Exam 3 Practice test
Exam 3 Practice test BIOL 3010
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This 26 page Study Guide was uploaded by Sreya Notetaker on Sunday November 8, 2015. The Study Guide belongs to BIOL 3010 at University of Toledo taught by John Gray in Summer 2015. Since its upload, it has received 250 views. For similar materials see Molecular Genetics in Biology at University of Toledo.
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Date Created: 11/08/15
Sample Questions for Chapter 13 Translation Q1: In eukaryotic ribosomes, the initiation complex forms in association with the _________ ribosomal subunit. a. 30S b. 40S c. 50S d. 60S e. 70S Q2: Which of the following are among the major components of prokaryotic ribosomes? a. 12S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and proteins b. 18S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and proteins c. 16S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 28S rRNA d. lipids and carbohydrates e. 16S rRNA, 5S rRNA, and 23S rRNA Q3: The ribonucleic acid components known to exist in eukaryotic ribosomes are the following: 5.8S, 18S, 28S, 5S. a. True b. False Q4: Which of the following are among the major components of eukaryotic ribosomes? a. 12S rRNA, 5S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and proteins b. 18S rRNA, 5S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 28S rRNA c. 16S rRNA, 5S rRNA, and 23S rRNA d. lipids and carbohydrates e. 18S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and proteins Q5: The process of tRNA "charging" does NOT involve __________. a. tRNA b. aminoacyl synthetase c. an amino acid d. ATP e. microRNA Q6: The part of a tRNA that pairs with the mRNA is referred to as the A: the acceptor arm B: the TC arm C: the D arm D: the anticodon arm Q7: The enzymes needed to charge a tRNA are called A: amino acid transferases B: aminoacyl tRNA synthetases C: RNA transferases D: tRNA nucleases Q8: In order, the stages of protein synthesis are a. initiation, elongation, termination b. elongation, initiation, charging, termination, c. charging, initiation, elongation, termination, d. elongation, initiation, termination Q9: The charged initiator tRNA binds initially to the _______ in protein synthesis. a. E site b. 3' end of mRNA c. A site d. UGA base sequence of mRNA e. P site Q10: The formation of the peptide bond is catalyzed by _______ a. Peptidyl transferase b. RNA polymerase c. EFTu d. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase e. aspartase Q11: During the elongation phase of translation, the charged tRNAs enter the ribosome at the _______ of the ribosome. A: E site B: 3' end of mRNA C: A site D: UGA base sequence of mRNA E: P site Q12: The letter 5' end of the DNA molecule is located nearest which letter? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Q13: Which amino (N) terminus of a growing polypeptide chain is nearest which letter ? 2. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E See picture on next page Q14: What is the "S" value for the large rRNA which is closest to the letter D? a. 16S b. 18S c. 23S d. 28S Q15: Clusters of ribosomes held together by a mRNA are called a. pseudoribosomes b. polyribosomes c. spliceosomes d. proteasomes e. apoptosomes Q16: Translation of mRNA in a ribosome proceeds _____ a. from the middle to the 3’ end and then from the middle to the 5’ end b. from the middle simultaneously toward the 3’ and 5’ ends c. from either the 5’ or 3’ end, depending on the enzymes present d. from the 5’ end to the 3’ end e. from the 3’ end to the 5’ end Q17: The onegene, oneenzyme hypothesis emerged from work on which two organisms? a. E. coli and yeast b. Drosophila and humans c. Neurospora and Drosophila d. E. coli and humans e. all the above Q18: When a metabolic block occurs in a biochemical pathway, it is common for the substance immediately prior to that block to accumulate in amount. a. True b. False Q19: Below is a table which presents the effect of different media on the growth response of tryptophan mutations in Salmonella typhimurium (+ = growth, = no growth). Abbreviations: IGP =Indole 3glycerol phosphate, AA = Anthranilic acid, IN = Indole, TRY = tryptophan Medium Supplemented with Strain No Supplement IGP AA IN TRY trp8 + + + + trp2 + + + trp3 + + trp1 + Construct the biochemical pathway for the compounds IGP, AA, IN, and TRY based on these data. a. X > AA > IGP>IN >Try Metabolite trp1 trp2 trp3 trEnzyme b. X > Try > IN > IGP > AAMetabolite trp1 trp2 trp3 trEnzyme c. X > IN > Try > AA > IGPMetabolite trp8 trp 3 trp 2 trEnzyme d. X > AA > IGP> IN > Try Metabolite trp 8 trp 2 trp 3 tEnzyme Q20: Below is a table which presents the effect of different media on the growth response of arginine mutations in Neuorospora (No = growth, Yes = no growth) Medium Supplemented with Strain No Supplement Arginine Ornithine Citrulline arg1 No Yes No No arg23 No Yes No Yes arg47 No Yes Yes Yes Construct the biochemical pathway for the compounds Citrulline, Ornithine, and Arginine based on these data. A: Precursors> Ornithine> Citrulline> Arginine arg1 arg47 arg23 B: Precursors> Citrulline> Ornithine> Arginine arg23 arg1 arg47 C: Precursors> Citrulline> Ornithine> Arginine arg1 arg23 arg47 D: Precursors> Ornithine> Citrulline> Arginine arg47 arg23 arg1 Q21: The problem below relates to the synthesis of several intermediates in the citric acid cycle which is essential in the production of ATP through aerobic respiration. A set of experimental results relating the growth (+) of Neurospora on several media is given in the table. Based on the information provided, present the biochemical pathway for the substances oxaloacetate, fumarate, malate, and succinate, and the locations of the metabolic blocks produced by the various strains. MM = minimal medium Strain Medium MM MM MM MM MM +oxaloacetate +fumarate +malate +succinate l62 + + l36 + l41 + + + a. succinate > + >oxaloacetate > + > malate> + >fumarate Metabolite l62 l36 l41 Enzyme b. oxaloacetate > + >malate > + > fumarate> + >succinate Metabolite l41 l62 l36 Enzyme c. succinate > + >fumarate > + > malate> + >oxaloacetate Metabolite l41 l62 l36 Enzyme d. succinate > + >fumarate > + > malate> + >oxaloacetate Metabolite l36 l41 l62 Enzyme Q22: In Neurospora, several mutations cause the inability to synthesize the amino acid Arginine. These are summarized in figure 1412 which is summarized here. Precursors Ornithine Citrulline Arginine arg47 arg23 arg1 On which medium will arg23 mutants be able to grow? a. minimal b. minimal + precursors c. minimal + ornithine d. minimal + citrulline f. none of the above Q23: In Salmonella, several mutations cause the inability to synthesize the amino acid Tryptophan. These are summarized here. Precursors AA IGP IN Try trp8 trp2 trp3 trp1 On which medium will trp3 mutants be able to grow? A: minimal B: minimal + “precursors” C: minimal + AA D: minimal + IGP E: minimal + IN Q24: Connecting a single nucleotide change with a single amino acid change as the cause underlying sickle cell anemia allowed the concept of _____________ to become firmly established. a. Acquired immunodeficiency b. Inherited molecular disease c. Acquired inheritable disorders d. Inherited biochemistry e. none of the above Q25: People with adult sickle cell anemia do not have symptoms during embryonic and fetal development because during early stages of development, a completely different set of polypeptides is found in hemoglobin. A: True B: False Q26: The secondary structure of a protein includes the following elements: a. gamma and delta b. alpha and gamma c. ahelix and bpleated sheet d. hydrophobic clusters e. disulfide bridges Q27: What can we gain from an understanding of a protein's function that cannot be deduced by the DNA sequence of the gene (that encodes the protein) alone? a. the protein's function determines the DNA sequence b. the possible amino acids coded for c. a point mutation d. an understanding of biochemical pathways involving the protein Q28: In proteins, structure determines...? a. initiation b. elongation c. dominance d. function e. termination Q29: The threedimensional conformation of an entire polypeptide chain in space is referred to as ….. a. amino acid sequence b. primary structure c. secondary structure d. tertiary structure e. quaternary structure Q30: A common type of protein secondary structure is a. betapleated sheet b. alpha helix c. double helix d. both A and B e. all of the above (a b and c) Q31: Proteins that have more than one polypeptide chain can exhibit A: primary structure B: secondary structure C: tertiary structure D: quaternary structure Q32: Translational regulation occurs in _______ a. the cytoplasm b. the mitochondria c. the nucleus d. the geology apparatus e. none of the above Q33: PostTranslational modification processes of proteins include _______ a. amino acid modification b. glycosylation c. polypeptide trimming d. complexing with metals e. all of the above Q34: The process by which the functional regions of genes in higher organisms are proposed to become joined as the result of recombination of ancestral genes during evolution is named... a. intron splicing b. exon shuffling c. transposition d. posttranscriptional modification Q35: (Genetics, Technology and Society article at end of Chapter). Mad Cow disease is an example of a disease caused by a Prion. Prions are composed of A: DNA and RNA B: DNA and Protein C: RNA and Protein D: RNA only E: Protein only Answer Key to Exam Questions 1. B 11. C 21. C 31. D 2. E 12. A 22. D 32. A 3. A 13. E 23. E 33. E 4. B 14. C 24. B 34. B 5. E 15. B 25. A 35. E 6. D 16. D 26. C 36 7. B 17. C 27. D 37 8. A 18. A 28. D 38 9. E 19. D 29. D 39 10. A 20. D 30. D Sample Questions for Chapter 15 Gene Regulation 1: What term would be applied to a regulatory condition which occurs when a protein greatly reduces transcription when associated with a particular section of DNA? a. negative control b. positive control c. inhibition d. activation e. stimulation 2: If a regulator protein directly stimulates RNA production (e.g. by binding to DNA), that gene is said to be under? A: negative control B: positive control C: inhibition D: activation E: stimulation 3: Under a system of negative control, genetic expression occurs unless such expression is shut off by some form of regulator. a. True b. False 4: Genes that are always transcribed are called a. transposons b. operator genes c. operons d. repressor genes e. constitutive genes 5: What is the term which refers to a contiguous genetic complex which is under coordinate control? A: auxotroph B: operon C: prototroph D: attenuator E: operator 6: In the lactose operon, the product of structural gene lacZ, is capable of a. nonautonomous replication. b. forming lactose from two glucose molecules. c. replacing hexokinase in the early steps of glycolysis. d. splitting the betalinkage of lactose. e. forming ATP from pyruvate. 7: A lacO mutation is considered to be ? a. cisacting b. transacting 8: A gene promoter is located upstream of a gene on the same molecule of DNA as the gene and regulates expression of the gene. The promoter region is correctly said to be A: cisacting B: transacting 9: Mutations of the lac operon in which lactose degrading enzymes are produced in the cell regardless of whether lactose is present or not are referred to as …….. A: allosteric mutants B: merozygotic mutants C: constitutive mutants D: attenuation mutants 10: The LacI gene product binds to A: the operator B: the repressor C: betagalactosidase D: cAMP E: none of the above You are provided with the genotypes associated with the lac operon of an E. coli strain. Decide whether betagalactosidase would be expected to be produced at induced levels or not – first in the absence of lactose and second in the presence of lactose I = wild type repressor I = mutant repressor (unable to bind to the operator) I = mutant repressor (insensitive to lactose) + O = wild type operator O = constitutive operator (insensitive to repressor) + + + + + 11: I O Z /F' I O Z a. Yes and Yes b. No and No c. Yes and No d. No and Yes 12: I O Z /F 'I O Z a. Yes and Yes b. No and No c. Yes and No d. No and Yes 13: I O Z /F 'I O Z a. Yes and Yes b. No and No c. Yes and No d. No and Yes + + + + 14: I O Z /F' I O Z a. Yes and Yes b. No and No c. Yes and No d. No and Yes 15: I O Z /F' I O Z a. No and No b. Yes and Yes c. No and Yes d. Yes and No + + + + + + 16: I O Z /F' I O Z a. No and No b. Yes and Yes c. No and Yes d. Yes and No 17: I O Z /F' I O Z a. No and No b. Yes and Yes c. No and Yes d. Yes and No 18: I O Z /F' I O Z a. No and No b. Yes and Yes c. No and Yes d. Yes and No 19: The LacI gene product binds to a. the repressor b. the operator c. betagalactosidase d. cAMP e. none of the above 20: In E. coli cells the lac operon is under ________ control a: positive b: negative c: inducible d: all of the above 21: The lac operon is under positive control via the cataboliteactivating protein. Maximum expression of the lac operon occurs when…….. (assume lactose is absent in this question) A: cAMP levels are low B: cAMP levels are high C: glucose levels are high D: cAMP levels are low and glucose levels are high 22: It was discovered that if tryptophan is present in relatively high quantities in the growth medium, the enzymes necessary for its synthesis are repressed. How does this occur? a. corepression b. attenuation c. negative regulation d. all of the above 23: The tryptophan (trp) operon in E. coli which encodes enzymes for the biosynthesis of tryptophan is a repressible gene system. Maximum expression of the trp operon occurs when A: tryptophan levels are low B: tryptophan levels are high C: The trp repressor is bound to the trp operon promoter 24: Regarding regulation of the tryptophan operon, what might one appropriately call the amino acid tryptophan? A: coactivator B: cofactor C: inducer D: corepressor E: cooperator 25: In the absence of tryptophan: a. The repressor is active and does not bind to the promoter. Transcription does not occur b. The repressor is inactive and does not bind to the promoter. Transcription is initiated. c. The repressor binds to the corepressor. Transcription is initiated. d. The trp operon is repressed and transcription occurs. 26: When referring to attenuation in regulation of the tryptophan operon it would be safe to say that when there are high levels of tryptophan available to the organism a. the tryptophan operon is being transcribed at relatively high levels. b. translational termination is likely. c. transcriptional termination is likely. d. tryptophan is inactivating the repressor protein. e. ribosomes are stalling during translation of the attenuator region. 27: During transcription of the trp operon, pairing of regions 2 and 3 in the leader peptide mRNA creates a.......? a. Pause signal b. Termination signal c. Antitermination signal d. Induction signal 28: During transcription of the trp operon, pairing of regions 3 and 4 in the leader peptide mRNA creates a.......? A: Pause signal B: Termination signal C: Antitermination signal D: Induction signal 29: Genetic regulation in eukaryotes can take place at a variety of levels from transcriptional to posttranslational. At what level is genetic regulation considered most likely in prokaryotes? a. transcriptional b. capping c. polyadenylation of the 3' end of the mRNAs d. intron processing e. exon processing 30: In eukaryotes, gene expression is greatly influenced by chromosome organization. Chromosome organization can be regulated through…. A: Chromatin remodeling B: Histone modification C: DNA methylation D: All of the above 31: Alteration of nucleosome structure during chromatin remodeling can occur by _____ a. Alteration of DNAprotein contacts b. Alteration of the DNA path c. Remodeling of the nucleosome core particle d. all of the above 32: Mutation of the TATA and CAAT boxes in eukaryotic promoters results in a. Increased gene expression b. Reduced gene expression c. Unchanged gene expression d. constitutive gene expression e. none of the above 33: Enhancers are found ________ a. within coding sequences b. downstream from the start site c. upstream from the start site d. in any of the above regions e. in none of the above regions, enhancers are environmental agents 34: The assembly of activator proteins which are bound to the DNA of regulatory elements, with other proteins in a complex at the beginning of transcription is known as the A: Spliceosome B: Ribosome C: Enhanceosome D: Proteasome 35: The term helixturnhelix would most likely be applied to which of the following? a. translation b. RNA processing c. DNA binding protein d. gyrase action e. helicase activation 36: Which of the following terms is not a motif found within transcription factor proteins? a. zinc finger b. leucine zipper c. helixturnhelix d. homeodomain e. GC box 37: RNA silencing does NOT involve a. Dicer b. siRNA c. RISC d. miRNA e. tRNA Answer Key to Exam Questions 1. A 11. D 21. B 31. D 41 2. B 12. A 22. D 32. B 42 3. A 13. A 23. A 33. D 43 4. E 14. A 24. D 34. C 44 5. B 15. A 25. B 35. C 45 6. D 16. C 26. C 36 E 46 7. A 17. B 27. C 37 E 47 8. A 18. A 28. B 38 48 9. C 19. B 29. A 39 49 10. A 20. D 30. D 40 50 Chapter 17 Recombinant DNA Technology Sample Multiple Choice Questions 1: In nature, the function of restriction enzymes is to: a. cut plasmids b. destroy phage DNA c. destroy foreign DNA in animal cells d. splice DNA in a cell 2: Which of the following is not an essential feature or functions of a plasmid cloning vector? a. Multiple cloning site (polylinker) b. Origin of replication (oriR) c: Selectable marker d. Origin of transfer (oriT) 3: A "YAC" is a useful a. host. b. probe. c. library. d. vector. e. screen. 4: Restriction endonucleases are especially useful if they generate "sticky" ends. What makes an end sticky? a: singlestranded complementary tails b: blunt ends c: polyA sequences d: 5' cap e: interference 5: Restriction enzymes that cut between different nucleotide pairs within a palindrome on complementary DNA strands produce _________ ended DNA fragments a. blunt b. sticky c. terminal d. restricted 6: Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific palindromic segments of DNA referred to as … A: ciselements B: recognition sites C: promoters D: operators 7: An E. coli plasmid used as a cloning vector must have. a: a bacterial origin of replication b: unique restriction sites c: a selectable marker (e.g. antibiotic resistance) d: both A and C e: all of the above (a, b, and c) 8: Which of the following is not an essential feature or functions of a bacterial plasmid cloning vector? A: Screenable marker (e.g lacZ) B: Multiple cloning site (polylinker) C: Origin of replication (oriR) D: Selectable marker (e.g. Ampicillin resistance gene) 9: You want to clone a fragment of DNA into a plasmid vector such as pUC18. The plasmid is 4.36 kb long and has a single restriction site for the restriction enzyme BamHI. If you digest pUC18 with BamHI, how many linear fragments will result? a. 1 b. 2 c. none the plasmid will remain circular 10: You want to clone a fragment of DNA into a plasmid vector such as pUC18. The plasmid is 5 kb long and has a two restriction site for the restriction enzyme BamHI. If you digest pUC18 with BamHI, how many linear fragments will result? A: none the plasmid will remain circular B: 1 C: 2 D: 3 11: Yeast Artificial chromosomes must have ____________ to permit them to replicate in a eukaryotic host cell A: bacterial origin of replication (oriR) B: selectable marker C: a centromere D: a polylinker 12: ________ seals a nick in the DNA by creating a sugar phosphate bond between the adjacent disjointed nucleotides. a. DNAse b. Restriction endonuclease c. EcoRI d. DNA ligase e. Topoisomerase 13: Recombinant DNA research is dependent on a. hosts. b. cloning. c. restriction endonucleases. d. vectors. e. all of the above 14: The polymerase chain reaction is a technique that __________. a. selectively replicates RNA b. probes and selectively replicates DNA c. selectively replicates DNA d. probes DNA e. probes RNA 15: For PCR, DNA can be isolated from the following source: ___. a. frozen tissue b. spermatic cells c. fossil specimens d. preserved tissue e. all of the above 16: Which of the following is not key to performing the Polymerase Chain Reaction® for the amplification of a piece of DNA. a. A single stranded denatured DNA “template” b. 2 specific DNA primers c. A mixture of four deoxynucleotides and one dideoxynucleotide d. A DNA polymerase e. Repeating the temperature cycles many times 17: At the end of each cycle the temperature of the PCR reaction is raised to 72°C in order to _____ a. polymerize the DNA b. renature the double DNA strands c. denature the double DNA strands d. attach the primer e. elongate the primer 18: In each cycle of PCR what is the order of the steps (i.e. first, second and third) A: Primer annealing, denaturation, extension B: Denaturation, primer annealing, extension C: Extension, denaturation, primer annealing D: Primer annealing, extension, denaturation. 19: Which is the most specific recombinant DNA library? a. chromosomal b. genomic c. cDNA d. cRNA e. protein 20: cDNA can be synthesized from mRNA by using the following enzyme a. S1 nuclease b. RNA polymerase c. DNA polymerase d. Reverse transcriptase 21: Southern blots probe a. DNA. b. RNA. c. proteins. d. DNA and RNA. e. RNA and proteins. 22: Nucleic acid blotting is widely used in recombinant DNA technology. In a Southern blot one generally a: hybridizes filterbound DNA with a DNA probe. b: hybridizes filterbound RNA with a DNA probe. c: examines amino acid substitutions with radioactive probes. d: cleaves RNA with restriction endonucleases. e: cleaves DNA with restriction endonucleases. 23: Which of the following DNA restriction fragments would travel the farthest distance through an agarose gel ? (if run on the same gel at the same time) a. 0.5kb b. 1kb c. 2kb d. 3kb e. 10kb 24: Southern Blotting: In the diagram A below, the restriction map of part of a chromosome is shown for the three enzymes AatI, NcoI and EcoRI. In part B is a picture of the stained electrophoresis gel with the fragments that are seen if the DNA is cut with the enzymes indicated above each well. The fragments shown in black are those that light up when this gel is subjected to a southern blot and hybridized with a fragment of the pep gene as a DNA probe. On which restriction fragment in diagram A is the pep gene located ? A, B, C, D or E 25: Southern Blotting: In the diagram A below, the restriction map of the chromosome of a linear virus is shown for the three enzymes AatI, NcoI and EcoRI. In part B is a picture of the stained electrophoresis gel with the fragments that are seen if the DNA is cut with the enzymes indicated above each well. The fragments shown in black are those that light up when this gel is subjected to a southern blot and hybridized with a fragment of the rtr gene as a DNA probe. On which restriction fragment in diagram A is the rtr gene located ? A, B, C, D or E 26: A “probe” in molecular biology is __________. a. an instrument used to manipulate cells in culture b. a type of vector system c. a DNA or an RNA molecule used in hybridization reactions d. Probes are not used in molecular biology. 27: The technique that uses antibodies to detect proteins on a blotted gel is called a.... a. Southern Blot b. Northern Blot c. Western Blot d. Eastern Blot 28: Western blots detect specific ____________ in a sample A: DNA. B: RNA. C: proteins. D: DNA and RNA. E: RNA and proteins. 29: Frederick Sanger has just sequenced a short piece of dd dd dd dd DNA and produced the gel shown below. Can you read the DNA sequence for him ? (in the 5’ to 3’ direction) a. TACTACTTCCGAGCT b. ATGATGAAGGCTCGA c. AGCTCGGAAGTAGTA d. TCGAGCCTTCATCAT 30: Frederick Sanger has just sequenced a short piece of DNA and produced the gel shown to the right. Can you read the DNA sequence for him? (in the 5’ to 3’ direction) A: AGGTCGCAAGATGCA B: AAAATTTCCCGGGGG C: TCCAGCGTTCTACGA D: TCGTAGAACGCTGGA 31: In the manual Sanger sequencing (chain termination), ___________ sequencing reaction(s) is(are) performed a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 32: Automated sequencing differs from manual sequencing in that automated sequencing: a. Uses dideoxynucleotides to stop the DNA synthesis b. Uses primers to amplify the DNA c. Uses acrylamide gel electrophoresis d. Uses dideoxynucleotides labeled with fluorescent dyes 33: (Genetics, Technology and Society article at end of Chapter). The methodology to clone animals such as sheep outlined in this article is essentially the same as the technology to clone DNA described earlier in the chapter. A: True B: False Answer Key to Exam Questions 1. B 11. C 21. A 31. D 2. D 12. D or E 22. A 32. D 3. D 13. E 23. A 33. B 4. A 14. C 24. B 34. 5. B 15. E 25. C 35. 6. B 16. C 26. C 36 7. E 17. E 27. C 37 8. A 18. B 28. C 38 9. A 19. C 29. B 39 10. C 20. D 30. D
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