Final Exam Study Guide
Final Exam Study Guide 1010-07
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1 Psychology Final Exam Study Guide 1. Which of the following was mentioned as a skill to which psychology students would be exposed? a. critical thinking b. use of the scientific method c. critical evaluation of sources of information d. all of the above 2. Psycheis a Greek word meaning ________. a. essence b. soul c. behavior d. love 3. Before psychology became a recognized academic discipline, matters of the mind were undertaken by those in ________. a. biology b. chemistry c. philosophy d. physics 4. In the scientific method, a hypothesis is a(n) ________. a. observation b. measurement c. test d. proposed explanation 5. Based on your reading, which theorist would have been most likely to agree with this statement: Perceptual phenomena are best understood as a combination of their components. a. William James b. Max Wertheimer c. Carl Rogers d. Noam Chomsky 6. ________ is most wellknown for proposing his hierarchy of needs. a. Noam Chomsky b. Carl Rogers c. Abraham Maslow d. Sigmund Freud 7. Rogers believed that providing genuineness, empathy, and ________ in the therapeutic environment for his clients was critical to their being able to deal with their problems. a. structuralism 2 b. functionalism c. Gestalt d. unconditional positive regard 8. The operant conditioning chamber (aka ________ box) is a device used to study the principles of operant conditioning. a. Skinner b. Watson c. James d. Koffka 9. A researcher interested in how changes in the cells of the hippocampus (a structure in the brain related to learning and memory) are related to memory formation would be most likely to identify as a(n) ________ psychologist. a. biological b. health c. clinical d. social 10. An individual’s consistent pattern of thought and behavior is known as a(n) ________. a. psychosexual stage b. object permanence c. personality d. perception 11. In Milgram’s controversial study on obedience, nearly ________ of the participants were willing to administer what appeared to be lethal electrical shocks to another person because they were told to do so by an authority figure. a. 1/3 b. 2/3 c. 3/4 d. 4/5 12. A researcher interested in what factors make an employee best suited for a given job would most likely identify as a(n) ________ psychologist. a. personality b. clinical c. social d. IO 13. If someone wanted to become a psychology professor at a 4year college, then s/he would probably need a ________ degree in psychology. a. bachelor of science 3 b. bachelor of art c. master’s d. PhD 14. The ________ places less emphasis on research and more emphasis on application of therapeutic skills. a. PhD b. PsyD c. postdoctoral training program d. dissertation 15. Which of the following degrees would be the minimum required to teach psychology courses in high school? a. PhD b. PsyD c. master’s degree d. bachelor’s degree 16. One would need at least a(n) ________ degree to serve as a school psychologist. a. associate’s b. bachelor’s c. master’s d. doctoral 17. Scientific hypotheses are ________ and falsifiable. a. observable b. original c. provable d. testable 18. ________ are defined as observable realities. a. behaviors b. facts c. opinions d. theories 19. Scientific knowledge is ________. a. intuitive b. empirical c. permanent d. subjective 20. A major criticism of Freud’s early theories involves the fact that his theories ________. a. were too limited in scope b. were too outrageous c. were too broad d. were not testable 4 21. Sigmund Freud developed his theory of human personality by conducting indepth interviews over an extended period of time with a few clients. This type of research approach is known as a(n): ________. a. archival research b. case study c. naturalistic observation d. survey 22. ________ involves observing behavior in individuals in their natural environments. a. archival research b. case study c. naturalistic observation d. survey 23. The major limitation of case studies is ________. a. the superficial nature of the information collected in this approach b. the lack of control that the researcher has in this approach c. the inability to generalize the findings from this approach to the larger population d. the absence of interrater reliability 24. The benefit of naturalistic observation studies is ________. a. the honesty of the data that is collected in a realistic setting b. how quick and easy these studies are to perform c. the researcher’s capacity to make sure that data is collected as efficiently as possible d. the ability to determine cause and effect in this particular approach 25. Using existing records to try to answer a research question is known as ________. a. naturalistic observation b. survey research c. longitudinal research d. archival research 26. ________ involves following a group of research participants for an extended period of time. a. archival research b. longitudinal research c. naturalistic observation d. crosssectional research 27. A(n) ________ is a list of questions developed by a researcher that can be administered in paper form. a. archive b. case Study c. naturalistic observation 5 d. survey 28. Longitudinal research is complicated by high rates of ________. a. deception b. observation c. attrition d. generalization 29. Height and weight are positively correlated. This means that as height ________ weight ________. a. increases; increases b. decreases; decreases c. increases; decreases d. decreases; increases 30. Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship between two variables? a. .90 b. .50 c. +.80 d. +.25 31. Which statement best illustrates a negative correlation between the number of hours spent watching TV the week before an exam and the grade on that exam? a. Watching too much television leads to poor exam performance. b. Smart students watch less television. c. Viewing television interferes with a student’s ability to prepare for the upcoming exam. d. Students who watch more television perform more poorly on their exams. 32. The correlation coefficient indicates the weakest relationship when ________. a. it is closest to 0 b. it is closest to 1 c. it is positive d. it is negative 33. ________ means that everyone in the population has the same likelihood of being asked to participate in the study. a. operationalizing b. placebo effect c. random assignment d. random sampling 34. The ________ is controlled by the experimenter, while the ________ represents the information collected and statistically analyzed by the experimenter. 6 a. dependent variable; independent variable b. independent variable; dependent variable c. placebo effect; experimenter bias d. experiment bias; placebo effect 35. Researchers must ________ important concepts in their studies so others would have a clear understanding of exactly how those concepts were defined. a. randomly assign b. randomly select c. operationalize d. generalize 36. Sometimes, researchers will administer a(n) ________ to participants in the control group to control for the effects that participant expectation might have on the experiment. a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. statistical analysis d. placebo 37. ________ is to animal research as ________ is to human research. a. informed consent; deception b. IACUC; IRB c. IRB; IACUC d. deception; debriefing 38. Researchers might use ________ when providing participants with the full details of the experiment could skew their responses. a. informed consent b. deception c. ethics d. debriefing 39. A person’s participation in a research project must be ________. a. confidential b. rewarded c. voluntary d. public 40. Before participating in an experiment, individuals should read and sign the ________ form. a. informed consent b. debriefing c. IRB d. ethics 41. A(n) ________ is a sudden, permanent change in a sequence of DNA. a. allele 7 b. chromosome c. epigenetic d. mutation 42. ________ refers to a person’s genetic makeup, while ________ refers to a person’s physical characteristics. a. Phenotype; genotype b. Genotype; phenotype c. DNA; gene d. Gene; DNA 43. ________ is the field of study that focuses on genes and their expression. a. Social psychology b. Evolutionary psychology c. Epigenetics d. Behavioral neuroscience 44. Humans have ________ pairs of chromosomes. a. 15 b. 23 c. 46 d. 78 45. The ________ receive(s) incoming signals from other neurons. a. soma b. terminal buttons c. myelin sheath d. dendrites 46. A(n) ________ facilitates or mimics the activity of a given neurotransmitter system a. axon b. SSRI c. agonist d. antagonist 47. Multiple sclerosis involves a breakdown of the ________. a. soma b. myelin sheath c. synaptic vesicles d. dendrites 48. An action potential involves Na+ moving ________ the cell and K+ moving ________ the cell. a. inside; outside b. outside; inside c. inside; inside d. outside; outside 8 49. Our ability to make our legs move as we walk across the room is controlled by the ________ nervous system. a. autonomic b. somatic c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic 50. If your ________ is activated, you will feel relatively at ease. a. somatic nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. spinal cord 51. The central nervous system is comprised of ________. a. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems b. organs and glands c. somatic and autonomic nervous systems d. brain and spinal cord 52. Sympathetic activation is associated with ________. a. pupil dilation b. storage of glucose in the liver c. increased heart rate d. both A and C 53. The ________ is a sensory relay station where all sensory information, except for smell, goes before being sent to other areas of the brain for further processing. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. thalamus 54. Damage to the ________ disrupts one’s ability to comprehend language, but it leaves one’s ability to produce words intact. a. amygdala b. Broca’s Area c. Wernicke’s Area d. occipital lobe 55. A(n) ________ uses magnetic fields to create pictures of a given tissue. a. EEG b. MRI c. PET scan d. CT scan 56. Which of the following is not a structure of the forebrain? a. thalamus b. hippocampus 9 c. amygdala d. substantia nigra 57. The two major hormones secreted from the pancreas are: a. estrogen and progesterone b. norepinephrine and epinephrine c. thyroxine and oxytocin d. glucagon and insulin 58. The ________ secretes messenger hormones that direct the function of the rest of the endocrine glands. a. ovary b. thyroid c. pituitary d. pancreas 59. The ________ gland secretes epinephrine. a. adrenal b. thyroid c. pituitary d. master 60. The ________ secretes hormones that regulate the body’s fluid levels. a. adrenal b. pituitary c. testis d. thyroid 61. The body’s biological clock is located in the ________. a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. pituitary gland 62. ________ occurs when there is a chronic deficiency in sleep. a. jet lag b. rotating shift work c. circadian rhythm d. sleep debt 63. ________ cycles occur roughly once every 24 hours. a. biological b. circadian c. rotating d. conscious 64. ________ is one way in which people can help reset their biological clocks. a. Lightdark exposure b. coffee consumption c. alcohol consumption d. napping 10 65. Growth hormone is secreted by the ________ while we sleep. a. pineal gland b. thyroid c. pituitary gland d. pancreas 66. The ________ plays a role in controlling slow wave sleep. a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. pons d. both a and b 67. ________ is a hormone secreted by the pineal gland that plays a role in regulating biological rhythms and immune function. a. growth hormone b. melatonin c. LH d. FSH 68. ________ appears to be especially important for enhanced performance on recently learned tasks. a. melatonin b. slowwave sleep c. sleep deprivation d. growth hormone 69. ________ is(are) described as slowwave sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 and stage 4 d. REM sleep 70. Sleep spindles and Kcomplexes are most often associated with ________ sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 and stage 4 d. REM 71. Symptoms of ________ may be improved by REM deprivation. a. schizophrenia b. Parkinson’s disease c. depression d. generalized anxiety disorder 72. The ________ content of a dream refers to the true meaning of the dream. a. latent b. manifest c. collective unconscious d. important 11 73. ________ is loss of muscle tone or control that is often associated with narcolepsy. a. RBD b. CPAP c. cataplexy d. insomnia 74. An individual may suffer from ________ if there is a disruption in the brain signals that are sent to the muscles that regulate breathing. a. central sleep apnea b. obstructive sleep apnea c. narcolepsy d. SIDS 75. The most common treatment for ________ involves the use of amphetaminelike medications. a. sleep apnea b. RBD c. SIDS d. narcolepsy 76. ________ is another word for sleepwalking. a. insomnia b. somnambulism c. cataplexy d. narcolepsy 77. _______ occurs when a drug user requires more and more of a given drug in order to experience the same effects of the drug. a. Withdrawal b. psychological dependence c. tolerance d. reuptake 78. Cocaine blocks the reuptake of ________. a. GABA b. glutamate c. acetylcholine d. dopamine 79. ________ refers to drug craving. a. psychological dependence b. antagonism c. agonism d. physical dependence 80. LSD affects ________ neurotransmission. a. dopamine b. serotonin 12 c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine 81. ________ is most effective in individuals that are very open to the power of suggestion. a. hypnosis b. meditation c. mindful awareness d. cognitive therapy 82. ________ has its roots in religious practice. a. hypnosis b. meditation c. cognitive therapy d. behavioral therapy 83. Meditation may be helpful in ________. a. pain management b. stress control c. treating the flu d. both a and b 84. Research suggests that cognitive processes, such as learning, may be affected by ________. a. hypnosis b. meditation c. mindful awareness d. progressive relaxation 13 14 ANSWER KEY 21. B 42. B 63. B 1. D 22. C 43. C 64. A 2. B 23. C 44. B 65. C 3. C 24. A 45. D 66. D 4. D 25. D 46. C 67. B 5. B 26. B 47. B 68. B 6. C 27. D 48. A 69. C 7. D 28. C 49. B 70. B 8. A 29. D 50. C 71. C 9. A 30. A 51. D 72. A 10. C 31. D 52. D 73. C 11. B 32. B 53. D 74. A 12. D 33. D 54. C 75. D 13. D 34. B 55. B 76. B 14. B 35. C 56. D 77. C 15. D 36. D 57. D 78. D 16. C 37. B 58. C 79. A 17. D 38. C 59. A 80. B 18. B 39. C 60. B 81. A 19. B 40. A 61. C 82. B 20. D 41. D 62. D 83. D 15 84. A 1. Learning is best defined as a relatively permanent change in behavior that ________. A. is innate B. occurs as a result of experience C. is found only in humans D. occurs by observing others 2. Extinction occurs when ________. A. the conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus B. he unconditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with a conditioned stimulus C. the neutral stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus D. the neutral stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with a conditioned stimulus 3. A stimulus that does not initially elicit a response in an organism is a(n) ________. A. unconditioned stimulus B. neutral stimulus C. conditioned stimulus D. unconditioned response 4. Which of the following is an example of a reflex that occurs at some point in the development of a human being? A. child riding a bike B. teen socializing C. infant sucking on a nipple D. toddler walking 5. Two forms of associative learning are ________ and ________. A. classical conditioning; operant conditioning B. classical conditioning; Pavlovian conditioning C. operant conditioning; observational learning D. operant conditioning; learning conditioning 6. In ________ the stimulus or experience occurs before the behavior and then gets paired with the behavior. A. associative learning B. observational learning 16 C. operant conditioning D. classical conditioning 7. In Watson and Rayner’s experiments, Little Albert was conditioned to fear a white rat, and then he began to be afraid of other furry white objects. This demonstrates ________. A. higher order conditioning B. acquisition C. stimulus discrimination D. stimulus generalization 8. Slot machines reward gamblers with money according to which reinforcement schedule? A. fixed ratio B. variable ratio C. fixed interval D. variable interval 9. Who proposed observational learning? A. Ivan Pavlov B. John Watson C. Albert Bandura D. B. F. Skinner 10. Rewarding successive approximations toward a target behavior is ________. A. shaping B. extinction C. positive reinforcement D. negative reinforcement 11. Which is the correct order of steps in the modeling process? A. attention, retention, reproduction, motivation B. motivation, attention, reproduction, retention C. attention, motivation, retention, reproduction D. motivation, attention, retention, reproduction 12. Which of the following is not an example of a primary reinforcer? A. food B. money C. water D. sex 13. In Bandura’s Bobo doll study, when the children who watched the aggressive model were placed in a room with the doll and other toys, they ________. A. ignored the doll B. played nicely with the doll C. played with tinker toys D. kicked and threw the doll 14. ________ is when you take away a pleasant stimulus to stop a behavior. A. positive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement 17 C. positive punishment D. negative punishment 15. The person who performs a behavior that serves as an example is called a ________. A. teacher B. model C. instructor D. coach 16. In Pavlov’s work with dogs, the psychic secretions were ________. A. unconditioned responses B. conditioned responses C. unconditioned stimuli D. conditioned stimuli 17. Which of the following is an example of a prototype for the concept of leadership on an athletic team? A. the equipment manager B. the star player C. the head coach D. the scorekeeper 18. Cognitive psychology is the branch of psychology that focuses on the study of ________. A. human development B. human thinking C. human behavior D. human society 19. Which of the following is an example of an artificial concept? A. Mammals B. a triangle’s area C. gemstones D. teachers 20. ________ provides general principles for organizing words into meaningful sentences. A. Linguistic determinism B. Lexicon C. Semantics D. Syntax 21. An event schema is also known as a cognitive ________. A. stereotype B. concept C. script D. prototype 22. ________ are the smallest unit of language that carry meaning. A. Lexicon B. Phonemes C. Morphemes D. Syntax 18 23. ________ is (are) the basic sound units of a spoken language. A. Syntax B. Phonemes C. Morphemes D. Grammar 24. The meaning of words and phrases is determined by applying the rules of ________. A. lexicon B. phonemes C. overgeneralization D. semantics 25. A specific formula for solving a problem is called ________. A. an algorithm B. a heuristic C. a mental set D. trial and error 26. A mental shortcut in the form of a general problemsolving framework is called ________. A. an algorithm B. a heuristic C. a mental set D. trial and error 27. Which type of bias involves becoming fixated on a single trait of a problem? A. anchoring bias B. confirmation bias C. representative bias D. availability bias 28. Fluid intelligence is characterized by ________. A. being able to recall information B. being able to create new products C. being able to understand and communicate with different cultures D. being able to see complex relationships and solve problems 29. Which type of bias involves relying on a false stereotype to make a decision? A. anchoring bias B. confirmation bias C. representative bias D. availability bias 30. Which theorist put forth the Triarchic theory of intelligence? A. Goleman B. Gardner C. Sternberg D. Steitz 31. Which of the following is not one of Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences? A. creative 19 B. spatial C. linguistic D. musical 32. Which of the following statements is true? A. Poverty always affects whether individuals are able to reach their full intellectual potential. B. An individual’s intelligence is determined solely by the intelligence levels of his siblings. C. The environment in which an individual is raised is the strongest predictor of her future intelligence D. There are many factors working together to influence an individual’s intelligence level. 33. Who developed the IQ test most widely used today? A. Sir Francis Galton B. Alfred Binet C. Louis Terman D. David Wechsler 34. What is a learning disability? A. a developmental disorder B. a neurological disorder C. an emotional disorder D. an intellectual disorder 35. The mean score for a person with an average IQ is ________. A. 70 B. 130 C. 85 D. 100 36. Arthur Jensen believed that ________. A. genetics was solely responsible for intelligence B. environment was solely responsible for intelligence C. intelligence level was determined by race D. IQ tests do not take socioeconomic status into account 37. In order for a test to be normed and standardized it must be tested on ________. A. a group of sameage peers B. a representative sample C. children with mental disabilities D. children of average intelligence 38. Where does high intelligence come from? A. genetics B. environment 20 C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 39. When you are examining data to look for trends, which type of intelligence are you using most? A. practical B. analytical C. emotional D. creative 40. The DSM5 now uses ________ as a diagnostic label for what was once referred to as mental retardation. A. autism and developmental disabilities B. lowered intelligence C. intellectual disability D. cognitive disruption 41. ________ is another name for shortterm memory. A. sensory memory B. episodic memory C. shortterm memory D. implicit memory 42. The formulation of new memories is sometimes called ________, and the process of bringing up old memories is called ________. A. construction; reconstruction B. reconstruction; construction C. production; reproduction D. reproduction; production 43. The storage capacity of longterm memory is ________. A. one or two bits of information B. seven bits, plus or minus two C. limited D. essentially limitless 44. When you are learning how to play the piano, the statement “Every good boy does fine” can help you remember the notes E, G, B, D, and F for the lines of the treble clef. This is an example of a (an) ________. A. jingle B. acronym C. acrostic D. acoustic 45. The three functions of memory are ________. A. automatic processing, effortful processing, and storage 21 B. encoding, processing, and storage C. automatic processing, effortful processing, and retrieval D. encoding, storage, and retrieval 46. According to a study by Yogo and Fujihara (2008), if you want to improve your short term memory, you should spend time writing about ________. A. your best possible future self B. a traumatic life experience C. a trivial topic D. your grocery list 47. This physical trace of memory is known as the ________. A. engram B. Lashley effect C. DeeseRoedigerMcDermott Paradigm D. flashbulb memory effect 48. The selfreferencing effect refers to ________. A. making the material you are trying to memorize personally meaningful to you B. making a phrase of all the first letters of the words you are trying to memorize C. making a word formed by the first letter of each of the words you are trying to memorize D. saying words you want to remember out loud to yourself 49. An exceptionally clear recollection of an important event is a (an) ________. A. engram B. arousal theory C. flashbulb memory D. Equipotentiality hypothesis 50. Memory aids that help organize information for encoding are ________. A. mnemonic devices B. memoryenhancing strategies C. elaborative rehearsal D. effortful processing 51. ________ is when our recollections of the past are done in a selfenhancing manner. A. stereotypical bias B. egocentric bias C. hindsight bias D. enhancement bias 52. Tipofthetongue phenomenon is also known as ________. A. persistence B. misattribution C. transience D. blocking 22 53. Which of the following theories of emotion would suggest that polygraphs should be quite accurate at differentiating one emotion from another? A. CannonBard theory B. JamesLange theory C. SchachterSinger twofactor theory D. Darwinian theory 54. Need for ________ refers to maintaining positive relationships with others. A. achievement B. affiliation C. intimacy D. power 55. ________ proposed the hierarchy of needs. A. William James B. David McClelland C. Abraham Maslow D. Albert Bandura 56. During the ________ phase of the sexual response cycle, individuals experience rhythmic contractions of the pelvis that are accompanied by uterine contractions in women and ejaculation in men. A. excitement B. plateau C. orgasm D. resolution 57. Which of the following findings was not a result of the Kinsey study? A. Sexual desire and sexual ability can be separate functions. B. Females enjoy sex as much as males. C. Homosexual behavior is fairly common. D. Masturbation has no adverse consequences. 58. If someone is uncomfortable identifying with the gender normally associated with their biological sex, then he could be classified as experiencing ________. A. homosexuality B. bisexuality C. heterosexuality D. gender dysphoria 59. Individuals suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder have been shown to have reduced volumes of the ________. A. amygdala B. hippocampus C. hypothalamus 23 D. thalamus 60. According to the ________ theory of emotion, emotional experiences arise from physiological arousal. A. JamesLange B. CannonBard C. SchachterSinger twofactor D. Darwinian 61. Which of the following is not one of the seven universal emotions described in this chapter? A. Contempt B. disgust C. melancholy D. anger 62. ________ is an individual’s belief in her capability to complete some task. A. physiological needs B. selfesteem C. selfactualization D. selfefficacy 63. Carl mows the yard of his elderly neighbor each week for $20. What type of motivation is this? A. Extrinsic B. intrinsic C. drive D. biological 64. According to your reading, nearly ________ of the adult population in the United States can be classified as obese. A. one half B. one third C. one fourth D. one fifth 65. ________ is a chemical messenger secreted by fat cells that acts as an appetite suppressant. A. orexin B. angiotensin C. leptin D. ghrelin 66. ________ is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by attempts to compensate for the excessive amount of food that was consumed. 24 A. PraderWilli syndrome B. morbid obesity C. anorexia nervosa D. bulimia nervosa 67. In order to be classified as morbidly obese, an adult must have a BMI of ________. A. less than 25 B. 25–29.9 C. 30–39.9 D. 40 or more 68. Animal research suggests that in male rats the ________ is critical for the ability to engage in sexual behavior, but not for the motivation to do so. A. nucleus accumbens B. amygdala C. medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus D. hippocampus 69. Negative effects of stress are most likely to be experienced when an event is perceived as ________. A. negative, but it is likely to affect one’s friends rather than oneself B. challenging C. confusing D. threatening, and no clear options for dealing with it are apparent 70. Between 2006 and 2009, the greatest increases in stress levels were found to occur among ________. A. Blacks B. those aged 45–64 C. the unemployed D. those without college degrees 71. At which stage of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is a person especially vulnerable to illness? A. exhaustion B. alarm reaction C. fightorflight D. resistance 72. During an encounter judged as stressful, cortisol is released by the ________. A. sympathetic nervous system B. hypothalamus C. pituitary gland D. adrenal glands 73. Which of the following is not a dimension of job burnout? A. depersonalization 25 B. hostility C. exhaustion D. diminished personal accomplishment 74. The white blood cells that attack foreign invaders to the body are called ________. A. antibodies B. telomeres C. lymphocytes D. immune cells 75. The risk of heart disease is especially high among individuals with ________. A. Depression B. asthma C. telomeres D. lymphocytes 76. The most lethal dimension of Type A behavior pattern seems to be ________. A. hostility B. impatience C. time urgency D. competitive drive 77. Which of the following statements pertaining to asthma is false? A. Parental and interpersonal conflicts have been tied to the development of asthma. B. Asthma sufferers can experience asthma like symptoms simply by believing that an inert substance they breathe will lead to airway obstruction. C. Asthma has been shown to be linked to hostility. D. Rates of asthma have decreased considerably since 2000. 78. Emotionfocused coping would likely be a better method than problemfocused coping for dealing with which of the following stressors? A. terminal cancer B. poor grades in school C. unemployment D. divorce 79. According to the Holmes and Rahe scale, which life event requires the greatest amount of readjustment? A. marriage B. personal illness C. divorce D. death of spouse 80. What is one of the major criticisms of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? A. It has too few items. B. It was developed using only people from the New England region of the United States. 26 C. It does not take into consideration how a person appraises an event. D. None of the items included are positive. 81. Studies of British civil servants have found that those in the lowest status jobs are much more likely to develop heart disease than those who have high status jobs. These findings attest to the importance of ________ in dealing with stress. A. biofeedback B. social support C. perceived control D. emotionfocused coping 82. Relative to those with low levels of social support, individuals with high levels of social support ________. A. are more likely to develop asthma B. tend to have less perceived control C. are more likely to develop cardiovascular disorders D. tend to tolerate stress well 83. The concept of learned helplessness was formulated by Seligman to explain the ________. A. inability of dogs to attempt to escape avoidable shocks after having received inescapable shocks B. failure of dogs to learn to from prior mistakes C. ability of dogs to learn to help other dogs escape situations in which they are receiving uncontrollable shocks D. inability of dogs to learn to help other dogs escape situations in which they are receiving uncontrollable electric shocks 84. Which of the following is not one of the presumed components of happiness? A. using our talents to help improve the lives of others B. learning new skills C. regular pleasurable experiences D. identifying and using our talents to enrich our lives 85. Researchers have identified a number of factors that are related to happiness. Which of the following is not one of them? A. age B. annual income up to $75,000 C. physical attractiveness D. marriage 86. How does positive affect differ from optimism? 27 A. Optimism is more scientific than positive affect. B. Positive affect is more scientific than optimism. C. Positive affect involves feeling states, whereas optimism involves expectations. D. Optimism involves feeling states, whereas positive affect involves expectations 87. Carson enjoys writing mystery novels, and has even managed to publish some of his work. When he’s writing, Carson becomes extremely focused on his work; in fact, he becomes so absorbed that that he often loses track of time, often staying up well past 3 a.m. Carson’s experience best illustrates the concept of ________. A. happiness set point B. adaptation C. positive affect D. flow 28 ANSWER KEY 28. D 58. D 29. C 59. B 1. B 30. C 60. A 2. A 31. A 61. C 3. B 32. D 62. D 33. D 63. A 4. C 5. A 34. B 64. B 6. D 35. D 65. C 36. A 66. D 7. D 8. B 37. B 67. D 9. C 38. C 68. C 10. A 39. B 69. D 11. A 40. C 70. B 12. B 41. C 71. A 13. D 42. A 72. D 14. D 43. D 73. B 15. B 44. C 74. C 16. B 45. D 75. A 46. B 76. A 17. B 18. B 47. A 77. D 19. B 48. A 78. A 49. C 79. D 20. D 21. C 50. A 80. C 22. C 51. B 81. C 23. B 52. B 82. D 24. D 53. B 83. A 25. A 54. B 84. B 26. B 55. C 85. C 56. C 86. C 27. A 57. A 87. D 1. The view that development is a cumulative process, gradually adding to the same type of skills is known as ________. 29 a. nature b. nurture c. continuous development d. discontinuous development 2. Developmental psychologists study human growth and development across three domains. Which of the following is not one of these domains? a. cognitive b. psychological c. physical d. psychosocial 3. How is lifespan development defined? a. The study of how we grow and change from conception to death. b. The study of how we grow and change in infancy and childhood. c. The study of physical, cognitive, and psychosocial growth in children. d. The study of emotions, personality, and social relationships. 4. The idea that even if something is out of sight, it still exists is called ________. a. egocentrism b. object permanence c. conservation d. reversibility 5. Which theorist proposed that moral thinking proceeds through a series of stages? a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Erikson c. John Watson d. Lawrence Kohlberg 6. According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, what is the main task of the adolescent? a. developing autonomy b. feeling competent c. forming an identity d. forming intimate relationships 7. Which of the following is the correct order of prenatal development? a. zygote, fetus, embryo b. fetus, embryo zygote c. fetus, zygote, embryo d. zygote, embryo, fetus 8. The time during fetal growth when specific parts or organs develop is known as ________. a. critical period b. mitosis c. conception d. pregnancy 30 9. What begins as a singlecell structure that is created when a sperm and egg merge at conception? a. embryo b. fetus c. zygote d. infant 10. Using scissors to cut out paper shapes is an example of ________. a. gross motor skills b. fine motor skills c. large motor skills d. small motor skills 11. The child uses the parent as a base from which to explore her world in which attachment style? a. secure b. insecure avoidant c. insecure ambivalentresistant d. disorganized 12. The frontal lobes become fully developed ________. a. at birth b. at the beginning of adolescence c. at the end of adolescence d. by 25 years old 13. Who created the very first modern hospice? a. Elizabeth KüblerRoss b. Cicely Saunders c. Florence Wald d. Florence Nightingale 14. Which of the following is the order of stages in KüblerRoss’s fivestage model of grief? a. denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance b. anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance, denial c. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance d. anger, acceptance, denial, depression, bargaining 15. Personality is thought to be ________. a. short term and easily changed b. a pattern of shortterm characteristics c. unstable and short term d. long term, stable and not easily changed 16. The longstanding traits and patterns that propel individuals to consistently think, feel, and behave in specific ways are known as ________. a. psychodynamic b. temperament c. humors d. personality 31 17. ________ is credited with the first comprehensive theory of personality. a. Hippocrates b. Gall c. Wundt d. Freud 18. An early science that tried to correlate personality with measurements of parts of a person’s skull is known as ________. a. phrenology b. psychology c. physiology d. personality psychology 19. The id operates on the ________ principle. a. Reality b. pleasure c. instant gratification d. guilt 20. The ego defense mechanism in which a person who is confronted with anxiety returns to a more immature behavioral stage is called ________. a. repression b. regression c. reaction formation d. rationalization 21. The Oedipus complex occurs in the ________ stage of psychosexual development. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency 22. The universal bank of ideas, images, and concepts that have been passed down through the generations from our ancestors refers to ________. a. archetypes b. intuition c. collective unconscious d. personality types 23. Selfregulation is also known as ________. a. selfefficacy b. will power c. internal locus of control d. external locus of control 24. Your level of confidence in your own abilities is known as ________. a. selfefficacy b. selfconcept c. selfcontrol d. selfesteem 32 25. Jane believes that she got a bad grade on her psychology paper because her professor doesn’t like her. Jane most likely has an _______ locus of control. a. internal b. external c. intrinsic d. extrinsic 26. Selfconcept refers to ________. a. our level of confidence in our own abilities b. all of our thoughts and feelings about ourselves c. the belief that we control our own outcomes d. the belief that our outcomes are outside of our control 27. The idea that people’s ideas about themselves should match their actions is called ________. a. confluence b. conscious c. conscientiousness d. congruence 28. The way a person reacts to the world, starting when they are very young, including the person’s activity level is known as ________. a. traits b. temperament c. heritability d. personality 29. Brianna is 18 months old. She cries frequently, is hard to soothe, and wakes frequently during the night. According to Thomas and Chess, she would be considered ________. a. an easy baby b. a difficult baby c. a slow to warm up baby d. a colicky baby 30. According to the findings of the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart, identical twins, whether raised together or apart have ________ personalities. a. slightly different b. very different c. slightly similar d. very similar 31. Temperament refers to ________. a. inborn, genetically based personality differences b. characteristic ways of behaving c. conscientiousness, agreeableness, neuroticism, openness, and extroversion d. degree of introversionextroversion 33 32. According to the Eysencks’ theory, people who score high on neuroticism tend to be ________. a. calm b. stable c. outgoing d. anxious 33. The United States is considered a ________ culture. a. collectivistic b. individualist c. traditional d. nontraditional 34. The concept that people choose to move to places that are compatible with their personalities and needs is known as ________. a. selective migration b. personal oriented personality c. socially oriented personality d. individualism 35. Which of the following is NOT a projective test? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) b. Rorschach Inkblot Test c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank (RISB) 36. A personality assessment in which a person responds to ambiguous stimuli, revealing unconscious feelings, impulses, and desires ________. a. selfreport inventory b. projective test c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) d. MyersBriggs Type Indicator (MBTI) 37. Which personality assessment employs a series of true/false questions? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) c. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank (RISB) d. MyersBriggs Type Indicator (MBTI) 38. As a field, social psychology focuses on ________ in predicting human behavior. a. personality traits b. genetic predispositions c. biological forces d. situational factors 39. Making internal attributions for your successes and making external attributions for your failures is an example of ________. a. actorobserver bias b. fundamental attribution error 34 c. selfserving bias d. justworld hypothesis 40. Collectivistic cultures are to ________ as individualistic cultures are to ________. a. dispositional; situational b. situational; dispositional c. autonomy; group harmony d. justworld hypothesis; selfserving bias 41. According to the actorobserver bias, we have more information about ________. a. situational influences on behavior b. influences on our own behavior c. influences on others’ behavior d. dispositional influences on behavior 42. A(n) ________ is a set of group expectations for appropriate thoughts and behaviors of its members. a. social role b. social norm c. script d. attribution 43. On his first day of soccer practice, Jose suits up in a tshirt, shorts, and cleats and runs out to the field to join his teammates. Jose’s behavior is reflective of ________. a. a script b. social influence c. good athletic behavior d. normative behavior 44. When it comes to buying clothes, teenagers often follow social norms; this is likely motivated by ________. a. following parents’ rules b. saving money c. fitting in d. looking good 45. In the Stanford prison experiment, even the lead researcher succumbed to his role as a prison supervisor. This is an example of the power of ________ influencing behavior. a. scripts b. social norms c. conformity d. social roles 46. Attitudes describe our ________ of people, objects, and ideas. a. treatment b. evaluations c. cognitions d. knowledge 47. Cognitive dissonance causes discomfort because it disrupts our sense of ________. 35 a. dependency b. unpredictability c. consistency d. power 48. In order for the central route to persuasion to be effective, the audience must be ________ and ________. a. analytical; motivated b. attentive; happy c. intelligent; unemotional d. gullible; distracted 49. Examples of cues used in peripheral route persuasion include all of the following except ________. a. celebrity endorsement b. positive emotions c. attractive models d. factual information 50. In the Asch experiment, participants conformed due to ________ social influence. a. informational b. normative c. inspirational d. persuasive 51. Under what conditions will informational social influence be more likely? a. when individuals want to fit in b. when the answer is unclear c. when the group has expertise d. both b and c 52. Social loafing occurs when ________. a. individual performance cannot be evaluated b. the task is easy c. both a and b d. none of the above 53. If group members modify their opinions to align with a perceived group consensus, then ________ has occurred. a. group cohesion b. social facilitation c. groupthink d. social loafing 54. Prejudice is to ________ as discrimination is to ________. a. feelings; behavior b. thoughts; feelings c. feelings; thoughts d. behavior; feelings 55. Which of the following is not a type of prejudice? 36 a. homophobia b. racism c. sexism d. individualism 56. ________ occurs when the outgroup is blamed for the ingroup’s frustration. a. stereotyping b. ingroup bias c. scapegoating d. ageism 57. When we seek out information that supports our stereotypes we are engaged in ________. a. scapegoating b. confirmation bias c. selffulfilling prophecy d. ingroup bias 58. Typically, bullying from boys is to ________ as bullying from girls is to ________. a. emotional harm; physical harm b. physical harm; emotional harm c. psychological harm; physical harm d. social exclusion; verbal taunting 59. Which of the following adolescents is least likely to be targeted for bullying? a. a child with a physical disability b. a transgender adolescent c. an emotionally sensitive boy d. the captain of the football team 60. The bystander effect likely occurs due to ________. a. desensitization to violence b. people not noticing the emergency c. diffusion of responsibility d. emotional insensitivity 61. Altruism is a form of prosocial behavior that is motivated by ________. a. feeling good about oneself b. selfless helping of others c. earning a reward d. showing bravery to bystanders 62. After moving to a new apartment building, research suggests that Sam will be most likely to become friends with ________. a. his next door neighbor b. someone who lives three floors up in the apartment building c. someone from across the street d. his new postal delivery person 63. What trait do both men and women tend to look for in a romantic partner? a. sense of humor 37 b. social skills c. leadership potential d. physical attractiveness 64. According to the triangular theory of love, what type of love is defined by passion and intimacy but no commitment? a. consummate love b. empty love c. romantic love d. liking 65. According to social exchange theory, humans want to maximize the ________ and minimize the ________ in relationships. a. intimacy; commitment b. benefits; costs c. costs; benefits d. passion; intimacy 66. In the harmful dysfunction definition of psychological disorders, dysfunction involves ________. a. the inability of an psychological mechanism to perform its function b. the breakdown of social order in one’s community c. communication problems in one’s immediate family d. all the above 67. Patterns of inner experience and behavior are thought to reflect the presence of a psychological disorder if they ________. a. are highly atypical b. lead to significant distress and impairment in one’s life c. embarrass o
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