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Study Guide for Exam 3 in BIOL 1441

by: Kristin O'Flaherty

Study Guide for Exam 3 in BIOL 1441 BIOL 1441 - 002

Marketplace > University of Texas at Arlington > Biology > BIOL 1441 - 002 > Study Guide for Exam 3 in BIOL 1441
Kristin O'Flaherty
GPA 3.3

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About this Document

Study guide for ch 12-16 on exam 3 in biology 1441
Shawn Christensen
Study Guide
uta; university of texas at arlington; biology; bio1441; christensen; exam 3
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This 10 page Study Guide was uploaded by Kristin O'Flaherty on Thursday November 12, 2015. The Study Guide belongs to BIOL 1441 - 002 at University of Texas at Arlington taught by Shawn Christensen in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 328 views. For similar materials see CELL AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY in Biology at University of Texas at Arlington.


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Date Created: 11/12/15
Exam 3 Study Guide 1. Four genes (A, B, C and D) are on the same chromosome. The recombination frequencies are as follows: A-B: 19%; B-C: 14%; A-C: 5%; B-D: 2%; A-D: 21%; C-D: 16%. Based on this information, which sequence of genes is correct? a. ACBD b. ACDB c. ABCD d. ADBC e. ABDC 2. Which of the following occurs in meiosis, but NOT in mitosis? a. Homologous chromosomes separate b. Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the spindle c. The cells formed have the same combination of genes as found in the initial cell d. A spindle apparatus forms e. The nuclear envelope disappears 3. A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with ______. a. 16 chromosomes b. 32 pairs of chromosomes c. None of the listed numbers of chromosomes d. 64 chromosomes e. 64 pairs of chromosomes 4. The information in DNA is contained in ______. a. The types of sugars used in making the DNA molecule b. The variation in the structure of nucleotides that make up the DNA molecule c. All of the listed responses are correct d. The sequence of amino acids that makes up the DNA molecule e. The sequence of nucleotides along the length of the two strands of the DNA molecule 5. A cell biologist carefully measured the quantity of DNA in grasshopper cells growing in cell culture. Cells examined during the G2 phase of the cell cycle contained 200 units of DNA. What would be the amount of DNA at G1 of the cell cycle in one of the grasshopper daughter cells? a. 50 units b. Between 50 and 100 units c. 400 units d. 100 units e. 200 units 6. During which stage of the cell cycle do sister chromatids separate? a. Prophase b. G1 phase c. Anaphase d. Metaphase e. G2 phase 7. Cells that have an abnormal number of some particular chromosome are said to be ___. a. Trisomy b. Nanoploid c. Polyploid d. Diploid e. Aneuploid 8. An organism has a haploid chromosome number n=4. How many tetrads will form during meiosis? a. 2 b. 4 c. 16 d. 3 e. 8 9. If each parent can produce 100 genetically distinct gametes, how many genetically distinct offspring can two parents produce? a. 100 b. 200 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 e. 1,000,000 10. What is the probability that a human male will inherit an X-linked recessive allele from his father? a. 100% b. 25% c. 50% d. 0% e. 75% 11. Which of the following is the only known viable human monosomy? a. XY b. XYY c. XXY d. X0 e. XXX 12. At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes lined up in one plane in preparation for their separation to opposite poles of the cell? a. Interphase b. Metaphase c. Prophase d. Anaphase e. Telophase 13. A woman is a carrier for red-green color blindness, a sex-linked trait. Her husband is normal (not color blind) for this trait. What are the chances that their newborn daughter will be red-green color-blind? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100% 14. In prokaryotes, the rate of elongation during DNA replication is ____ the rate in eukaryotes. a. The rates aren’t comparable because elongation only occurs in prokaryotes b. Much faster than c. Sometimes faster, sometimes slower than d. About the same as e. Much slower than 15. Which of the following properties were present in the characters that Mendel examined in his breeding experiments? a. The characters each were controlled by a single gene b. The traits varied in an either-or fashion c. The were controlled by loci that were (or behaved as if they were) on different chromosomes d. It was possible to isolate true breeding varieties for each trait e. All of the listed responses are correct 16. Chargaff found that for DNA ____. a. The ratio of A to T is close to 1:1 and the ratio of G to C is close to 1:1 b. A+T=C+G c. The ratio of A to G is close to 1:1 and the ratio of T to C is close to 1:1 d. A+T=50% of the total bases e. The ratio of A to C is close to 1:1 and the ratio of G to T is close to 1:1 17. In DNA, the two purines are ____, and the two pyrimidines are ____. a. Adenine and cytosine… guanine and thymine b. Adenine and guanine… cytosine and thymine c. Cytosine and guanine… adenine and thymine d. Adenine and thymine… cytosine and guanine e. Cytosine and thymine… adenine and guanine 18. Which of the following contributes to genetic variation in sexually reproducing species? a. Random fertilization, DNA synthesis, independent assortment b. Random fertilization, independent assortment, crossing over c. Independent assortment, spindle formation, random fertilization d. Crossing over, internal fertilization, independent assortment e. Internal fertilization, spindle formation, crossing over 19. If a variety is true-breeding for a dominant trait, then ____. a. The variety is unable to mutate b. If the plant were allowed to self-pollinate, the dominant and recessive traits would consistently appear in a 3:1 ratio among the progeny c. The plant is heterozygous for the trait d. If the plant were crossed with a heterozygote, one-half of the progeny would show the dominant trait, and one-half would show the recessive trait e. If the plant were allowed to self-pollinate, all of the progeny would have the dominant trait 20. A person’s remains are found and officials are trying to identify them. A couple believes that the remains belong to their missing daughter. Because the remains have decayed considerably, mitochondrial DNA is being used to determine the person’s identity. In order to determine if the remains belong to someone in this couple’s family, whose mitochondrial DNA should be used for comparison? a. The husband’s mother b. Either the husband’s or the wife’s c. The husband’s d. One of the couple’s other children e. Anyone from the same family will have nearly identical mitochondrial DNA 21. One event occurring during prophase is _____. a. The beginning of the formation of a spindle apparatus b. The division of the centromere c. The synthesis of a nuclear envelope d. The alignment of chromosomes in a single plane e. Cytokinesis 22. Which of the following statements reflects an advantage that sexual reproduction likely provides over asexual reproduction? a. Although energetically more costly than asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction leads to different combinations of alleles that could provide adaptability in a changing environment b. In terms of energetic costs, sexual reproduction is a cheaper strategy that asexual reproduction for generating genetic variation in a population c. Sexual reproduction maintains the same combination of alleles and doesn’t run the risk of losing successful combinations of alleles as is observed to occur in asexual reproducing organisms d. Although sexual and asexual reproduction both offer opportunities for increasing genetic variation, sexual reproduction is comparatively lower in its energetic costs to the organism e. Although both reproductive strategies perpetuate the same combination of alleles within individuals in a population, sexual reproduction is energetically less costly than asexual reproduction 23. A linkage map____. a. Orders genes on a chromosome based on recombination frequencies b. Can be constructed only for sex chromosomes c. Orders genes on a chromosome based on their location with respect to a stained band d. Predicts the probability that you will have a male or female child e. Shows the ordering and exact spacing of genes on a chromosome 24. DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the ____ of the leading strands, and to the ____ of the lagging stands (Okazaki fragments). a. Sugar group… phosphate group b. 5’ end…5’ end c. 3’ end…3’ end d. 3’ end…5’ end e. 5’ end… 3’ end 25. Which choice below describes the expression of Tay-Sachs disease in humans at the biochemical level? a. Codominant b. Polygenic c. Recessive d. Dominant e. Incompletely dominant 26. In animal cell mitosis, the cleavage furrow forms during which stage of the cell cycle? a. Metaphase b. The G1 phase c. Anaphase d. Prophase e. Cytokinesis 27. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes sometimes “stick together” and don’t separate properly. This phenomenon is known as ____. a. Cellular sterility b. Meiotic failure c. Sticky chiasmata d. Gametic infertility e. Nondisjunction 28. The person credited with first recognizing (in the 1860’s) that living cells cannot arise spontaneously, but arise only from previously existing cells, is ______. a. Rudolf Virchow b. Louis Pasteur c. Watson d. Robert Hooke e. Anton van Leeuwenhoek 29. Telomerase _____. a. Is an enzyme that lengthens telomeres b. Splits telomeres c. Slows the rate of cancer cell growth d. Speeds cell aging e. Prevents the loss of centromeric DNA 30. How many maternal chromosomes are present in a somatic human cell not engaged in cell division? a. 23 b. 46 c. 92 d. 184 e. None of the above 31. Which of the following considerations was/were important in the choice of viruses and bacteria for early experiments on DNA? a. Their chromosomes have a simpler structure b. They can interact with each other c. They typically have relatively small genomes d. They have short generation times e. All of the above 32. Somatic cells in humans contain ____ sets of chromosomes and are therefore termed ___. a. One…haploid b. Two…haploid c. Two…diploid d. One…diploid e. Three…triploid 33. The unwinding of DNA at the replication fork causes twisting and strain in the DNA ahead of the fork, which is relieved by an enzyme called____. a. Primase b. Helicase c. Topoisomerase d. Ligase e. Relievase 34. Sister chromatids ______. a. Are identical copies of each other formed through DNA synthesis b. Are pairs of chromatids, one of which comes from the father and the other from the mother c. Have the same gene loci but may have different alleles of some genes d. Are involved in meiosis only e. Are involved in mitosis only 35. The experiments of Meselson and Stahl showed that DNA ____. a. Is composed of nucleotides b. Contains complementary base pairing c. Replicates in a semiconservative fashion d. Codes for the amino acid sequences of proteins e. Is the genetic material 36. Fertilization produces _____. a. A haploid zygote b. A haploid zygote in some life cycles and a diploid zygote in others c. A diploid zygote d. A multicellular haploid organism in a life cycle with an alternation of generations e. A diploid zygote, except during the gametophyte stage of alternation of generations 37. Mendel’s theory of particulate inheritance _____. a. Cannot explain epistasis b. Applies only to alleles that are strictly dominant or recessive c. Can explain incomplete dominance but fails to explain multiple alleles d. Can explain inheritance patterns for virtually every sexually reproducing organism but doesn’t explain multifactorial characters e. Explains how genotype is expressed as phenotype 38. Which of the following results of Thomas Hunt Morgan’s experiments with white-eyed mutant flies was unexpected in light of Mendelian genetics? a. In the paternal cross, a white-eyed male was crossed with a red-eyed female. The F1 progeny all had red eyes b. The mutant allele (white eye) was recessive c. Among the F2 progeny, only males had white eyes. All of the females had red eyes d. The F1 flies were crosses with each other and the F2 progeny included red-eyed and white-eyed flies in a 3:1 ratio e. All of the above 39. Humans have 46 chromosomes. This number of chromosomes will be found in ____. a. All cells in anaphase of mitosis b. Liver cells c. All the egg and sperm cells d. All gamete producing cells after meiosis I e. All the cells of the body 40. Down syndrome is characterized by cells having three copies of chromosome 21. As a cell in an individual with Down syndrome prepares to enter mitosis, how many chromatids would be present? a. 23 b. 46 c. 92 d. 94 e. 98 41. Until Hershey and Chase showed that DNA was the genetic molecule of the phages they studied, what class of molecules was considered the best candidate for carrying genetic information and why? a. Amino acids because of all the ways they can join together b. Carbohydrates because they are found in abundance in all organisms c. Sterols because of the different variations on their ring structure d. Proteins because they were thought to be the only molecule with both the variety and the specificity of function to account for the array of heritable traits observed e. Nucleoside triphosphates because of the ability to add and remove phosphate groups 42. Which of the following occurs during anaphase II? a. Sister chromatids separate and migrate toward opposite poles b. Nuclei reform c. Homologs separate and migrate toward opposite poles d. Chromosomes line up on one plate e. The synaptonemal complex disappears 43. The region of a chromosome in which the two double strands of replicated DNA are held together is called _____. a. An aster b. A chromatid c. Chromatin d. A centromere e. A centriole 44. The function of a mitotic cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that _____. a. Have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell but not the same genetic content b. Are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred) c. Have a random assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes d. Have the same number of chromatids as the parent cell had e. None of the above 45. If a heterozygous plant is allowed to self-pollinate, what proportion of the offspring will also be heterozygous? a. 1 /4 b. 1/3 c. 1 /2 d. 2/3 e. All of them 46. Spores and gametes are different in that ____. a. Gametes are always haploid whereas spores are diploid b. Gametes are derived directly from sporophytes to form gametes c. Gametes can fuse to form a zygote, but spores can develop into independent organisms without first forming a zygote d. Gametes never resemble spores morphologically e. Only the formation of gametes contributes to genetic variation 47. How many pairs of autosomes do humans have? a. 23 b. 22 c. 2 d. 1 e. It depends on the sex of the individual 48. Chromatids are ______. a. Identical copies of each other if they are part of the same duplicated chromosome b. Composed of RNA c. The bacterial equivalent of eukaryotic chromosomes d. Held together by the centrioles e. Found only in aberrant chromosomes 49. Which of the following does NOT occur in mitosis? a. Replication of chromosomes b. Condensation of chromatids c. The movement of chromosomes to opposite poles d. Alignment of chromosomes along the cell’s equator e. Separation of chromatids 50. Which of the following techniques was most helpful to Watson and Crick in developing their model for the structure of DNA? a. X-ray crystallography b. Electrophoresis c. Cloned DNA d. Transgenic animals e. Radioactive labeling Answers: 1. A 2. A 3. C 4. E 5. D 6. C 7. E 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. E 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. E 20. D 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. E 26. E 27. E 28. A 29. A 30. A 31. E 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. D 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. C 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. A


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