BIOL 2170 Final Exam Study Guide
BIOL 2170 Final Exam Study Guide BIOL 2170
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This 69 page Study Guide was uploaded by chelsea1023 on Saturday December 12, 2015. The Study Guide belongs to BIOL 2170 at University of Toledo taught by Dr. Deborah Chadee in Summer 2015. Since its upload, it has received 799 views. For similar materials see Fundamentals of Life Science: Biomolecules, cells, and Inheritence in Biology at University of Toledo.
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Chapter One: Life- Chemical, Cellular, and Evolutionary Functions Biology: the science of how life works The scientific method: observations, hypothesis, predictions, experiments, theory Characteristics of living organisms: complex, able to respond to environment, able to reproduce, able to evolve Both earth and the human body are primarily composed of oxygen First law of thermodynamics- energy is not created or destroyed Second law of thermodynamics- entropy (disorder) is increasing in the universe Francisco Redi- used meat in jars with and without lids and covers to demonstrate that life is not spontaneous, it must come from preexisting life Louis Pasteur- used straight and swan necked flasks to demonstrate that the straight neck flask is easier to contaminate even after sterilized Cell: the simplest self-replicating entity that can exist as an independent unit of life Essential Features of a Cell Can store and transmit information Has plasma membrane Can harness energy from the environment Genetic information flows from DNA to RNA to proteins using the central dogma Francis Crick- helped create model of DNA with Watson Plasma membrane protects the inside organelles of the cell from the stuff on the outside of the cell Energy can be harnessed from food or from the sun Viruses aren’t considered living because they can not harness their own energy Evolution- change over time Variation can be genetic (mutation) or environmental (conditional) Nodes indicate a common ancestor in a phylogenetic tree Ecology- the study of how organisms interact with one another and with their environment Chapter Two: The Molecules Of Life Elements- pure substances that can’t be broken down farther Atomic number= number of protons Each orbital can hold two electrons, each shell can hold eight except for the first shell (can hold two) Noble gases do not react Types of bonds: Covalent: two nonmetals, share electrons Polar covalent Hydrogen: hydrogen bonds with N, O, or F Ionic: metal and nonmetal A chemical reaction is the forming and breaking of bonds Water: pH=7 polar good solvent Water is denser than ice! Ice is structures with bonds holding stable Carbon is one of the most important elements of life Carbons can also form double bonds with one another Isomers- same chemical formula, different structures Building blocks of carbon based molecules proteins nucleic acids carbs lipids nitrogen containing bases: Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil Pyrimidines: thymine, cytosine, uracil Purines: Guanine, adenine Nucleic acids are bonded with a sugar phosphate backbone Monosaccharides contain one sugar Disaccharides contain two sugars Polysaccharides contain many sugars Complex carbs are chains of monosaccharides Glycosidic bonds are covalent Lipids are amphipathic (a polar and a nonpolar region in a molecule) Unsaturated fatty acid- one or more double bonds Saturated fatty acid- all single bonds Phospholipids- phosphate group head, fatty acid tail Chapter Three: Nucleic Acids and the Encoding of Biological Information Griffith: Injected mice with different types of bacteria to see what effect they each have on the mice Non-virulent: mouse stays healthy Virulent: mouse dies Killed virulent: mouse stays healthy Killed virulent and non-virulent: mouse dies Replication: copying genetic information from one DNA into another DNA Central dogma: DNA-> Transcription (nucleus)-> RNA -> Translation (cytoplasm) -> Protein Nucleotides contain a phosphate group and a deoxyribose sugar Purines- adenine and guanine Pyrimidenes- thymine and cytosine Adenine and thymine pair by a double bond; cytosine and guanine pair by a triple bond Sugar+base= nucleoside Suger+base+phosphate= nucleotide Nucleotides are ALWAYS added to the 3’ end Chargaff found which bases pair with which %A=%T; %C=%G DNA replication: parental strands give a template for daughter strands to be synthesized; also known as semiconservative replication Chromatin is composed of histones and DNA; histones bind to the DNA RNA is more unstable than DNA DNA vs RNA DNA Deoxyribose A, C, T, G Monophosphate Very large Double strand RNA Ribose A, C, U, G Triphosphate Small Single stranded Initiation and termination factors are needed for transcription RNA polymerase 2 adds nucleotides to 3’ end The polyA tail is added to the 3’ end Chapter Four: Translation and Protein Structure Amino acids consist of: o An amino group o An alpha carbon o A carboxyl group o A side chain o A hydrogen The structure is tetrahedral around the alpha carbon Some amino acids are hydrophobic, and some are hydrophilic, and some are ‘special’ Hydrophobic: o Alanine o Valine o Leucine o Isoleucine o Methionine o Phenylalanine o Tryptophan o Tyrosine Hydrophilic: o Lysine o Arginine o Histidine o Aspartic acid o Glutamic acid o Asparagine o Glutamine o Serine o Threonine Special: o Glycine o Proline o Cysteine Peptide Bonds Contain an N-terminus and a C-terminus Have to undergo a dehydration reaction to form Can have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures Alpha helix and beta sheet= secondary structure Tertiary structures have function Denaturation- loss of structure which results in loss of function Quaternary- proteins that consist of more than one polypeptide Central Dogma: DNA->Transcription->RNA->Translation->Protein Components needed for translation: o Ribosomes o tRNA o Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases o Initiation factors o Elongation factors o Release factors o mRNA Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase binds to one uncharged tRNA and one corresponding amino acid Base pairing in DNA: o Adenine always pairs with thymine o Cytosine always pairs with guanine o There is a full genetic code used to determine which codon matches with which amino acid Process of translation: o Initiation-> elongation-> termination o Initiation factors bind to the 5’ cap o They also bring up tRNA o They scan for the start (AUG) codon o Elongation: codons are added to the existing strand of tRNA o Termination: bond connecting polypeptide to tRNA breaks Chapter Five: Organizing Principles: Lipids, Membranes, and Cell Compartments Robert Hooke- used corks to discover cells Cell Theory: Organisms are all composed of cells Cells are the fundamental unit of life Cells aren’t spontaneously created, they come from preexisting cells o Schleidon, Schwann, and Virchow are credited with the creation of the cell theory Phospholipids Amphipathic: have both polar and nonpolar regions Have a phosphate head and a fatty acid tail Saturated- no double bonds are present Unsaturated- only one double bond present Polyunsaturated- more than one double bond present Cholesterol has an effect on fluidity Integral membrane proteins span entire membrane Peripheral membrane proteins are temporary F.R.A.P- Fluorescence Recovery After Photobleaching Fluid Mosaic Model- lipids and proteins form a ‘mosaic’ in the membrane They move laterally, creating a fluid motion Diffusion- moves from high solute concentration to low solute concentration Passive transport does not require energy Osmosis- water moves from areas of high water concentration to areas of low water concentration The Na+/ K+ pump is an example of an antiporter Primary active transport and secondary active transport require energy to work Hypertonic solution (higher concentration outside): cells shrink Isotonic solution (same inside and out): cells are normal Hypotonic solution (higher concentration inside): cells swell up Very hypotonic solution: cells burst Turgor pressure causes movement of water in plant cells; imperative to the well-being of the plant Prokaryotes No nucleus or organelles Transcription and translation occur in cytoplasm Small in size High surface area to volume ratio Eukaryotes Has nucleus and organelles Transcription occurs in nucleus, translation occurs in cytoplasm Large in size Low surface area to volume ratio Features of an animal cell Nucleus- stores genetic info Mitochondria- produce ATP Plasma membrane- regulates passage of materials into and out of cell Cytoskeleton- provides structure to the cell Endoplasmic reticulum- protein and lipid synthesis Lysosomes- degrade macromolecules Golgi apparatus- modify and sort proteins and lipids Nuclear envelope is used to help with passive diffusion Rough endoplasmic reticulum is covered in ribosomes giving it a roughly textured appearance Clicker Questions Which of the following is part of the scientific method? 1. Predictions 2. Experiments 3. Theory 4. All of the above 5. A and B only A hypothesis becomes a theory when: 1. The results of a single experiment support the hypothesis 2. The hypothesis has been revised many times 3. The results of several experiments do not support the hypothesis 4. The results of several experiments support the hypothesis A water molecule contains what kind of bond? 1. Hydrogen 2. Ionic 3. Polar covalent 4. Van der Waals interactions What is the order of processes that support the central dogma? 1. DNA replication, translation, protein synthesis 2. DNA replication, transcription, translation 3. Transcription, DNA replication, translation 4. DNA replication, translation, transcription Why aren’t nucleosides incorporated into DNA? 1. The bases are not fully assembled 2. The sugar is not in the right form 3. There are no phosphates to make the phosphodiester bonds 4. The peptide bonds won’t form Why do cells store their genetic information as DNA and not RNA? 1. They do store it as RNA 2. Because RNA isn’t stable enough 3. Because there is more information in DNA 4. Because DNA is easier to transport What would happen if an enhancer sequence was mutated so that its binding partner was constitutively bound? 1. No transcription would occur as the site is now blocked to other proteins 2. Transcription wouldn’t change 3. No transcription would occur because the mediator complex could not form 4. Transcription would continuously occur How is it possible that an mRNA could have the correct sequence yet still not be translated appropriately? 1. The 5’ cap was not added 2. The DNA sequence was incorrect 3. The polyA tail was not formed 4. A and C 5. None of the above How might you affect only the secondary structure of a protein? 1. Change the sequence of amino acids 2. Break the ionic bonds between amino acids 3. Break the hydrogen bonds between amino acids 4. Disrupt the interactions between two different polypeptide chains Referring to the following mRNA sequence, agacuuaccgaa, what would the anticodon look like if the second nucleotide of the third codon was mutated to ‘u’? 1. TAG 2. UAG 3. AAC 4. AUG You want to translate a polycistronic bacterial mRNA in eukaryote cells. You remove all but the last stop codon in the bacterial DNA in order to get all of the proteins of the mRNA translated. Can you get a functional protein by this method? 1. Yes 2. No In your synthetic translation reaction, you notice that your protein is only two amino acids long. You’ve checked the sequence of the mRNA and everything appears to be correct. What could be happening in your reaction? 1. The peptide bonds are not forming properly 2. The acceptor site of the ribosome is mutated 3. The DNA is mutated 4. The exit site of the ribosome is mutated You are studying a particular protein, you notice that you can only find it inside the cell when ATP is present. How is the protein moving through the membrane? 1. Diffusion 2. Facilitated diffusion 3. Passive transport 4. Active transport Which way does the water move in a hypotonic environment? 1. Out of the cell 2. Into the cell 3. Stays the same 4. None of the above Why does a phospholipid on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane rarely flip to the extracellular side if both environments are polar? 1. The polar head group cannot pass through the nonpolar interior 2. The two sides have different functions and thus the phospholipid would not function properly 3. The cytoplasmic phospholipid is too big to pass through the membrane 4. The cholesterol does not allow lipids to move In a eukaryotic cell, how does mRNA get out of the nucleus? 1. Diffusion 2. Nuclear pores 3. Endoplasmic reticulum 4. Golgi body Launchpad Chapter One Quiz According to the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure 1.16, the primate most closely related to humans is the: 1. orangutan 2. lemur 3. gorilla 4. chimpanzee 5. gibbon Transcription is the process by which: 1. proteins are synthesized from RNA molecules. 2. RNA is synthesized from protein. 3. proteins are synthesized from DNA molecules. 4. RNA is synthesized from DNA. 5. DNA is synthesized from protein. Translation is the process by which: 1. proteins are synthesized from RNA molecules. 2. RNA is synthesized from protein. 3. proteins are synthesized from DNA molecules. 4. RNA is synthesized from DNA. 5. DNA is synthesized from protein. True or false: observations allow scientists to draw tentative explanations called hypotheses. 1. true 2. false Read the following story. Notice that there are numbers at the end of some of the sentences or at the end of parts of some of the sentences. Refer to these numbers when answering the question below. You get in your car to drive to class. You turn the key and the engine starts making a clicking sound, but does not start (1). You think to yourself, “the battery must be dead (2),” so you go in the garage and borrow the battery from your neighbor’s car (with permission, of course) and exchange it for the one in your car (3). You figure that if the battery in your car is dead and you replace it, then the car will start (4). You get in the car again, turn the key, and the car starts right up and you make it to class on time (5). Which sentence or part of a sentence in the story provides support that the idea about the battery is correct? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 5. none of the above Read the following story. Notice that there are numbers at the end of some of the sentences or at the end of parts of some of the sentences. Refer to these numbers when answering the question below. You get in your car to drive to class. You turn the key and the engine starts making a clicking sound, but does not start (1). You think to yourself, “the battery must be dead (2),” so you go in the garage and borrow the battery from your neighbor’s car (with permission, of course) and exchange it for the one in your car (3). You figure that if the battery in your car is dead and you replace it, then the car will start (4). You get in the car again, turn the key, and the car starts right up and you make it to class on time (5). Which sentence or part of a sentence in the story is an experiment? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. none of the above True or false: mutations always result in the death of the organism which acquires them. 1. true 2. false Read the following story. Notice that there are numbers at the end of some of the sentences or at the end of parts of some of the sentences. Refer to these numbers when answering the question below. You get in your car to drive to class. You turn the key and the engine starts making a clicking sound, but does not start (1). You think to yourself, “the battery must be dead (2),” so you go in the garage and borrow the battery from your neighbor’s car (with permission, of course) and exchange it for the one in your car (3). You figure that if the battery in your car is dead and you replace it, then the car will start (4). You get in the car again, turn the key, and the car starts right up and you make it to class on time (5). Which sentence or part of a sentence in the story is a hypothesis? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. none of the above To truly begin to understand nature, we must study and understand: 1. molecules 2. cells 3. organisms 4. ecosystems 5. The study of nature requires an integrated approach that considers molecules, cells, organisms, and ecosystems. The ostrich egg shown in Figure 1.11 is composed of approximately how many cells? 1. 1 2. 100 3. 10,000 4. 1,000,000 5. 100,000,000 Chapter Two Learning Curve Which one of the following elements is likely to form exactly three non-ionic interactions with hydrogen? 1. phosphorus 2. oxygen 3. chlorine 4. carbon 5. sulfur A woman's doctor tells her to gargle with salt water. She stirs a tablespoon of salt into a cup of warm water, and watches it dissolve. Why does the salt dissolve in water? 1. The positive hydrogen atoms in water molecules are attracted to chlorine ions. 2. The negative oxygen atoms in water molecules are attracted to sodium ions. 3. The negative oxygen atoms in water molecules are attracted to chlorine ions. 4. The positive hydrogen atoms in water molecules are attracted to sodium ions. 5. The positive hydrogen atoms in water molecules are attracted to chlorine ions, and the negative oxygen atoms in water molecules are attracted to sodium ions. Water is neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic, as these terms only define the interaction of other molecules with water molecules. 1. True 2. False Where would the highest-energy electron be found in an atom of hydrogen? 1. in the second spherical orbital 2. in the dumbbell-shaped orbital of the y axis 3. in the dumbbell-shaped orbital of the z axis 4. in the spherical orbital closest to the nucleus 5. in the dumbbell-shaped orbital of the x axis Which of the following is an example of a hydrogen bond? 1. the bond that forms between two hydrogen atoms within the same water molecule 2. the bond that forms between hydrogen and oxygen atoms within different water molecules 3. the bond that forms between a hydrogen and oxygen atom within the same water molecule 4. the bond that forms between two hydrogen atoms within different water molecules 5. the bond that forms between two oxygen atoms within different water molecules Chapter Three Learning Curve Arrange the following in order from smallest to largest. 1. Gene, nucleotide, genome, nucleoside 2. Genome, gene, nucleotide, nucleoside 3. Nucleoside, nucleotide, gene, genome 4. Nucleotide, nucleoside, gene, genome 5. Nucleoside, nucleotide, genome, gene The strands in a double helix of DNA are: 1. antiparallel 2. complementary 3. held together via hydrogen bonds 4. wound around each other with 10 base pairs per turn 5. All of the above accurately describe the strands in a double helix of DNA. Which of the following statements is true regarding Frederick Griffith's experiments? 1. He demonstrated that proteins serve at the genetic/hereditary material. 2. He demonstrated that DNA serves as the genetic/hereditary material. 3. He demonstrated that (only) dead virulent bacteria cause pneumonia in mice. 4. His experiments relied on RNase and DNase to identify the genetic/hereditary material. 5. None of the above. Why was protein originally thought to be the genetic information storage molecule instead of DNA? 1. there are more building blocks for protein than there are for DNA, proteins have a wider variety of three-dimensional shapes than DNA, and proteins carry out a great range of cellular functions 2. Proteins carry out a great range of cellular functions. 3. Proteins have a wider variety of three-dimensional shapes than DNA. 4. There are more building blocks for protein than there are for DNA. Which one of the following is not a way in which RNA differs from DNA? 1. RNA has uracil as one of its bases; DNA has thymine. 2. RNAs are typically single-stranded; DNA is double-stranded. 3. RNA nucleotides can possess only a single phosphate group; DNA nucleotides have one, two, or three phosphate groups. 4. The sugar component of RNA nucleotides is ribose; the sugar component of DNA nucleotides is deoxyribose. 5. RNA molecules are usually much shorter than DNA molecules. No exceptions to the central dogma exist. RNA is always transcribed from DNA, and RNA is translated to produce proteins. 1. True 2. false Chapter Four Launchpad Questions Which one of the following amino acids is most likely to participate in hydrogen bonding with water? 1. Alanine 2. Asparagine 3. Leucine 4. Phenylalanine 5. Valine Use the double-stranded DNA molecule below to answer the following question. The first pair of nucleotides (circled) is the start point of transcription. Which of the following is the correct mRNA produced from the transcription of this DNA molecule? 1. 5'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-3' 2. 3'-AUGAUCGGAUCGAUCCAU-5' 3. 5'-UACUAGCCUAGCUAGGUA-3' 4. 3'-UACUAGCCUAGCUAGGUA-5' Which one of the following would least likely be used during the initiation phase of translation? 1. Elongation factors 2. tRNA 3. Small ribosomal subunits 4. Initiation factors 5. mRNA Which one of the following amino acids has its R-group covalently linked to the amino group of the amino acid? 1. Glycine 2. Serine 3. Cysteine 4. Glutamic acid 5. Proline The three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the primary, secondary, tertiary, and in many cases, the quaternary structure of the protein. The following sentence is taken from scientific articles on protein structure. Choose the level of protein structure that applies best to the sentence. "Disulfide bonds formed between cysteines stabilize the overall structure of this protein isolated from the bacterium." 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Tertiary 4. Quaternary The three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the primary, secondary, tertiary, and in many cases, the quaternary structure of the protein. The following sentence is taken from scientific articles on protein structure. Choose the level of protein structure that applies best to the sentence. "Hydrogen bonds between peptide backbone components form a distinct helical structure." 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Tertiary 4. Quaternary Alpha helices are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids that are ______ residues apart. 1. 2 2. 4 3. 10 4. 20 5. 100 Which one of the following cellular processes occurs in the nucleus of a eukaryote? 1. Transcription 2. RNA processing 3. Translation 4. Transcription and RNA processing 5. All of these choices are correct. The three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the primary, secondary, tertiary, and in many cases, the quaternary structure of the protein. The following sentence is taken from scientific articles on protein structure. Choose the level of protein structure that applies best to the sentence. "Hydrogen bonds between peptide 'backbone' amino groups and carboxyl groups of one polypeptide and the R-groups of another polypeptide, contribute to the overall function of the protein." 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Tertiary 4. Quaternary rRNAs are transcribed in the: 1. cytoplasm. 2. nucleus. 3. nucleolus. 4. mitochondria. 5. endoplasmic reticulum. Some amino acids are coded by as many as six different codons. Which of the following amino acids fall into this category? (More than one answer may be correct.) 1. methionine 2. tyrosine 3. tryptophan 4. serine 5. leucine Use the double-stranded DNA molecule below to answer the following question. The first pair of nucleotides (circled) is the start point of transcription. Which of the following is the correct polypeptide assembled by the translation of the mRNA produced by the transcription of this DNA molecule? 1. amino end - Met-Ile-Gly-Ser-Ile-His - carboxyl end 2. amino end - Tyr-Leu-Ala-Arg-Lue-Val - carboxyl end 3. carboxyl end - Met-Ile-Gly-Ser-Ile-His - amino end 4. carboxyl end - Tyr-Leu-Ala-Arg-Lue-Val - amino end Some amino acids are coded by just one codon. Which of the following amino acids fall into this category? (More than one answer may be correct.) 1. methionine 2. tyrosine 3. tryptophan 4. serine 5. leucine Which one of the following codons is capable of terminating translation? 1. UAG 2. UAA 3. UGA 4. UAG and UAA 5. All of these choices are correct. Which one of the following is a critical region of a tRNA molecule? 1. Amino acid attachment site 2. Anticodon loop 3. Stop codon 4. Amino acid attachment site and anticodon loop 5. All of these choices are correct. Chapter Five Launchpad Questions In which of the following can protein synthesis occur in eukaryotes? Select all correct choices. 1. the nucleus 2. the cytoplasm 3. the rough endoplasmic reticulum Specific types of lipids assemble into defined areas of a biological membrane referred to as: 1. cholesterol plugs. 2. lipid rafts. 3. biomembrane aggregation regions (BARs). 4. sphingopatches. 5. plaques. Which of the following accurately describes the path travelled by a new protein as it is synthesized and released from the cell? 1. plasma membrane → ER → transport vesicle → Golgi → cytosol → external environment 2. cytosol → ER → Golgi → transport vesicle → plasma membrane → external environment 3. nuclear envelope → ER → transport vesicle → Golgi → plasma membrane → external environment RNA molecules are transported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in eukaryotes through: 1. budding off of the nuclear envelope. 2. aquaporins. 3. nuclear pore complexes. 4. passive diffusion. 5. sodium/potassium channels. The sodium/potassium pump is an example of: 1. an antiporter. 2. a symporter. 3. None of these choices is correct. 4. passive transport. 5. channel-mediated diffusion. The process of a vesicle fusing with the plasma membrane and depositing its contents into the extracellular space is most specifically referred to as: 1. active transport. 2. budding. 3. bridging. 4. endocytosis. 5. exocytosis. Complete the matching exercise below by choosing the correct overall function for mitochondria and chloroplasts. 1. Mitochondria- Synthesize ATP for energy use. 2. Chloroplasts- Use the energy in sunlight to make simple sugars. Which of the following molecules would most likely require a transport protein to cross the plasma membrane of a red blood cell? 1. O2 2. H2O 3. C6H12O6 4. CO2 Complete the matching exercise below by choosing whether mitochondria are present in the following organisms. 1. Plants- Yes 2. Animals- Yes 3. Bacteria- No The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is referred to as osmosis. Which of the following best describes the hydrophilic component of cholesterol? 1. a group of four planar rings and a hydroxyl group 2. a hydroxyl group only 3. a single hydrocarbon tail 4. a phosphate group and a chemical group called choline 5. a phosphate group only Which of the following would be considered an integral membrane protein? 1. a protein with its N-terminus in the cytoplasm and its C-terminus in the extracellular space 2. a protein attached to a phospholipid via ionic bonding with the head group of the lipid molecule 3. a protein attached to a transmembrane protein via hydrogen bonding 4. a protein capable of diffusing throughout the cytoplasm of a cell You are investigating a particular cell type, and you notice that a protein normally found in the lysosome ends up being secreted from the cell. This appears to be the only thing wrong with these cells. Of the following conditions, which is the most likely cause of this defect in these cells? 1. Transport vesicles responsible for sorting in the cell are defective. 2. The lysosome leaks the protein out of the cell. 3. The pH of the lysosome is not low enough for the protein to remain in it. 4. The signal sequence on the lysosomal protein is defective. Which one of the following would be least likely to cross a lipid bilayer? 1. N2 2. H2O 3. CO2 4. ATP 5. O2 Complete the matching exercise below by choosing whether chloroplasts are present in the following organisms. 1. Plants- Yes 2. Animals- No 3. Bacteria- No Chapter Six: Making Life Work: Capturing and Using Energy Requirements of the cell Able to transmit and encode information Membrane to separate inside from out Energy Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) ‘currency’ of cells Energy source Cellular cash Metabolism Building and breaking of carbon sources to obtain or release energy Energy is a system’s ability to do work Kinetic- energy of motion Potential- energy while at rest First Law of Thermodynamics Energy can’t be created or destroyed; it can only change form Second Law of Thermodynamics Entropy (randomness/ disorder) is increasing in the universe Gibbs Free Energy deltaG Equal to the amount of energy released or used in a reaction deltaG= deltaH – (temperature)*(deltaS) ATP hydrolysis has negative deltaG If negative, energy is released; if positive, energy is used Enzymes have active sites to bind to substrates Inhibitors can be competitive or noncompetitive Competitive- enzyme binds to either the substrate or inhibitor Noncompetitive- changes the rate of reaction (decrease) Negative and positive feedback help to maintain homeostasis Chapter Seven: Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Energy From Carbohydrates and Other Fuel Molecules Cellular Respiration Breakdown carbs, lipids and proteins Release energy Stages: o Glycolysis- takes place in cytoplasm o Acetyl- CoA synthesis- takes place in cytoplasm o Citric Acid Cycle- takes place in mitochondria o Oxidative Phosphorylation- takes place in mitochondria Reduction: gain of electrons, more negative charge Oxidation: loss of electrons, less negative charge Glycolysis Phase one- consume 2 ATP Phase two- cleave 6- carbon sugar to two 3- carbon sugars Phase three- produce 4 ATP and 2 NADH 2 ATP= net gain of ATP (4 created but 2 were used in phase one) 2 NADH created Mitochondria Space between membranes is the intermembrane space Space inside inner membrane is mitochondrial matrix Acetyl- CoA Synthesis Converts one pyruvate into Acetyl- CoA Citric Acid Cycle Starts with Acetyl- CoA, ends with 2 ATP, 6 NADH, and 2 FADH2 Electron Transport Chain (ETC) Three different ones Last electron receptor is oxygen Fermentation Uses glucose, ADP, and Pi to create ethanol, ATP, H2O and CO (ethanol) Uses glucose, ADP, and Pi to create lactic acid, ATP and H2O (lactic acid) Monosaccharides: galactose, fructose, mannose Polysaccharides: lactose, maltose, sucrose Chapter Eight: Phtosynthesis Photosynthesis: building carbs from sunlight and CO2 H2O is oxidized O2 comes from CO2 Takes place in chloroplast Calvin Cycle Uses CO2 to create carbs Chlorophyll uses light absorption to transfer energy to a nearby chlorophyll There are two photosystems; PS1 and PS2; PS2 comes first Z scheme; named for its z-shape Electron transport can be cyclic Reactive oxygen species: antioxidants, xanthophylls Photorespiration Oxygenation- Rubisco adds oxygen to RuBP CO2 loss- CO2 leaves 60% of light is unusable for photosynthesis; not very efficient Chapter Nine: Cell Communication Communication requires: Ligand/ signaling molecule Bacterial cell Receptor Also Essential: Signaling cell Signaling molecule Receptor cell Receptor molecule Signaling cell releases signals, receptors of responding cell binds the signaling molecule Receptor Activation (ECF)-> Signal Transduction (cytoplasm)-> Response (cytoplasm)- > Termination (cytoplasm) Types of Signaling: Endocrine- signal moves through circulatory system Paracrine- Binds to signal from another cell; close proximity Autocrine- binds to its own signal Juxtacrine- cells must be touching Ligand- signaling molecule Ligand-binding site- part of receptor where ligand binds There are cell- surface receptors and intracellular receptors Receptors can be turned on and off Three types of cell surface receptors G protein- coupled receptors Receptor kinases Ligand-gated ion channels Adrenaline signals can be amplified Cell signaling and cancer Increased receptors Altered signaling molecule Ras mutations Integration of Signaling Pathways Effects could be: o Simple/ Complex o Dependent on cell type o Integrated Clicker Questions Energy (ATP) input is needed in which of the following processes? a) Catabolism b) Anabolism Why does ADP have less potential energy than ATP? a) Because ATP has ribose as a sugar b) Because ADP has only one phosphate group c) Because ADP has only two phosphate groups d) Because ATP has adenine in it You notice that a chemical reaction in your system is happening at a slow rate. You want to speed up the reaction. What do you do? a) Add more products b) Change the deltaG for the reaction c) Add an enzyme d) Raise the activation energy How might an inhibitor inhibit an enzyme without binding to the active? a) Through competitive inhibition b) Through non-competitive inhibition c) By lowering the activation energy d) By changing the shape of the substrate Are electrons lost or gained in reduction? a) Lost b) Gained What glycolysis product is transported into the mitochondria? a) ATP b) NADP c) Pyruvate d) Glucose What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain? a) Glucose b) Oxygen c) ATP d) ADP What would happen if complexes I-IV of the electron transport chain pumped protons in the opposite direction? a) No ATP would be synthesized b) Too much ATP would be synthesized c) There would be too many electrons in the mitochondrial matrix d) None of the above Why is the absorption of light much more efficient in the plant itself as opposed to an isolated chlorophyll molecule in the lab? a) Because the plant produces accessory proteins b) Because an artificial light source is used in the lab c) Because in the plant, the energy is transferred to another chlorophyll d) Because the lab has a higher electron supply Which molecule is oxidized in the photosynthetic reaction? a) CO2 b) H2O c) C6H12O6 d) Sunlight How does the plant cell protect itself from high-energy electrons? a) Increases the amount of NADP b) Decreases the production of ATP c) Shunt the electrons into cyclic electron transport d) Increase the amount of electrons donated to ferredoxin What is the initial carbon input in the Calvin Cycle? a) C6H12O6 b) Triose phosphate c) CO2 d) Rubisco To have communication between cells you must have a: a) Receptor b) Signaling molecule c) Responding cell d) All of the above Why doesn’t paracrine signaling activate the cell that’s producing the signaling molecule? a) The concentration of the signaling molecule is not high enough b) The cells are too far c) The cell does not have the proper receptor d) The cells receptors are mutated You strip off any proteins on the cell surface by using a protease (enzyme that cleaves proteins). Now when you add a specific signaling molecule, the cell still responds. Why is that? a) The signaling molecule doesn’t need a receptor b) The signaling molecule is polar and can diffuse in c) The receptor is on the interior of the cell d) The signaling molecule goes right to the nucleus How would the signal of a G protein- coupled receptor, without ligand, be affected if you made an enzyme that converted GDP to GTP constitutively? a) It wouldn’t be affected; there is no ligand, thus no signal b) It wouldn’t be affected; the ligand would be unable to bind due to the conformational change c) The G protein would be active but unable to signal due to lack of ligand d) The G protein would be active and signaling despite the lack of ligand Which type of receptor needs an accessory protein to signal? a) G protein- coupled receptor b) Receptor kinase c) Ligand- gated ion channel d) None of the above In your experimental system you create a cell that has a mutation in its receptor. When you overexpress the cell’s signaling molecule, nothing happens. What is this cell defective in? a) Endocrine signaling b) Juxtacrine signaling c) Paracrine signaling d) Autocrine signaling Chapter Six Launchpad Quiz True or False: an uncatalyzed reaction has a higher ΔG than the same reaction when catalyzed by an enzyme. a) true b) false Suppose you use a match to ignite a sheet of paper from your notebook, and allow the fire to continue until the burning stops. If you could measure all the energy in the resulting combustion products, and all the energy in the heat released (including whatever increase in disorder has occurred), would you predict this amount to be more than, less than, or the same amount as the amount of potential energy in the starting sheet of paper? (You should ignore the activation energy provided by the match to light the paper.) a) more energy than the paper b) less energy than the paper c) the same energy as the paper True or False: an anabolic reaction decreases entropy within the system because the reaction results in a more ordered macromolecule. a) true b) false Which one of the following statements describes the relationship between β- galactosidase and β-thiogalactoside? a) They are synonyms for the same molecule. b) β-galactosidase cleaves β-thiogalactoside. c) β-galactosidase is a precursor for synthesizing β-thiogalactoside. d) β-thiogalactoside is a precursor for synthesizing β-galactosidase. e) β-galactosidase binds to β-thiogalactoside but is unable to cleave it. Lactose is composed of ____________ joined by a ____________ linkage. a) glucose and galactose; glycosidic b) two glucoses; peptide c) glucose and fructose; glycosidic d) two amino acids; peptide e) two galactoses; glycosidic Animals such as humans would be classified as: a) photoautotrophs. b) photoheterotrophs. c) chemoautotrophs. d) chemoheterotrophs. ATP is chemically related most closely to which of the following? a) glucose b) testosterone c) phospholipid d) thymine nucleotide e) tryptophan amino acid True or False: a cellular reaction with a ΔG of 8.5 kcal/mol could be effectively coupled to the hydrolysis of a single molecule of ATP. a) true b) false Autotrophs typically obtain their carbon from: a) C6H12O6 b) ATP c) CO2 d) CH4 e) CH3OH Which of the following statements is NOT one of the laws of thermodynamics? a) All cells arise from pre-existing cells. b) The amount of energy in the universe is constant. c) The energy available to do work decreases as energy is transferred from one form to another. d) None of the statements in these choices is a law of thermodynamics. The energy of activation of a reaction is: a) the net change in free energy. b) the difference in energy between substrate and product. c) the energy input needed to reach the transition state. d) the difference in energy between the transition state and the product. e) equivalent to the ΔG of ATP hydrolysis. True or False: a given enzyme in a pathway can be activated by one molecule or inhibited by a different molecule. a) true b) false Which of the following reactions is most likely to be exergonic? a) the synthesis of a phospholipid from glycerol and fatty acids b) the replication of DNA from free nucleotides c) the formation of cellulose from individual glucose molecules d) the digestion of protein from food into amino acids The assembly of glucose into polysaccharides is: a) an anabolic process. b) a catabolic process. Which one of the following is an example of potential energy? a) a moving muscle b) light c) heat d) an electrochemical gradient e) wind Chapter Seven Launchpad Questions Complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 involves two different mechanisms for synthesizing ATP, oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation. Which is true of substrate-level phosphorylation? a) An enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to ADP from an organic molecule to form ATP. b) Most of the ATP generated in cellular respiration is generated by substrate-level phosphorylation. c) ATP is generated indirectly through the transfer of high-energy electrons from electron carriers to an electron transport chain. d) ATP is generated by release of energy from the electron carriers NADH and FADH2. The citric acid cycle begins when acetyl-CoA combines with ____________ to form ____________. a) pyruvate; citrate b) malate; oxaloacetate c) oxaloacetate; malate d) oxaloacetate; citrate e) citrate; cis-aconitate In eukaryotic cells, the oxidation of pyruvate occurs in: a) the cytoplasm. b) the nucleus. c) the matrix of the mitochondria. d) the endoplasmic reticulum. e) vacuoles. How many reactions in glycolysis directly generate ATP? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 What happens to pyruvate during the process of fermentation? a) It is oxidized to ethanol. b) It is reduced to ethanol. c) It is converted to acetyl Co-A. d) It is oxidized to lactic acid. e) It gets converted to pyruvic acid. Each round of the citric acid cycle begins when the 4-carbon molecule oxaloacetate is converted to the 6-carbon molecule citrate. As the cycle progresses, two carbons are eliminated to regenerate the oxaloacetate. The added carbon is supplied by ____________ and the two eliminated carbons are released as ____________. a) ATP; acetyl-CoA b) CO2; pyruvate c) acetyl-CoA; CO2 d) CO2; NADH e) CO2; acetyl-CoA Glycogen stored in muscles can be “mobilized” to supply metabolic energy by hydrolyzing individual glucose subunits from the polymer. What other organ has a major function of storing glycogen? a) liver b) brain c) stomach d) large intestine The approximate yield of ATP from the full oxidation of a molecule of glucose is: a) 2 b) 6 c) 12 d) 32 e) 64 True or False: fats are not an animal’s primary source of energy because some tissue types like brain tissue use glucose exclusively. a) true b) false Certain complexes of the mitochondrial electron transport chain pump protons. Which of the following best describes the movement of protons in this situation? a) across the outer mitochondrial membrane, from the cytoplasm to the intermembrane space b) across the outer mitochondrial membrane, from the intermembrane space to the cytoplasm c) across the inner mitochondrial membrane, from the intermembrane space to the matrix d) across the inner mitochondrial membrane, from the matrix to the intermembrane space Which regulatory mechanism is important in keeping glycolysis and the citric acid cycle in relative balance to each other? a) Citrate inhibits phosphofructokinase 1. b) ADP up-regulates phosphofructokinase 1. c) ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase 1. d) AMP inhibits phosphofructokinase 1. PFK-1 is ___________ by ATP and ____________ by ADP. a) activated; activated b) activated; inhibited c) inhibited; activated d) inhibited; inhibited The pH in the intermembrane space of the mitochondria should be ____________ compared to the matrix due to the ____________. a) lower; higher concentration of H+ in the intermembrane space b) higher; higher concentration of H+ in the intermembrane space c) higher; lower concentration of H+ in the intermembrane space d) lower; lower concentration of H+ in the intermembrane space Which one of the following is a monosaccharide and not a disaccharide? a) lactose b) fructose c) sucrose d) maltose e) None of these sugars is a monosaccharide. In human cells such as muscle tissue, the product of anaerobic respiration is: a) acetic acid. b) pyruvate. c) lactic acid. d) FADH2. e) ethanol. Chapter Eight Learning Curve In plants and algae, __________ is the source of the electrons needed for photosynthesis. a) O2 b) H2O c) CO2 d) NADPH e) H+ Which of the following compounds is consumed by carboxylation? a) ATP b) NADPH c) ATP and NADPH d) RuBP e) 3-PGA ATP production requires __________. a) light b) electrons c) protons d) light and protons e) light, electrons, and protons Reactive oxygen species are detoxified in order to __________. a) recover electrons b) minimize damage to membranes c) enhance linear electron transport d) enhance cyclic electron transport e) All answer options are correct. Prokaryotes account for roughly half of terrestrial photosynthesis. a) False b) True The products of the Calvin cycle are 3-carbon sugars. a) True b) False The Z scheme refers to __________. a) the path of electrons between PSII and cytochrome b6f b) the energy inputs associated with electron transport c) the use of H2O as an electron source d) electron transport e) proton translocation Photorespiration occurs because __________. a) rubisco is a selective catalyst b) there is more O2 than CO2 in the atmosphere c) rubisco is a slow catalyst d) there is more O2 than CO2 and rubisco is a slow catalyst e) there is more O2 than CO2 and rubisco is a selective catalyst In plants and algae, which of the following is a by-product of photosynthesis? a) C6H12O6 b) CO2 c) O2 d) H+ e) H2O In the Calvin cycle, NADPH is __________. a) oxidized b) reduced c) phosphorylated d) oxidized and reduced e) None of the answer options is correct. Cyclic electron transport enhances ATP production because __________. a) proton translocation decreases b) electrons are transferred from ferredoxin to plastoquinone c) cyclic electron transport is more energy-efficient than linear electron transport d) ADP production increases e) PSI pumps more protons The occurrence of photorespiration __________ CO2 and __________ ATP. a) oxidizes; produces b) produces; produces c) reduces; produces d) consumes; consumes e) produces; consumes Eukaryotes conduct all of the photosynthesis that occurs in the ocean. a) True b) False Which of the following are Rubisco substrates? a) RuBP b) O2 c) CO2 d) CO2, O2, and RuBP e) CO2 and RuBP PSII and PSI differ in __________. a) H+ production, and electron donors and acceptors b) H+ production and electron donors c) H+ production d) electron donors and acceptors e) plants and algae Over evolutionary time, photosynthesis has effectively poisoned itself by producing an oxygenic atmosphere because __________. a) rubisco is an oxygenase and O2 is a strong oxidant b) rubisco is an oxygenase c) O2 is a strong oxidant d) rubisco is a carboxylase e) rubisco is an oxygenase and O2 is a strong reductant Organisms with only one photosystem cannot __________. a) produce O2 b) reduce H2O c) oxidize H2S d) reduce NADP+ e) reduce CO2 The Calvin cycle includes 15 enzymes, most of which are involved in __________. a) RuBP regeneration b) RuBP carboxylation c) reduction d) starch synthesis e) ATP synthesis Which of the following is at the highest energy level? a) A reaction center chlorophyll that has received the energy from a blue- light photon b) A reaction center chlorophyll that has received the energy from a red-light photon c) A reaction center chlorophyll that has received the energy from a green-light photon Which of the following lowers the efficiency of plants' conversion of sunlight into chemical energy? a) UV light and O2 b) O2 and heat dissipation c) UV light, O2, and heat dissipation d) UV light e) UV light and heat dissipation During photosynthesis in plants and algae, __________ is oxidized and __________ is reduced. a) CO2; H2O b) O2; CO2 c) NADPH; ATP d) H2O; O2 e) H2O; CO2 For every six CO2 molecules fixed, how many triose phosphates are exported from the chloroplast? a) 2 b) 10 c) 6 d) 12 e) 1 Antennae accompany reaction centers, promoting __________. a) heat loss b) H+ transfer c) energy transfer d) fluorescence e) electron transfer The Calvin cycle is a relatively constant process, the rate of which is independent of factors such as temperature and nitrogen concentration. a) True b) False Chapter Nine Learning Curve Many pathologies are the result of a problem with cell signaling. Which of the following pathologies best exemplifies this fact? a) Cancer, caused by a truncated receptor that is now stuck in the activated form. b) Cystic fibrosis, where there is a mutation in a channel protein, resulting in a buildup of mucus. c) Congestive heart failure, caused by chronic high blood pressure due to excessive sodium intake. d) Familial hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol in the blood), caused by a decrease in the number of receptors for cholesterol. Why don't steroid hormones bind to transmembrane cell-surface receptors? a) Steroid hormones are not signaling molecules. b) Steroid hormones are nonpolar and will cross the cell's plasma membrane, binding to receptors inside the cell. c) Steroid hormones don't require receptors because they bind directly to the cell's DNA. d) Steroid hormones are nonpolar and therefore cannot bind to receptors. Which one of the following initiates signal termination? a) the shut down of transcription b) the release of signal molecules from their receptors c) the shut down of translation d) the reduction of signal amplification What does a ligand-gated channel do? a) It binds small, nonpolar signaling molecules. b) It activates a G protein. c) It allows for the movement of ions across the plasma membrane. d) It triggers the activity of a phosphatase. Based on the data provided in the two graphs shown in Fig. 9.5, which method of culturing resulted in the greatest number of fibroblast cells on day 6? a) fibroblasts cultured with plasma b) fibroblasts cultured with platelet proteins c) fibroblasts cultured with serum d) The same results are obtained whether the fibroblasts are cultured with serum or with platelet proteins. Which of the following signaling molecules would you expect to travel the longest distance in the human body? a) PDGF b) testosterone c) Delta d) neurotransmitters e) Notch What is the likely cellular response to ligand binding to a steroid receptor located in the nucleus? a) activation of a kinase b) alteration in ion transport c) a change in gene expression d) initiation of a signal-transduction pathway Cell signaling between two nerve cells is an example of paracrine signaling because: a) a signaling molecule (neurotransmitter) is released. b) the cells are in close proximity. c) a receptor is activated. d) the responding cell releases more signaling molecule (neurotransmitter). To what does the term ligand refer? a) a signaling molecule b) the extracellular domain of a receptor protein c) a type of gated channel d) the proteins activated as part of a signal transduction pathway Notch and Delta are both transmembrane proteins involved in cell communication in the developing nervous system of vertebrate animals. What makes Notch different from Delta? a) Notch is a receptor and Delta is a signaling molecule. b) Notch is a signaling molecule and Delta is a receptor. c) Notch is required at higher density than Delta to alter cell fate. d) All of the above statements are correct. Chapter Ten: Cell Form and Function Tissue: collection of cells that work together to perform a function Organ: two or more tissues that come together to perform a function Microtubules Made of tubulin dimers Hollow tube Microfilaments Made of actin monomers Double helix Cilia and flagella are examples Intermediate filaments Strong fiber made of intermediate filament proteins Defects in this can cause epidermolysis bullosa- skin is far less resistant to physical stress If found where don’t belong (in lymph nodes), can cause cancer Types of cellular movement Cell movement itself Change in shape Movement of objects within Muscle contraction: myosin changes and actin filaments are slid relative to myosin, resulting in shortening of the muscle cell Microtubules contain doublets in a 9+2 arrangement Cell Adhesion How cells stick together or to other things Adherins junctions use cadherins to stick to microfilaments Desmosomes use cadherins to stick to intermediate filaments Hemidesmosomes use integrins to stick to intermediate filaments Gap junctions are used to pass a molecule from one cell to another Extracellular matrix (plants) Cell wall o Middle lamina o Primary cell wall o Secondary cell wall Chapter Eleven: Cell Division Mitosis Creates two daughter cells All cells are genetically identical Daughter cells are diploid Cell division: process where one cell becomes two daughter cells Binary fission: how prokaryotic cells divide Mitosis and cytokinesis: how eukaryotic cells divide Cell cycle in Eukaryotes G0 phase- interphase; “gap” phase; not actively dividing G1 phase- interphase; gap 1 S phase- interphase; DNA synthesis G2 phase- interphase; gap 2; getting ready for mitosis M phase- mitosis and cytokinesis; cell divides Mitotic spindles are made up of microtubules Stages of mitosis: Prophase o Chromosomes condense (tightly wound) Prometaphase o Microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to chromosomes o Nuclear envelope starts to break down Metaphase o Chromosomes align in center of cell Anaphase o Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles Telophase o Nuclear envelope reforms o Chromosomes decondense Cytokinesis o Physical cell split into two cells o Separation and reformation of cell membranes Kinetochore: protein dense region on centromere Meiosis Creates four daughter cells Each daughter cell is a haploid (23 chromosomes) Cells are genetically unique Creation of gametes Two separate processes (meiosis 1 and meiosis 2) Meiosis 1- first round of nuclear division DNA duplicated once, cell divides twice Chiasmata- site of crossing over Crossing over- mix of genetic information resulting in genetic diversity among cells Female gametes are created before birth using meiosis Male gametes are created all throughout life using meiosis CDK- cyclin dependent kinase Kinases phosphorylate proteins Inhibiting CDK stops cell cycle progression; wouldn’t make it to S phase DNA damage checkpoint- check for damage to CDK and p53 Cancer Oncogene: cancer causing gene Proto-oncogenes: normal genes that could become cancerous if mutated Tumor supressors: work to prevent tumors from forming or growing, p53 and p21 Chapter Twelve: DNA Replication and Manipulation DNA Replication Two strands of DNA separate and become parent strands Parent strands serve as templates for creation of new daughter strands Bases are paired A-T and G-C Can be conservative or semiconservative In replication, DNA is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ end Can be continuous or discontinuous replication Proofreading is done after synthesis to ensure that the DNA was translated correctly. If not, it is changed Replication requires: Parent strand DNA polymerase Topoisomerase Helicase Nucleotide bases Replication of circular DNA: starts at origin and moves around the chromosome in both directions Telomerase- lengthens DNA that was previously shortened in DNA replication DNA manipulation PCR- polymerase chain reactions o Amplifies a sequence of DNA o Heated to separate DNA into two strands (denaturation) o Cooled to allow primers to anneal to their complimentary sequence (annealing) o DNA polymerase creates two new DNA strands in the 5’ to 3’ direction (extension) o Requires a template DNA, DNA polymerase, the four nucleotide bases (A,C,T,G) and two primers o Taq polymerase used since it can survive and function at high temperatures Gel Electrophoresis o Samples are loaded into wells in the gel o DNA moves toward positive side; smaller fragments move farther than larger ones Restriction Digests/ Enzymes o Cleave DNA Southern Blots o Restriction enzyme added o Gel electrophoresis o Denature DNA and blotted onto filter paper o Filter paper is removed after blotting o Paper is put in bag containing solution with single stranded probe and probe sticks to complimentary fragments o Filter paper is exposed to x-ray film and the films over each band are darkened Sanger Sequencing o Label nucleotides with fluorescent dyes o Try to find sequence of daughter strand to determine sequence of parent strand Recombinant DNA- similar to crossing over; DNA is cleaved and removed so new DNA can be added in its place Clicker Questions What would happen to the microfilaments in a cell if the process of dynamic instability were interrupted so that only polymerization continued? a) There would not be continued growth b) At the migrating edge the microfilaments would grow in one direction and remain growing in that direction c) The centrosome would not develop normally d) The cell would have no mechanical strength What would happen in a cell if its A-tubulin was mutated and unable to bind to its B- tubulin? a) The cell would have no microfilaments b) The cell would have no microtubules c) The cell would be unaffected d) The cell would have no intermediate filaments What would happen to a cell that depends on flagellar movement if it had no actin? a) The cell would not be able to move because the cilia would also be affected b) The cell would not be able to move c) Nothing; the cell would still be able to move d) The cell would move by cilia and not flagella A mutation acquired by a bacterium will most likely be inherited by all daughter cells. a) True b) False What would happen during cell division if the cell was deficient in actin? a) The sister chromatids would not separate b) The mitotic spindle would not form c) The cell would not divide d) The centromeres would remain unattached Mitosis most likely evolved from what process? a) Meiosis b) The cell cycle c) Cytokinesis d) Binary fission Why does meiosis result in more genetic variation than can be explained by mutation alone? a) Meiosis II b) The egg and sperm have more chromosomes c) Crossing over d) Not all of the DNA gets replicated At the end of mitosis the daughter cells are ________________, whereas at the end of meiosis the daughter cells are _________________. a) Haploid; diploid b) Diploid; haploid c) Diploid; polyploid d) Polyploid; haploid What would happen to a cell if cyclin was constitutively made? a) Cell cycle proteins would be constitutively phosphorylated b) Cyclin- dependent kinases would be constitutively activated c) The cell would divide rapidly d) All of the above During the process of PCR, that is equivalent to helicase? a) dNTPs b) heat c) polymerase d) oligonucleotides Gel electrophoresis can distinguish between: a) the sequence of DNA fragments b) the charge of DNA fragments c) the size of DNA fragments Closely related DNA sequences will renature at higher temperatures than sequences that are not closely related. a) True b) False Chapter Ten Homework 1. Cell shapes are largely determined by: a) cytoskeletal protein networks in the cytoplasm. b) adhesion proteins that assemble at cell surfaces. c) a mesh of proteins and polysaccharides in the extracellular matrix. d) cytosolic proteins that assemble into structures called cellular junctions. e) All of these choices are correct. 2. Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder: a) of a keratin gene that disrupts intermediate filaments, weakening epidermal cell connections. b) of a microfilament gene that disrupts desmosomes, weakening epidermal cell connections. c) of an intermediate filament gene that disrupts hemidesmosomes, weakening epidermal cell connections. d) of a keratin gene that disrupts microfilaments, weakening epidermal cell connections. e) All of these choices are correct. 3. Dynein motor proteins use ATP energy to: a) carry vesicles along a microtubule within a cell in a minus-to-plus direction. b) carry vesicles along a microfilament within a cell in a minus-to-plus direction. c) carry vesicles along a microtubule within a cell in a plus-to-minus direction. d) carry vesicles along a microfilament within a cell in a plus-to-minus direction. e) slide along microfilaments to contract muscle cells. 4. How does an adherens junction differ from a desmosome? a) Adherens junctions connect a cell to neighboring cells, and desmosomes connect a cell to the extracellular matrix. b) Adherens junctions connect cells using adherin proteins, and desmosomes connect cells with cadherin proteins. c) While both adherens junctions and desmosomes connect cells by using cadherin proteins, only adherens junctions connect to the cytoskeleton. d) While both adherens junctions and desmosomes connect cells by using cadherin proteins, adherens junctions connect to microfilaments while desmosomes connect to inter
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