Final Exam Study Guide Part Two
Final Exam Study Guide Part Two PSY 100
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This 13 page Study Guide was uploaded by Melissa Wolfe on Friday December 11, 2015. The Study Guide belongs to PSY 100 at Central Michigan University taught by Beehr, Terry in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 45 views. For similar materials see Introduction to Psychology in Psychlogy at Central Michigan University.
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Date Created: 12/11/15
Psychology- Final Exam Review Part Two 1. The process of retaining encoded information over time is… a. Encoding b. Storage c. Retrieval d. Recall 2. Which is the correct order of the memory formation process? a. Event occurs → long-term memory is stored → sensory memory → working/short-term memory b. Event occurs → working/short-term memory → sensory → long-term memory is stored c. Event occurs → sensory memory → working/short-term memory → long-term memory Is stored d. Event occurs → sensory memory → long-term memory → working/short-term memory 3. Aaron cannot form new memories as a result of a brain injury. Aaron suffers from… a. Proactive interference b. Retroactive Interference c. Anterograde amnesia d. Retrograde amnesia 4. Which is of the following is true? a. Information presented in the moments just before sleep is the easiest to remember. b. Memory is reliable and objective. c. Repression is supported in theory by all memory researchers. d. People can be misled into remembering things that did not actually happen to them. 5. Which of the following is not recommended by the text to help improve your memory? a. Download memory-improving applications on your phone. b. Get more sleep because the brain consolidates information into our long-term memory during sleep. c. Rehearse the study material repeatedly and have spaced study sessions. d. Make the material meaningful by applying it to your own life. 6. Tim is walking in the park when he recognizes someone he is pretty sure he has seen before yet he is not sure where he has seen them. Tim is experiencing… a. Sensory memory b. Source amnesia c. Misinformation effect d. Repression 7. Alice studied for her math test just before she studied for this psychology test. If her recall of psychology is made worse by studying math, this is an instance of a. Anterograde amnesia b. Encoding failure c. Serial position effect d. Proactive interference 8. ______ is to visual stimuli as ______ is to auditory stimuli. a. Echoic memory; Iconic memory b. Iconic memory; Echoic memory c. Shallow processing; Deep processing d. Deep processing; Shallow processing 9. At which of (Atkinson-Shiffrin’s) three memory stages would iconic and echoic memory occur? a. Parallel processing b. Sensory memory c. Short-term memory d. Long-term memory 10. Which of the following brain structures are related to implicit memory formation? a. Frontal lobes and hippocampus b. Frontal lobes and cerebellum c. Cerebellum and basal ganglia d. Cerebellum and hippocampus 11. Which brain area responds to stress hormones by helping to create stronger memories? a. Basal Ganglia b. Cerebellum c. Hippocampus d. Amygdala 12. After Jill got into a fight with her boyfriend, she could only recall the other time she had gotten mad at him (and not recall the good times). This is an example of a. Serial position effect b. Mood-congruent memory c. Emotional-contingency effect d. Priming 13. Blake got into a car accident. When he woke up in the hospital, he was unable to remember his distant past. This is an example of a. Retrograde amnesia b. Anterograde amnesia c. Proactive interference d. Retroactive interference 14. A process in which previously stored memories, when retrieved, are potentially altered before being stored again is called a. Repression b. Reconsolidation c. Encoding d. Retrieval 15. Which of the following best defines a prototype? a. A mental activity associated with thinking, knowing, remembering and communicating. b. A mental grouping of similar stimuli. c. A mental image or best example of a category d. A thinking strategy that allows us to make judgements 16. A mother loves to brag about her child’s academic accomplishments. When a teacher calls her in to show her the child’s recent low test score, she laughs and states there must be a mistake, demanding the teacher regrade the test. This is best an example of a. Framing b. Belief perseverance c. Deficit Learning d. Availability Heuristic 17. _______ is to meaning as ______ is to sound. a. Morpheme; Phoneme b. Phoneme; Morpheme c. Grammar; Morpheme d. Morpheme; Grammar 18. After an accident, May struggled to speak words, but could still sing familiar songs and comprehend speech. This is a sign that May has damaged her a. Hippocampus b. Frontal Cortex c. Cerebellum d. Broca’s Area 19. Spearman utilized the letter “g” to represent a. Gardner’s eight intelligences b. General intelligence c. Geniuses with high IQs d. Guided imagery as a memory technique 20. Which of the following components need to be known to create an IQ score? a. Mental age and chronological age b. Mental age and psychological maturity c. Chronological age and actual age d. Mental age, chronological age, and GQ 21. Crystallized intelligence typically _____ as age increases, whereas fluid intelligence typically ____ as age increases. a. Increases; increases b. Decreases; decreases c. Increases; decreases d. Decreases; Increases 22. What is the proposed cause for Down syndrome? a. Mother drank alcohol curing pregnancy b. Heredity c. An extra copy of Chromosome 21 d. Cranial damage 23. Which of the following terms is correctly defined? a. Heuristic – a simple thinking strategy that allows us to make faster decisions but can be prone to errors b. Insight – tendency to search for information to support our preconceptions and ignore contradictory evidence c. Conformation bias – a sudden realization of a problem’s solution d. Algorithm – a mental image or best example of a category 24. Doctor A tells their patients that a certain procedure has a 95% success rate, while Doctor B tells their patients that same procedure has a 5% failure rate. More of Doctor A’s patients agree to the procedure than of Doctor B’s patient. What is the most likely the reason for this? a. Fixation b. Framing c. Convergent thinking d. Divergent thinking 25. What is the main criticism of Multiple Intelligence Theories? a. They do not define enough categories of intelligence b. Research has shown that there is a general intelligence factor, g, as Spearman hypothesized and intelligence in one category can predict intelligence in another. c. They do not include intelligence such as emotional intelligence d. The theories do not take into consideration certain talents that might be considered intelligences. 26. What is the clearest difference between an aptitude and an achievement test? a. An aptitude test measures your reaction to something and an achievement test measures what you have learned. b. An aptitude test measures what you have learned and an achievement test measures your ability to learn. c. An aptitude test measures your ability to learn and an achievement test measures both your ability to learn and what you have learned. d. An aptitude test measures your ability to learn and an achievement test measures what you have learned. 27. A psychologist wanting to research the impact of aging on intelligence using a longitudinal design for their study would… a. Study the same group of people over a period of years. b. Study a few different groups of people at different ages at one point in time. c. Study only people over 65 years old. d. Study only people under 20 years old or over 65 years old. 28. If the environments that two babies of the same age are raised in were similar what would explain more of the difference in their intelligences? a. Environment b. Heritability c. Age d. If they are raised in similar environments there should be no difference. 29. Mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering and communicating comprise a. Intelligence b. Algorithms c. Heuristics d. Cognition 30. The metal potential to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations is a. Intelligence b. An algorithm c. A heuristic d. Cognition 31. Which of the following is not true about structured interviews used for employee hiring? a. Has double the predictive accuracy compared to unstructured interviews b. Reduces memory distortions and biases c. Asks same job-relevant questions of all applicants d. Relies on subjective overall evaluations from interviewers 32. Task leadership is more related to _____, whereas social leadership is more related to _____. a. Goal orientation; Group orientation b. Group orientation; Goal orientation c. Direction orientation; Autonomy orientation d. Autonomy orientation; Direction orientation 33. Motivation is best defines as a. A need or desire that energizes and directs behaviors b. A complex behavior that Is rigidly patterned c. A positive or negative environmental stimulus d. A physiological state that puts one into an aroused state 34. According to Yerkes-Dodson law of arousal and performance, a. Low arousal leads to optimal performance b. Moderate arousal leads to optimal performance c. High arousal leads to optimal performance d. Arousal level does not matter to reach optimal performance 35. Hunger occurs when blood glucose levels are _____ and ghrelin levels are _______. a. Low; high b. High; low c. Moderate; high d. Moderate; low 36. Which of the following states that correct order of the sexual response cycle stages from start to finish? a. Excitement, Orgasm, Plateau, Resolution b. Excitement, Plateau, Orgasm, Resolution c. Orgasm, Excitement, Plateau, Resolution d. Orgasm, Plateau, Excitement, Resolution 37. Which of the following is not a subfield of personnel psychology? a. Recruitment b. Selection c. Quality of work life d. Training and development 38. Which of the following is the best predictor of on-the-job performance? a. Education b. Work experience c. Organizational fit d. General mental ability 39. Which of the following is true? a. Instinct theories of motivation explain almost all human motives of behavior. b. The basis of drive-reduction theory is homeostasis or maintaining a steady internal state. c. Studies have shown that people who have moderate arousal when taking an exam will only get average scored compared to people who exhibit higher states of arousal. d. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs has been proven to be universal, meaning it applies consistently across cultures. 40. What part of the brain, when stimulated, will make hunger increase to the point that well-fed animals will continue to eat, and if it is destroyed even starving animals will not have interest in food? a. Cerebellum b. Amygdala c. Hypothalamus d. Hippocampus 41. Which is true about obesity? a. Most countries have started to reduce the rate of obesity. b. Obesity is influenced only by genes. c. When a person’s bodyweight drops below the previous set point the brain realizes they are trying to lose weight. d. Identical twins have been found to have similar weights even when raised apart. 42. What is one of the negative impacts of exposure to sexually explicit material according to research? a. Habituation b. Alcohol use c. Rape acceptance d. Increased guile 43. What is not one of the factors that researchers found to affect sexual orientation? a. Hormone exposure in the womb b. Having multiple older biological brothers, specifically men c. The size of cells in the hypothalamus d. A single gene that influences sexual orientation 44. As part of Maria’s job she must rate her own work performance, and her performance is also rated by her supervisor, her peers, and any customer or subordinates she might have. This system is known as… a. Self-appraisal b. 360-degree feedback c. Unstructured feedback d. Structured feedback 45. Which subfield of industrial-organizational psychology is correctly matched with the areas they are concerned with? a. Organizational psychology – enhancing the quality of work life b. Organizational psychology – helping employees operate and interact with technology and machinery c. Personnel Psychology – analyzing the structure of an organization d. Human Factors Psychology – selecting and placing employees 46. The need to have relationships with other people or be part of a group is the a. Achievement need b. Narcissistic need c. Affiliation need d. Paraphilias need 47. At the end of class, Sergei discovers that he got his first A+ in his astronomy class. While exiting the class, he notices a student drop some paper on the floor and he decides to help them. This is an example of a. The catharsis hypothesis b. The feel-good, do-good phenomenon c. The optimism- volunteer effect d. The behavior feedback effect 48. From start to finish, what is the correct order of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome phases? a. Exhaustion, resistance, and alarm b. Alarm, exhaustion, and resistance c. Exhaustion, alarm, and resistance d. Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion 49. Which of the following is not a way people can reduce their stress levels? a. Aerobic exercise b. Meditation c. Relaxation d. Becoming an atheist 50. What is true about polygraphs? a. Polygraphs have effectively helped federal law enforcement agencies such as the FBI and CIA catch most spies within their organizations. b. Polygraphs do not distinguish between the emotions of anxiety, irritation, and guilt, which can lead to innocent people failing the polygraph. c. Polygraphs may be inefficient, but they are the most effective lie detection method. d. Polygraphs measure the brainwaves to detect if someone is lying 51. Which of the following is false? a. Research has shown that men and women, on average, are able to interpret emotions equally well. b. The facial expressions of basic emotions such as anger, fear, and happiness, are very different depending on the culture. c. People of different cultures are more likely to differ in their gestures than their facial expressions and emotions. d. Blind people cannot exhibit basic facial expressions of emotion. 52. Holding a pen in your teeth without letting it touch your lips activates muscles that are used during smiling can make stressful situations seemingly less stressful. This is the… a. Swift-Taylor effect b. Catharsis effect c. Behavior feedback effect d. Facial feedback effect 53. How have researchers identified the 10 basic emotions? a. Studying facial expressions of infants b. Studying facial expressions of rats c. Studying facial expression of men across cultures d. Studying facial expression of women across cultures 54. Which of the following is most true about some of the basic emotions? a. When people retaliate against someone who is provoking them they usually relieve their aggressive urges. b. Waiting is one of the most effective ways to reduce anger. c. People have a tendency to do good things why they are in a good mood; however, doing good things has not been shown to make people feel good. d. Catharsis is a reliable way of reducing anger. 55. What has NOT been found to be related to people’s happiness? a. Amount of sleep and exercise b. Having a job that fits their skills c. Age d. Having close friendships 56. Which is true about stress? a. Stressors cannot lead to positive outcomes. b. Stressors are the response to stress. c. People respond to stressors that are threats the same way they respond to stressors that are challenges. d. Some short-term stress might have benefits, while long-term stress can be more harmful. 57. What had not been found to be an effect of stress on the immune system? a. Low stress people have lower rates of cancer. b. Surgical wounds in highly stressed people heal at a slower rate. c. Vaccines are more effective in adults experiencing low stress. d. People with more stress are more susceptible to colds. 58. All of the following are true bout ways to reduce stress EXCEPT: a. Religious engagement, which promotes healthy behaviors such as self-control, has been shown to reduce stress. b. Simply attending church regularly can increase your life expectancy. c. Practicing mindfulness can calm the brain in emotional situations. d. Exercise can prevent or reduce both depression and anxiety. 59. Which of the following is not a function of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. Pupils dilate b. Accelerate heart rate c. Skin perspires d. Decrease secretion of stress hormones 60. When looking a photos on a speed dating website, it only take _____ to detect whether you are attracted to another person. a. 10 seconds b. 1 minutes c. 1.5 minutes d. 2 minutes 61. To persuade his boss to consider merging with another company, John presents several charts relating to the company’s declining revenue over the years. This is an example of a. Foot-in-the-door phenomenon b. Peripheral route persuasion c. Central route persuasion d. Snowballing 62. Social psychologist Solomon Asch (in his line-judging experiment) was shocked to find that intelligent college students were willing to change their answers according to the majority of the group’s answers. His finding provide support for a. Obedience b. Attribution theory c. Cognitive Dissonance d. Conformity 63. Regarding obedience (Milgram’s study), which of the following conditions helps to influence people’s obedience to orders to hurt another person. a. The person giving orders was perceived to have low authority. b. The authority figure was part of a sketchy institution. c. The victim was depersonalized or at a distance. d. There were role models for defiance or disobedience. 64. Students rend to hate group projects because there is often one member who will put in less effort than the rest. This is an example of a. Social loafing b. Deindividuation c. Social facilitation d. Group polarization 65. Which of the following is NOT true regarding how we cognitively process prejudice? a. We take into account as many of the individual’s actual characteristics as possible. b. We judge the frequency of events by instances that readily come to mind. c. We form categories to simplify the world around us. d. We blame the victim and assume they are getting what they deserve. 66. Which of the following does NOT explain why we befriend or fall in love with someone? a. Proximity b. Similarity c. Physical Attractiveness d. Psychotropism 67. Which is the correct definition of the fundamental attribution error? a. The tendency for humans, when analyzing the behavior of others, to underestimate the influence of the situation and overestimate the impact of the individual’s disposition. b. The tendency for humans, when analyzing the behavior of others, to overestimate the influence of the situation and underestimate the impact of the individual’s disposition. c. The tendency for humans to attribute their misfortune to the actions of others d. The tendency for humans to attribute their misfortune to their own behaviors. 68. Which of the following has been shown to strengthen an individual’s conformity to a certain group? a. The individual feels secure. b. The individual doesn’t like the group. c. The individual is from a culture that encourages respect for social standards. d. The individual thinks others in the group will NOT see his or her behaviors. 69. Which psychological principle might benefit the home team in a sports game, due to the home crowd? a. Deindividuation b. Social loafing c. Group polarization d. Social facilitation 70. Which psychological phenomenon is defines by the tendency for us to believe that people get what they deserve and deserve what they get? a. Foot-in-the-door phenomenon b. Just-world phenomenon c. Stereotype phenomenon d. Scapegoat phenomenon 71. Which of the following is a biological influence on aggression? a. High estrogen b. Y-chromosome c. X-chromosome d. Cholesterol 72. Pitchers in baseball are more likely to throw the ball at a batter when the current batter had previously hit a home run their last time at the plate. Which psychological principle explains this? a. The Tigers principle b. The Scapegoat principle c. The Principle of Discrimination d. Frustration-Aggression Principle 73. Which of the following makes us more likely to help another person in an emergency situation? a. We observed someone else being helpful. b. The situation is occurring in a larger city. c. The individual is in a large group of people. d. The person does not seem to need help. 74. What does GRIT stand for? a. Gradual Relief by Implicit Therapy b. Graduated and Reciprocated Initiatives in Tension-Reduction c. Godlike and Religious Interventions as Treatments d. Greater Rehearsal Initiatives for Therapy 75. An individual’s characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting is his or her a. Personality b. Emotion c. Perception d. Motivation 76. _______ views personality with a focus on the potential for healthy personal growth. a. Psychodynamic theories b. Trait theories c. Humanistic theories d. Social-Cognitive theories 77. Which of the following is not a basic defense mechanism Freud proposed to defend against anxiety? a. Reaction formation b. Projection c. Displacement d. Refusal 78. After writing an essay on dying, researchers found participants were more aggressive towards their rivals. This finding provides evidence for _____. a. Terror-Management theory b. Trait theory c. Self-actualization d. Self-concept 79. What of the following is a major criticism of using projection tests? a. It is too cheap. b. There is no strong evidence to demonstrate validity. c. There is high agreement between raters d. There is little information to interpret in the pictures. 80. “Just remember son, it doesn’t matter whether you win or lose—unless you want daddy’s love.” This is an example of______. a. A father offering unconditional positive regard. b. A father NOT offering unconditional positive regard c. A father offering self esteem d. A father not offering self esteem 81. Which of the following is NOT a specific way in which an individual and environment interact? a. Our personalities shape how we interpret and react to events. b. Our personalities help create situations to which we react. c. Different people choose different environments. d. None of the above. 82. The tendency to accept responsibility for success and blame circumstances or bad luck for failures is called _______. a. Defensive self-esteem b. Secure self-esteem c. Spotlight bias d. Self-serving bias 83. A manager yells at her employees after getting yelled at by her own boss would be exhibit which defense mechanism? a. Denial b. Regression c. Displacement d. Projection 84. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five Factors of personality? a. Conscientiousness b. Empathy c. Neuroticism d. Openness 85. Which is true about personality? a. Personality becomes more stable with age b. The Big Five personality traits do NOT describe personality traits in cultures other than the United States. c. The Big Five personality traits originate in the same area of the brain. d. An individual’s score on a personality test can predict behavior accurately in almost any situation 86. Which personality theory would focus on ways that healthy people reach self- actualization? a. Trait theory b. Psychodynamic theory c. Social-cognitive theory d. Humanistic theory 87. Which is one of the COSTS of high self-esteem? a. Self-actualization b. Self-efficacy c. Self-serving bias d. Self-concept 88. Eysenck’s two personality dimensions are usually drawn in a circle and intended to describe all personalities on which two axes? a. Aggressive-Hostile versus Calm-Peaceable b. Pessimistic-Controlled versus Optimistic-Excitable c. Conscientious-Agreeable versus Openness-Neurotic d. Stable-Unstable versus Introverted-Extraverted 89. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be considered a maladaptive, disruptive, or dysfunctional behavior? a. Believing your home must be cleaned nearly every weekend b. Leaving work to see if you left the stove on c. Screaming hysterically every time you see a spider d. Hyperventilating every time you think of the twin towers from 9/11 90. What do trained psychologists mostly refer to when classifying psychological disorders? a. Wikipedia b. DSM-5 c. Their colleagues d. None, they use their intuition 91. Lately Helen has been having trouble sleeping, has struggled to find enjoyment doing activities she used to love, and has reoccurring thoughts of suicide. Based on the information provided, which disorder does Helen most likely have? a. Bipolar disorder b. Mania c. Major depressive disorder d. Schizophrenia 92. Jennifer has been worried about her husband Mike. He thinks he is the Hulk and has been paranoid that the FBI is after him. When Jennifer tries to talk to Mike, his thoughts spilled out in no logical order. Based on the information provided, which disorder could Mike have? a. Mania b. Schizophrenia c. Bipolar Disorder d. Anxiety disorder 93. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY true regarding Schizophrenia? a. People are at risk of schizophrenia if they experience the flu epidemic during fetal development b. Famine can increase risk of schizophrenia c. Oxygen deprivation during delivery increases risk of schizophrenia d. High birth weight increases risk of schizophrenia 94. ________ is characterized as a disorder where a person exhibits a lack of conscience regarding wrongdoing. a. Antisocial personality disorder b. Bipolar disorder c. Mania d. Schizophrenia 95. What is one of the criticisms of the DSM-5? a. Psychologists do not agree on the definition of PTSD and do not accurately diagnose it when using the DSM-5. b. The DSM-5 sometimes classifies common or normal behaviors as disorders c. It has not changed the labels of psychological disorders from the previous manuals. d. The DSM-5 does not include ADHD in its list of psychological disorders. 96. Which of the following is true? a. ADHD is more common in adults than in children. b. Schizophrenia is the most commonly diagnosed psychological disorder. c. People with psychological disorders or mental health issues are more likely to be the victims of violence than the instigators of violence. d. Most people who have a psychological disorder are over 50 years old when diagnosed. 97. Which of the following is NOT a protective factor against mental disorders? a. Aerobic exercise b. Literacy c. Self-esteem d. Substance abuse 98. Over the past 6 months, Jeff has had difficulty concentrating, sweats for no reason, worries constantly, and has experienced unpleasant moods. Which disorder is he most likely to have? a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Panic disorder c. Phobic disorder d. OCD 99. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a symptom of Major depressive disorder? a. Constant anxiety b. Difficulty sleeping c. Depressed mood d. Physical agitation 100. Which of the following is true? a. Men are more likely than women to be diagnosed with depression b. Depression is the most common reason people seek mental health services c. Bipolar disorder is characterized by having fluctuating moods of being either angry and aggressive or pleasant and happy. d. Depression typically affects older people. 101. What types of psychological disorder is the least common? a. Depressive disorders b. Anxiety disorders c. Eating disorders d. Dissociative disorders 102. Which of the following is true? a. Dissociative disorder is widely accepted as real by psychologists. b. Most criminals do not fit the criteria for antisocial personality disorder c. Women are more likely to have antisocial personality disorder than men. d. Individuals with antisocial personality disorder are very methodical and plan out their actions. Psychology- Final Exam Review Answers Part Two 1. B 11. D 21. C 2. C 12. B 22. C 3. C 13. A 23. A 4. D 14. B 24. B 5. A 15. C 25. B 6. B 16. B 26. D 7. D 17. A 27. A 8. B 18. D 28. B 9. B 19. B 29. D 10. C 20. A 30. A 31. D 55. C 79. B 32. A 56. D 80. B 33. A 57. A 81. D 34. B 58. B 82. D 35. A 59. D 83. C 36. B 60. A 84. B 37. C 61. C 85. A 38. D 62. D 86. D 39. B 63. C 87. C 40. C 64. A 88. D 41. D 65. A 89. A 42. C 66. D 90. B 43. D 67. A 91. C 44. B 68. C 92. B 45. A 69. D 93. D 46. C 70. B 94. A 47. B 71. B 95. B 48. D 72. D 96. C 49. D 73. A 97. D 50. B 74. B 98. A 51. C 75. A 99. A 52. D 76. C 100. B 53. A 77. D 101. D 54. B 78. A 102. B
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