge together CHAPTER 8 Q Which of the following is the process of transferring genetic information from DNA to RNA A Transcription Q Which of the following is the process of decoding RNA as instructions for building an amino acid chain A Translation Q Which of the following is a framework to describe the ow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein A The central dogma Q Which of the following terms encompasses all the cellular activities involved in building protein molecules A Protein synthesis Q What is the term for a distinct section of DNA that codes for one protein A Gene Q Which of the following is the enzyme that adds RNA nucleotides to build the antisense strand A RNA polymerase Q What does the 39m39 stand for in 39mRNA39 A Messenger Q Where in the cell does transcription occur A In the nucleus Q Which is the strand that serves as the template for transcription A The sense strand Q In which phase of transcription does the RNA polymerase attach to the promoter sequence of DNA A Initiation Q Which organism was studied extensively in the discovery of gene regulation A E Coli Q Which type of cell does NOT contain a nucleus A Prokaryotic cell Q Which of the following is the enzyme that adds RNA nucleotides to build the antisense strand A RNA Polymerase Q Which of the following describes a group of related genes in a prokaryote39s DNA A Operon Q The lac operon codes for the enzyme that help digest the sugar A Lactose Q Which of the following describes an increase in gene expression A Induction Q Which of the following is NOT a segment of DNA A Inducer Q Operons are only found in what kind of cell A Prokaryotic Q What makes the lac repressor fall off the lac operator A Lactose the inducer Q The repressor blocks RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter making impossible A Transcription Q Which part of the lac operon codes for the lactose digesting enzymes A Structural genes Q The 539 cap is made of which single nucleotide A Guanine Q Before an mRNA molecule is finished With RNA processing it is called a A precurso or pre mRNA Q Which parts of a gene were originally thought of as 39junk DNA39 A Introns Q Which part of a gene actually codes for proteins A Exons Q Which structures assist With RNA splicing A Spliceosomes Q The start codon Which also codes for methionine is A AUG Q What are the letters that represent the 4 nucleotide bases in mRNA A A C G U Q How many nucleotide bases make up a codon A 3 Q How many different codons can be found on the codon chart A 64 Q The letters used in the codon chart come from Which type of nucleic acid strand A mRNA Q The letters used in the codon chart are re ections of Which type of code A mRNA Q Because there are more codons than available amino acids we say that the genetic code is A Degenerate Q The ability of codons to match with the appropriate amino acids is called a A Codon recognition Q Because the same codons specify the same amino acids in nearly all organisms we say that the genetic code is A Universal Q Our ability to manufacture human insulin through bacteria is due in part to the fact that the genetic code is A universal Q Which type of RNA molecule contains an anticodon A tRNA Q What the 39t39 stand for in tRNA A Transfer Q Which of the following is the molecule that acts as an interpreter between the language of mRNA and the language of amino acids A tRNA Q What is the anticodon for the codon AAG A UUC Q How many amino acids are specified by each different codon A Only 1 Q How many subunits make up the ribosome complex A 2 Q The tiny organelle on the rough endoplasmic reticulum is called the A Ribosome Q What is another term for a chain of amino acids A Polypeptide Q Which two types of nucleic acids move into the ribosome during translation A MRNA and tRNA Q What type of molecule is released during the formation of a peptide bond A Water Q Which is the organelle that helps with the assembly of polypeptides A Ribosome Q In which step does the ribosome reach a stop codon and end the process of translation A Termination Q In which step does the polypeptide continue to grow as amino acids are added to the chain A Elongation Q Which type of codon signals the termination of polypeptide synthesis A A Stop codon Q In which step do the tRNA and mRNA first join up in the ribosome A Initiation Q How many amino acids are specified by one specific codon A Only 1 Q Which of the following statements about transcription in prokaryotic cells is true A It is initiated at a promoter and uses only one strand of DNA the template strand to synthesize a complementary RNA strand Q Which part of the tRNA base pairs with the codon in the mRNA A The anticodon CHAPTER 9 Q All base substitutions are also A point mutations Q Which type of mutation adds a base pair to the original DNA sequence A Insertion Q Which type of mutation does NOT change the length of a DNA strand A base substitution Q A base substitution is called a transversion whenever a purine is swapped with A a pyrimidine Q The nitrogenous bases adenine A and guanine G are the two examples of A purines Q What kind of mutation causes sickle cell anemia A missense Q Which type of mutation does NOT change the overall function of the protein A silent Q Which type of mutation results in an incomplete polypeptide because of an early stop signal A nonsense Q Which type of mutation causes one amino acid to switch with another A missense Q A mutation in DNA can affect the amino acid sequence because it affects the code found in A mRNA Q Mutagens are typically found A in an organism39s environment Q Which enzyme is supposed to check DNA for errors A DNA polymerase Q When can a genetic mutation get passed down through successive generations A when it does not affect the organism39s ability to survive and reproduce Q How do mutagens cause mutations A by increasing the likelihood of a replication error Q Why do people try to protect their skin from ultraviolet radiation A because UV radiation is a mutagen Q Insertions and deletions cause A frameshift mutations Q A shift in the reading frame is usually caused by an insertion or a A deletion Q Tay Sachs disease results from a buildup of harmful chemicals in the A nerve cells Q In Tay Sachs disease a frameshift mutation of the hexosaminidase gene causes of the enzyme A incorrect synthesis Q Why are frameshift mutations more dramatic than base substitutions A Frameshifts affect more than one amino acid CHAPTER 10 Q strain is A the change in length after testing divided by the original length Q All of the following are classification terms for biological materials except A Metals Q In order to break a material a certain amount of work per unit cross sectional area Jm2 is applied This is called the A work of fracture Q A biological material A Materials created by living organisms Q A defining feature of a biological material A All of the above Q Toughness is bone with increasing mineral volume fraction A Decreases Q One measures stiffness elasticity A stressstrain initial segment of graph Q stress is A force divided by cross sectional area Q Tuning in biological materials refers to A The alignment by natural selection of the properties of materials with their applications in an organism Q the maximum amount of stress a material can handle is its A ultimate strength Q When stretching a material one does work on the material As the material is released energy is released The difference between the work that comes out relative to that which goes in is termed a material39s A resilience Q what are some of the advantages of materials with J shaped stress strain curves A All of the above Q A mechanism that contributes to the fracture toughness of bone A All of the above Q Organic matrices impact biomineralization through A A amp C Stabilization of intermediate semicrystalline structures And In uencing the shape of mineral crystal formation CHAPTER 11 Q If one is designing a biodiesel production plant one would want easy access to A farmers growing crops with a high fat or oil content Q farmers growing crops with a high fat or oil content A Mono alkyl esters of long chain fatty acids Q Plants that produce large amounts of fatty acids or triglyderides could be used to power biodiesel engines because A there is a great deal of energy stored in the carbon chains of fatty acids and triglycerides Q Crop with the highest yield of oil Liter hectare 1 hectare 100 ares 10 000 square metres 100 metres x 100 metres A algae Q Biofuels A A B and C Include forestry wastes and agricultural leftovers such as include methane include recently grown crops Q Starting materials for the production of cellulosic bioethanol could include A All of the above Q Ethanol production as an alternative fuel A all of the above Q Why is amylase glucoamylase added to cornstarch during ethanol production A To break down starch to dextrose Q According to the ASU research video in Module 9 how old is the concept of algae as a fuel oil source A 60 70 years Q According to the ASU research Video in Module 9 What is the highest yield of oil that can produced from an algae cell A 50 60 CHAPTER 12 Q Which of the following features of DNA is primarily responsible for movement of DNA molecules in an electrical field A Phosphate Q Examine the following diagram of an agarose gel electrophoresis setup The orientation of the electrodes are designated by the plus and minus signs The wells where the DNA is loaded is designated by the filled rectangles Given this information which of the following statements are true A The DNA fragment will move upward Q Which of the following statements is true A DNA fragments move through agarose at a rate inversely proportional to their length Q Which statement about loading buffer is true A Loading buffer is used to determine when a gel run is complete Q Which of the following statements are true A The dye front can be used to determine when the electrophoresis protocol is complete Q Which of the following reagents or equipment are listed in the order in which they would be used to analyze DNA by agarose gel electrophoresis A Gel box dye front ethidium bromide UV box Q The following image represents a map of a piece of DNA where each vertical line represents a recognition site for restriction enzyme BamHI If this DNA was digested completely by BamHI which of the following agarose gel results would you expect to see A Q Which of the following statements is NOT true A A vector is the organism that is modified in a genetic engineering experiment Q A scientist isolates a human DNA repair gene and inserts it into a plasmid The plasmid is inserted into a bacterial cell so more plasmid can be produced After isolating the plasmid from the bacterial cells the scientist inserts the plasmid DNA into a human tissue culture cell using a virus Which of the following statements is true A Two different vectors were used in this experiment Q The main purpose of the origin of replication is A To ensure that each daughter cell receives a copy of the plasmid during cell division Q The main purpose of an antibiotic selectable marker is A To make it possible to eliminate bacteria that have not been genetically modified Q Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in an experiment in which a human growth hormone gene is inserted into a plasmid A Insulin gene Q Which of the following experiments uses a selectable marker 1 An experiment in which genetically modified bacteria are blue and all other bacteria are white 11 An experiment in which the bacteria that has been genetically modified to produce the human insulin protein is identified by checking the DNA sequence III A fruit y experiment in which a lethal gene kills all progeny except those of the desired genetic makeup A A fruit y experiment in which a lethal gene kills all progeny except those of the desired genetic makeup Q If the recognition sequence of the restriction enzyme HindIII is AAGCTT how many covalent bonds will be broken by the enzyme in the following DNA molecule A 2 Q Which of the following statements is false 1 Hydrogen bonds are found between complementary nitrogenous bases 11 The primary role of restriction enzymes is to break the hydrogen bonds at the recognition site 111 Sticky ends are so named because of their propensity to hydrogen bond with complementary nucleotides A The primary role of restriction enzymes is to break the hydrogen bonds at the recognition site Q Which of the following does ligase link together A A sugar and a phosphate Q Ligase catalyzes the formation of what type of bond A Covalent Q Which of the following statements about E coli is NOT true A All of the statements are true Q A scientist incubates E coli with iced calcium chloride and a plasmid that contains an ampicillinresistance gene as the selectable marker Then he brie y heat shocks the mixture at fortytwo degrees Celsius After the recommended recovery time he plates the cells on kanamycin plates The next day he is surprised that no cells grew What statement best explains why the transformation experiment failed A The incorrect antibiotic plate was used Q Which of the following accurately represents the order of steps in a transformation experiment 1 Incubate bacterial cells with chilled CaC12 11 Recovery 111 Heat shock IV Antibiotic selection A I III 11 IV Q Which of the following statements about heat shock are true A Fortytwo degrees Celsius is the optimal heat shock temperature Q PCR stands for A Polymerase Chain Reaction Q A PCR primer is A A piece of DNA that defines the region to be amplified during PCR Q Which of the following statements about Taq polymerase are true I It is isolated from a thermophilic bacterium II It is not functional at nearboiling temperatures 111 The protein39s name is derived from the organism from which it is isolated A I and 111 Q Which of the following are appropriate reagents to add to a human DNA template and PCR buffer to complete the PCR reaction A G A T and C nucleotides a pair of primers Taq polymerase Q Which of the following statements about PCR template DNA isare true A It is the starting material for amplification during PCR Q During the extension step of PCR which enzyme binds to the PCR primer and adds nucleotides A Taq polymerase Q During the annealing step of PCR which of the following occur 1 RNA primase creates a primer II The nucleotides in each primer base pair with complementary nucleotides in the template DNA 111 A primer attaches to each strand of template DNA A II and 111 Q Which of the following statements about the denaturation step of PCR isare true A The denaturation step breaks hydrogen bonds Q Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a PCR cycle A Denaturation annealing extension Q Which of the following is considered a vector A All of the above Q For a prokaryotic vector to be propagated in a host bacterial cell the vector needs A an origin of replication Q Which of the following are used to visualize DNA bands of an agarose gel A b amp d UV box Ethidium bromide Q A scientist believes she has discovered a new nucleic acid dye that is visible to the naked eye If this is true which of the following pieces of equipment would no longer be necessary for agarose gel electrophoresis of DNA A UV box CHAPTER 13 QWhere does the Krebs cycle occur A mitochondrial matrix Q Energy is released from ATP when the bond is broken between A two phosphate groups Q Which of the following cellular metabolic processes is active in all cells regardless of the presence or the absence of oxygen A Glycolysis Q Why must pyruvate be reduced during fermentation A To regenerate NAD for glycolysis Q ATP is created during the light reactions during which event that is similar to what occurs in cellular respiration A by a proton concentration gradient and ATP synthase Q What product from the Krebs cycle is waste for your body A carbon dioxide Q How many molecules of ATP does fermentation provide A 2 Q Which is true of chlorophyll A Chlorophyll becomes oxidized by light energy Q Which of the following is NOT produced during the electron transport chain A carbon dioxide Q What is the relationship between NADP and NADPH in the light reaction A ANADP is reduced to NADPH Q What is the product from the intermediate step between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle A Acetyl coenzyme A Q What color of visible light does chlorophyll re ect A Green Q In order to perform glycolysis which of the following needs to happen A Two ATP molecules are used Q What molecule is used to produce glucose from the Calvin Cycle A G3P Q Electrons from chlorophyll move A to an excited state Q How is oxygen used in cellular respiration A It accepts electrons and protons to form water Q Glycolysis produces two 3carbon sugars that are then used in what stage of cellular respiration A The Citric Acid Cycle Q Which of the following reactants of photosynthesis are also products of cellular respiration A carbon dioxide Q Which describes carbon fixation in the dark reactions A RuBisCo converts inorganic carbon dioxide into organic molecules Q Which of the following produces the MOST ATP A Electric transport chain Q Which of the following statements about FAD are true A I and 111 Q Electrons are excited by energy absorbed by A chlorophyll and accessory pigments Q Which of the following steps of the electron transport chain directly drives ADP phosphorylation A Proton ow through ATP synthase along a concentration gradient Q When liVing cells break down molecules of food energy is A stored as ATP Q Electrons are excited in what molecule of the reaction center A Chlorophyll a Q The main function of cellular respiration is the A conversion of energy stored in the chemical bonds of glucose to an energy form that the cell can use Q How many net ATP molecules are gained from glycolysis A 2 Q The breakdown of organic compounds to produce ATP is known as A cellular respiration Q Which is true of the dark reactions A They do not directly use sunlight energy Q Which of the following statements about NAD are false A I and 111 Q In order to produce the most ATP an organism needs to perform A aerobic cellular respiration Q Which of the following stagesprocesses releases carbon dioxide A Alcoholic fermentation Q What is the electron carrier in glycolysis that becomes reduced A NAD Q The color of a pigment is the color wavelength that is A re ected Q Which of the following are used in the dark reactions but produced in the light reactions A ATP NADPH Q Which of the following are produced in the dark reactions A ADP NADP G3P Q In the conversion of succinate to fumarate hydrogen atoms are transferred to FAD The conversion of succinate and FAD to fumarate and FADH2 is an example of what kind of reaction A a redox reaction Q Which of the following represents the oxidized form of avin adenine dinucleotide during cellular respiration A FAD Q Glycolysis happens A In the cytoplasm of cells CHAPTER 14 Q Which of these cells does not secrete extracellular matrix components A Fat cell Q Collagen is found in A Loose connective tissue Q Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue A Muscle Q High tensile strength is a characteristic of which type of tissue A Fibrous connective tissue Q A young person comes into a doctor39s office with severe arthritis in his joints oppy looking ears and a strangely shaped nose Based only on these three observations what type of connective tissue is functioning abnormally in this person A Cartilage Q Which of the following is not true of a closed circulatory system A It cannot serve all the cells in an organism Q Hemolymph is found A In the sinuses of an open circulatory system Q On a hot day in the African savannah it would be advantageous for an elephant to lose more heat from its blood so it should A Dilate the blood vessels in its ears Q Jellyfish have A A gastrovascular cavity Q In an open circulatory system A The circulatory uid surrounds the internal organs Threechambered hearts allow amphibians to Have a double circulation scheme gt0 The sinoatrial node Is the pacemaker of the human heart gt0 The main function of a heart valve is to Prevent back ow gt0 The right ventricle pumps blood into The pulmonary arteries gt0 High concentrations of carbon dioxide have what effect on hemoglobin It induces the hemoglobin to adopt the Tstructure gt0 Q Hemoglobin acts primarily as what A Shortterm storage for oxygen Q If oxygenrich blood ows through a capillary that passes through tissue that is already saturated with oxygen what will happen A The blood will retain its oxygen and continue on its way Q Hemoglobin is composed of A Protein and iron Q Which of the following is not a feature of hemoglobin A It can bind to carbon dioxide and oxygen at the same time Q Organs are A Composed of more than one tissue Q Epithelial tissues form tightly packed layers of cells on top of A The basement membrane Q Which of the following is not a characteristic of multicellular organisms A They can be composed of one type of tissue Q Which of the following is not a function of an epithelial tissue A Serve as a base to support other tissue types Q Which of the following explains how a person straightens their arm at the elbow A The triceps muscle contracts pulling the ulna away from the upper arm while the biceps muscle is relaxed Q Which of the following is the best explanation of how a muscle cell exerts force A The muscle cell shortens or contracts and exerts a pulling force on whatever is attached to both ends Q Which of the following is not true of cardiac muscle A It is voluntary Q Which of the following is not a true statement about bones A Some bones are exible to allow for greater freedom of movement Q Arteries always transport A Blood away from the heart Q The lymph nodes A Contain lots of immune cells Q What signals a blood vessel to undergo angiogenesis A VEGF and other growth factors Q Which of these blood vessels brings oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart A Pulmonary Vein Q Which of the following is not true of capillaries A They are completely watertight Q Mature red blood cells contain which of the following A Hemoglobin Q Sickle Cell Anemia is called an anemia because A It is a disorder that results in a lower than normal red blood cell count Q Which of the following is not a feature of mature red blood cells A They have ribosomes Q Immature red blood cells contain which of the following A All of these Q Which of the following is smallest in size A Bronchioles Q After inhaled air passes through the larynx it enters the A Trachea Q In the lungs where is the concentration of dissolved oxygen greatest A In the film of water that coats the alveoli Q Which of the following is not a feature of alveoli A They are tube shaped Q Dialysis most closely mimics the function of which organ A The kidney Q The small intestine absorbs what A Monosaccharides amino acids fatty acids monoglycerides and water Q Which of the following is smallest in size A Bronchioles Q Where in the digestive tract does most of the digestion take place in humans A The small intestine Q One of the many functions of the liver is A To convert ammonia into urea Q Which of the following is not filtered out of the glomerular capillaries A Large molecules Q Which of the following is not true A Peptides are broken down into nucleic acids in the small intestine Q Amylase and Pepsin have what in common A They are both digestive enzymes Q How does the kidney concentrate urea in the renal tubules A By reabsorbing water from the renal tubules Q Which of the following does not increase the absorptive surface area of the small intestine A Peristalsis Q Maximum hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen secretion in the stomach occurs when A After food has already entered the stomach Q Which of the following is not a feature of alveoli A They are tube shaped Q After inhaled air passes through the larynx it enters the A Trachea Q In a mammalian heart blood leaves the left ventricle and enters what A The aorta Q Which of the following is not a function of hydrochloric acid in gastric juice A Digest the mucous layer covering the epithelium Q Exchange of substances between the blood and the interstitial uids occurs in what part of the vertebrate circulatory system A Capillaries Q If you find an unknown vertebrate with a fourchambered heart which of the following animals are possible candidates A Bird Q The three sections of the small intestine are the and A Duodenum jejunum ileum Q Breathing provides the body with the oxygen required to support the energy metabolism of all cells and also eliminates one of the waste products of cell metabolism A Carbon dioxide Q Threechambered hearts allow amphibians to A Reduce the mixing of oxygenrich and oxygenpoor blood Q Bile produced in the liver is associated with which of the following A Emulsification of fats into tiny globules in the small intestine CHAPTER 15 Q Which of the following is not a method that humans use to lower their internal body temperature A Constriction of blood vessels near the skin surface Q In ectotherms homeostasis does not include regulation of what A Internal body temperature Q Which of the following is the least effective means of raising the internal body temperature in humans A raising the hair on their bodies Q Endotherms are able to maintain a stable body temperature that is several degrees warmer than their environment because they maintain a high metabolic rate by burning lots of calories A Q Which of the following is true about type I diabetes A Type I diabetics must take regular insulin injections Q Which of the following is not a function of glucagon A Stimulating glycogen production from glucose Q Which of the following is a true statement about hormones A They are signaling molecules that travel through the circulatory system Q Which of the following is not a type of sensory neuron A All of these are types of sensory neurons Q Which of the following is true about motor neurons A They transmit signals to responsive tissues Q Which of the following functions is controlled by the autonomic nervous system A Heart Rate Q Which of the following is not a major function of the nervous system A Re ex reaction Q Sodiumpotassium pumps help maintain membrane polarization by A Pumping three positivelycharged sodium ions out of the cell for every two positivelycharged potassium ions it pumps into the cell Q Membrane depolarization is caused by A Localized in ux of sodium ions into the cell through sodium channels Q Which of the following is a true statement about neurons A Dendrites conduct signals toward the cell body and Axons conduct signals away from The cell body Q Which of the following is not true about synapses A Neurotransmitters can bind to receptors on both sides of the synapse and cause ionspecific channels to open Q The neurons of the central nervous system are all what type of neuron A interneuron Q Which of the following is true about re exes A A re ex reaction is faster than a nonre ex response Q Which of the following is not true about the periperal nervous system A It does not include any neurons located in the head Q Which of the following is not true about sensory neurons A They do not monitor internal body conditions Q Which of the following effects are mediated by the sympathetic nervous system A increased heart rate Q Which of the following effects are mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system A stimulation of the digestive system Q The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two divisions of which other nervous System A The autonomic nervous system Q The Cerebellum is important for A Coordinating movement balance and handeye coordination Q This part of the brain is considered to be the relay station for sensory information to the cerebral cortex A Thalamus Q The hippocampus is important for A The formation of new long term memories and spatial orientation Q Which part of the brain regulates many vital autonomic functions including heart rate breathing blood pressure swallowing and digestion A Brain Stem Q When Phil came across a bear on his hike this part of his brain activated the Fight or Flight Response A Hypothalamus Q If a person suffered damage to the left side of the temporal lobe which of the following is a likely consequence A The person would have memory problems and difficulty understanding spoken language Q Which part of the cerebral cortex is important for processing Visual information A The occipital lobe Q If a person suffered damage to the right side of the parietal lobe which of the following is a likely consequence A The person would lose motor and sensory function on the left side of their body Q Which part of the cerebral cortex is important for emotions speech planning and motor function A The frontal lobe Q Complement does not mark or destroy the body39s own cells because A the body39s own cells have several different membrane proteins that disrupt complement complexes Q Which of the following will a natural killer cell attack A Cancerous cells that do not express MHC 1 molecules on their surface Q Which type of immune cell acts as a cleanup crew that phagocytizes left over debris bacteria and dead cells A macrophage Q Which of the following is not a part of the in ammatory response A formation of membrane attack complexes Q Which of the following is a function of neutrophils A respond quickly to a site of injury to phagocytize bacteria Q Cytotoxic T Cells kill what kind of cells A Cells with antigens on MHC 1 molecules that the T cell39s antigen receptor recognizes Q Antibody and antigen receptor diversity among lymphocytes is a result of A the modular nature and large number of choices for each module of human antibodies and antigen receptors Q Which of the following is true about B cells A they express antibodies on their cell surface Q Which of the following is not a function of antibodies A Display antigens on the surface of antigen presenting cells Q Which of the following is not a function of T helper cells A help Cytotoxic T Cells kill infected cells by binding to the infected cells with their antigen receptors Q Which of the following historical events occurred before the others A Edward Jenner becomes the first physician to challenge vaccinated subjects with live smallpox Q Which of the following is true about antibiotics A Antibiotics can be tolerated by humans but have antimicrobial properties Q Which of the following is not a type of commercially available vaccine A RNA vaccine Q Which of the following is not a reason why booster shots are given A Booster shots are used to test the immune response against a pathogen after the initial Vaccination Q Which of the following is not a feature of reverse transcriptase A It can incorporate DNA into the host cell39s genome Q What is a provirus A A virus that is incorporated into the host cell39s DNA Q What are antigenic shifts A Sudden significant changes to a major antigen of a pathogen that usually occur through reassortment and can cause a pandemic Q Which of the following is not a shared feature of HIV and In uenza viruses A They both incorporate themselves into the host cell39s DNA Q A zoo in the US with a group of Western Lowland Gorillas receives a new gorilla from Cameroon Three weeks later one of the chimpanzees in the neighboring enclosure gets very sick and two weeks later the chimpanzee dies and the rest of the chimpanzees are very sick with a virus that the zoo cannot identify but none of the gorillas are sick not even the new arrival from Cameroon What is the most likely explanation for why all of the chimps suddenly got sick but none of the gorillas did A The new gorilla brought a virus from Cameroon that often infects gorillas without causing disease but is very virulent to chimpanzees The new virus infected both the gorillas and the chimpanzees that were already at the zoo but only the chimpanzees got sick because the virus is not a pathogen to gorillas Q Which of the following statements is true A Sometimes viruses do not cause disease in their primary host species Q Antibiotics are most effective against A Bacteria that have never been exposed to the antibiotic Q What is virulence A A relative measure of the ability to cause disease Q Which of the following is not a way that a bacterium can acquire antibiotic resistance A Acquiring a resistance gene from its host39s cells CHAPTER 16 Q If the chromosome count in a domestic cat is 2n 38 the haploid chromosome count for a domestic cat is A 19 Q The egg cell of a rabbit which is a diploid organism has 22 chromosomes How many chromosomes can be found in a rabbit39s neuron cell A 44 Q If the diploid chromosome count in humans is 46 how many pairs of homologous chromosomes are there A 23 Q A discrete unit of DNA that produces a protein that provides the functionality a cell needs is A gene Q A protein that plays a central role in DNA packaging A histone Q Place the following steps in the cell cycle into the order in which they occur A I III 11 IV Q Otherwise known as one of two copies of a replicated chromosome A chromatid Q All of the following occur during interphase EXCEPT A cell division Q Which of the following statements is TRUE A chromosome replication occurs during s phase Q A picture in which all of the homologous chromosomes of an organism have been stained and organized is called an A karyogram Q The process in which the duplicated DNA of a diploid cell is separated into identical daughter cells is called A mitosis Q Which of the following are primary functions of the centromere A I Q The primary type of microtubule that positions the chromosome in preparation for mitosis is the microtubule A kinetochore Q The protein structure on a chromosome to which microtubules may attach is a A kinetochore Q The organelle that serves as a microtubule organizing center during cell diVision is the A centrosome Q The primary type of microtubule that anchors the spindle poles in preparation for mitosis is A astral Q Which of the following events occur during prophase A II and 111 Q During this step the nuclear membrane breaks down A prophase Q Chromosome decondensation occurs during this step A telophase Q During animal cell diVision actin filaments organize into the following structure A contractile ring Q Segregation of ribosomes occurs during A cytokinesis Q Which of the following structures do NOT participate in the cell division of a sun ower cell A I and III Q Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is NOT true A It is an outdated seldom used form of reproduction Q Which of the following statements about gametes are true A I and III Q Which of the following characteristics or structures are unique to meiosis A reduction of chromosome number Q The following are consequences of meiotic recombination A I II and III Q If the cell of a diploid organism 2n 6 undergoes meiosis how many chromosome are present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis II A 3 Q Crossing over occurs during which phase A prophase I Q Which of the following structures is unique to meiosis A tetrads Q Replication precedes which of the following types of cell diVision A I and II Q Sister chromatids segregate to opposite poles during which of the following types of cell diVision A I and III Q Chromatids can be found in which of the following types of cell diVision A I II and III Q Which of the following events occur during prophase II A I and II and III Q A diploid cell which has one copy of chromosome 16 would be called A monosomic Q Which of the following is an example of aneuploidy A II and III Q Two aberrant cells are found in the dividing skin tissue of an otherwise normal human One cell has only one copy of chromosome 16 while the other has two copies The cause of these aberrant cells is most likely due to A Nondisjunction during meiosis I Q Which of the following statements about meiosis is true A the chromosome number in the resulting cells is halved Q A chromatid is a what A onehalf of a newly replicated eukaryotic chromosome Q What happens in the 39S39 phase in the diagram A the DNA of the cell doubles via synthesis Q Which of the following statements about the mitotic spindle is true A It is composed of microtubules which help separate the chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell Q What is the difference between G0 G1 and G2 in the cell cycle Refer to the diagram below for a reminder of the timing for these events A In G0 the cell is at rest and has left the cell cycle In G1 the cell increases in size and prepares for chromosome replication in S In G2 the cell is also increasing in size in preparation for M and cell division Q Which of the following statements about kinetochores on mitotic chromosomes is true A all of these statements are correct CHAPTER 17 Q A fate map can be used to map out the tissues and organs that eventually will develop from specific germ layers On the fate map ectoderm will become A the nervous system Q After gastrulation has occurred in frogs the inner layer of cells is called what A the endoderm Q Which of the following is the last stage of mammalian development to occur before implantation in the uterus A Blastocyst Q Spermatogenesis A apportions cytoplasm equally among resulting cells Q Which set of events is in the correct chronological order A Gametogenesis fertilization cleavage formation of the three primary germ layers Organogenesis Q The outer layer of cells in the early embryo is called what A The ectoderm Q Which of the following statements is true A Some multicellular organisms can reproduce by both sexual and asexual reproduction Q What is a zygote A A fertilized ovum Q Which axis organizes the body from head to tail A The anteroposterior axis Q Which of the following is a somatic cell A Sertoli cell Which of the following is true about sperm They are haploid and have one copy of each chromosome gt0 How many sperm can be made from each spermatogonium that enters meiosis 4 gt0 What are the three basic components of a functional mature sperm cell a agellum a nucleus and an acrosome gt0 What is the function of the acrosome penetrate the outer layers of the ovum gt0 At most how may ova can be produced by a single primary oocyte 1 gt0 Which of these cells only exists in the fallopian tube Ovum gt0 Q Name the structure within the ovary in which a primary oocyte grows and develops A a follicle Q During oogenesis when does the first meiotic division take place A just before ovulation Q In humans when are primary oocytes made A when the female is still just a fetus Q Which of the following is the last stage of mammalian development to occur before implantation in the uterus A Blastocyst Q Which of the following factors does not make studying human development more difficult A All of these factors make studying human development more difficult Q Which part of the mammalian blastocyst will eventually become the embryo itself and its surrounding membranes A The inner cell mass or ICM Q The embryonic stage consisting of a solid compact mass of sixteen or more cells is called what A a morula Q How is the process of cleavage achieved during human development A Through normal mitosis but without the growth phases between divisions Q Which of the following best describes what can be found in chorionic villi A fetal blood vessels and trophoblasts Q When and how does the blastocyst use proteases A The blastocyst uses proteases to hatch from the zona pellucida when it reaches the uterus and then it uses proteases again to digest the extracellular matrix of the uterine wall which allows the blastocyst to bury itself in the uterine wall Q What do the trophoblasts do after the blastocyst attaches to the uterine wall A They do all of these Q Which of the following is an important function of the zona pellucida A Prevent the blastocyst from attaching to the wall of the fallopian tube Q Which of the following statements is true about the intervillous space A All of these are true statements about the intervillous space Q Which of the following is a true statement A Oxygen diffuses from the maternal blood in the intervillous space through trophoblasts in the chorionic villi and into the fetal bloodstream Q Which of the following is not a true statement about the placenta A All of these are true statements about the placenta Q Which of the following contains mostly maternal cells A The intervillous space Q Which of the following is not true about trophoblasts A Some trophoblasts are incorporated into the growing fetus Q For which of these organisms have scientists created the most complete and detailed fate map A C elegans Q Being able to activate expression of a uorescent protein when a specific gene is expressed has been most useful for fate mapping in which of the following organisms A Mice Q Out of the following organisms which one would you expect to have the least complete and detailed fate map A Humans Q What is a fate map A A diagram that shows the developmental fate of various cells from an early stage embryo Q What is a ligand A A molecule that binds to a receptor Q Which of the following is not a true statement about transcription factors A a b c amp d are all true aTranscription factors can be activated by signalling pathways which themselves are activated by signalling moleculesbA transcription factor binds to a specific DNA sequencecIt usually takes three or more transcription factors working together to initiate transcription of a gene dTranscription factors are key regulators of gene expression Q The transcription of the following genes is regulated by the following combinations of binding sites Gene 1 is regulated by binding sites A B and D Gene 2 is regulated by binding sites A D and F Gene 3 is regulated by binding sites B C and D Gene 4 is regulated by binding sites B D and E Gene 5 is regulated by binding sites A D and E If transciption factors TFA TFB TFD and TF E are all active in the cell which genes will be transcribed A Only Gene 1 Gene 4 and Gene 5 Q What is a protease A A protein that degrades other proteins Q Which of the following statements is true about chordin A It is produced in Spemann39s Organizer and inhibits BMP4 Q Which of the following is not an organizer A the ventral side of the gastrula Q What is 39the node39 A The mammalian equivalent of Spemann s Organizer Q Which of the following is true about Spemann39s experiments with 2cellstage embryos A Some of the cells formed complete halfsized embryos but some of them only formed the ventral side of the embryo Q How were Spemann and Mangold able to tell that the organizer was directing cells of the host embryo to change their fates A The host cells and the graft cells had different pigmentation Q The heart blood vessels blood cells skeleton kidney spleen and muscles are all tissues or organs that arise from what primary germ layer A the mesoderm Q In this drawing of a frog gastrula which letter corresponds to the ectoderm A A Q Which of the four extraembryonic membranes maintains the same form and function in birds and mammals A the amnion Q Which extraembryonic membrane is used by mammals to form part of the placenta A the chorion Q Which of the following is crucial for proper development of a baby39s lungs A amniotic uid CHAPTER 18 Q A dominant allele of a gene A is always detected in the phenotype no matter what the other allele is Q Genotype refers to A the genetic makeup of an organism Q Point mutations always change the amino acid sequence when the occur in the coding region A False Q A recessive allele of a gene A can only be detected in the phenotype when there are two copies of this allele Q heterozygous in genetics refers to A two different alleles being present in a specific organism39s genome for a specific gene Q A dihybrid cross between two organisms that are heterozygous at each gene under scrutiny reveals A A C D Q Mutations in the genome A All of the above answers are possible Q when testing whether an organism is homozygous dominant or heterozygous for a trait one would A cross or breed the organism with a homozygous recessive Q Phenotype refers to A the expressed or detected traits of an organism physical appearance Q A human male has A 22 pairs of autosomes 1 X chromosome 1 Y chromosome Q homozygous in genetics refers to A two copies of the same allele being present in a specific organism39s genome for a specific gene and character Q Genomics refers to A the DNA or array of genes in a cell or organism Q Transcriptomics refers to A the array of mRNAs in a cell Q When doing a dihybrid cross what assumption is made A That the genes under scrutiny are on different chromosomes and assort independently Q Gregor Mendel39s work on inheritance was not widely recognized until around 50 years later when chromosomes were discovered and chromosomal behavior was observed A True Q diploid means A 2 copies of every chromosome Q A fruit y Drosophila has the Genotype CyCy B b What are the possible combinations of alleles this y can produce A Cy B and Cy b Q Match each term with a definition or corresponding statement A Pleiotrophy The property where one gene has multiple phenotypic effects Norm of reaction The phenotypic range of a genotype in uenced by the environment Complete dominance Occurs when phenotypes of the heterozygote and dominant homozygote are identical Incomplete dominance Occurs when the phenotype of F1 hybrids is somewhere between the phenotypes of the parental varieties Codominance Occurs when two dominant alleles affect the phenotype in separate distinguishable ways CHAPTER 19 Q What is commensalism A An association where one species benefits and the other species is not significantly affected Q Which of the following is not a component of the phosphorus cycle A Atmospheric phosphate Q Which of the following is not a way that organisms use chemicals A All of these are ways that organisms use chemicals Q Which of the following is not an abiotic factor A amount of tree cover Q What kinds of conditions are typical of areas with temperate deciduous forests A midlatitudes warm and wet summers cold winters Q Which of the following statements about estuaries are true a They are the gateway to freshwater breeding grounds of some marine animals b They are the breeding grounds for many types of aquatic animals c Estuaries are resistant to pollution because the constant in ow of freshwater ushes the pollutants out into the ocean d They are areas where freshwater streams or rivers merge with the sea A Statements A B and D are true Q What are the three major greenhouse gases in the Earth39s atmosphere A Carbon dioxide methane and water vapor Q Put the following elements in order of abundance in living organisms starting with the most abundant and ending with the least abundant iron copper phosphorus oxygen and hydrogen A oxygen hydrogen phosphorus iron copper Q What do biologists think the most common reason for migration is A Availability of food Q What is the largest pool of carbon on the planet A Sediments in the deep ocean Q What is a population A All of the individual organisms belonging to the same species within a geographical area Q What usually happens in a natural population as it approaches its carrying capacity A The growth rate of the population slows down Q Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to occur if atmospheric carbon dioxide levels continue to rise A Global temperatures will increase glaciers and polar icecaps will melt and many species will go extinct but many will also adapt and survive and some new species will evolve to take advantage of the new niches created by the climate changes Q A key feature of the life histories of species that have a type III survivorship curve is A Production of a large number of small offspring each of which receives little parental Investment Q What is a habitat A An area that is suitable for a particular organism to live in Q If a mosquito feeds on a bird that is infected with West Nile Virus and then feeds on a human being who then contracts the virus what role is the mosquito playing in the infection of the person A The vector Q Which of the following is true about deserts A Although they cannot support a large biomass they can support a surprising variety of plant and animal life Q Which of the following is a result of the rapid eutrophication of bodies of water caused by human activity A massive algae blooms Q What is niche differentiation A When more than one species with almost the same fundamental niche adapt to become specialists in different aspects of the fundamental niche Q What is a wildlife corridor A A route that animals can use to migrate between different patches of natural habitat Q Cheetahs and lions can coexist together on the plains of the Masai Mara National Reserve because A Their different hunting styles allow them to fill different niches Q According to this graph at which elevation is the population density of Species A the highest A 5000 ft Q Which of the following is the best explanation for why we study the ca scale and not as much in specific local ecosystems A Carbon dioxide moves freely throughout the atmosphere and bodies of water allowing the rapid transfer of carbon all across the globe Q Which part of the Sierra Nevada mount A Higher elevations of the Western slopes Q Which of the following biomes is maintained by browsers grazers or fire A Temperate Grassland Q As their name suggests stick insects 39walking sticks most specific term for this method of avoiding detection by predators is what A Camou age Q Burning which fossil fuel will release the greatest amount of pollution into the air A coal Q Which of the following is not a way in which carbon can exit living plant material in the carbon cycle A Dead plant material can be buried under sediment and eventually become fossil fuels Q What is a niche A the role that is played by a particular species Q What is an invasive species A A nonnative species whose introduction into an area has caused economic or ecological harm Q Which of the following is true about all environments A An environment includes factors such as temperature light water air soil and nutrients that surround an organism Q Which of the following statements is true about the Mesozoic period that lasted between 65 and 250 million years ago A Carbon dioxide levels ranged between 700 and 2500 ppm and global temperatures were 1025 degrees Fahrenheit warmer than they are now Q Which of the following is true about amensalism A Amensalism sometimes happens when a bigger more established organism outcompetes a smaller organism for resources Q When a bee gathers nectar from a certain type of ower to make honey and in the process pollinates the ower what kind of relationship exists between the bee and the ower A mutualistic Q Which of the following terms is used to describe how plants spread their seeds A dispersal Q Which of the following is not true about acid rain A It causes eutrophication of ponds and lakes Q Which of these large organisms has a type III survivorship curve A A giant sequoia Q Which of the following is a function of the National Park Service in the United States A All of these are functions of the National Park Service in the United States Q Which biome has the greatest species richness A tropical rainforests Q Which of the following is true about savannas A They are grasslands interspersed with trees that occur in temperate and tropical climates Q On a total net basis which biome is the most productive A Open Ocean CHAPTER 20 Q The 3 elements of sustainable engineering are A society economy environment Q When designing products engineers must now consider A A and B energy efficiency of the product the ease of disassembling and reusing or recycling the various components Q The current high rate of species extinction is largely a result of ecosystem degradation by humans A True Q A meaningful estimate of minimal viable population MVP requires a researcher to determine the effective population size which is based on the breeding size of a population A True Q It is easy to determine species extinction rates under natural conditions A False Q Habitat fragmentation and destruction typically does not lead to loss of biodiversity A False Q The structure of a landscape can strongly in uence biodiversity A True Q ISO certification verifies that a product or service meets the environmental requirements of the International Organization for Standardization A True Q 6r rules of thumb include A ABEF reduce energy consumption during the life cycle of a productDesign in such a way that the product or parts of it can be reused use materials that can be recycled or reused rethink the product and its functions Q Match terms With descriptionsdefinitions A Species Diversity Is the variety of species in an ecosystem or throughout the biosphere Endangered Species Is a species that is in danger of becoming extinct throughout its range Threatened Species Species that are considered likely to become endangered in the foreseeable future Minimal Viable Population MVP Is the minimum population size at Which a species is able to sustain its numbers and survive Population Viability Analysis Predicts a population s chances for survival over a particular time Biodiversity Hot Spot A relatively small area With an exceptional concentration of endemic species and a large number of endangered and threatened species Bioremediation Is the use of living organisms to detoxify ecosystems Biological Augmentation Uses organisms to add essential materials to a degraded ecosystem
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