Final Study Guide
Final Study Guide BIO 120 35
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This 28 page Study Guide was uploaded by Kennedy Neil on Sunday December 13, 2015. The Study Guide belongs to BIO 120 35 at Grand Valley State University taught by Dr. Jennifer Winther in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 37 views. For similar materials see General Biology I in Biology at Grand Valley State University.
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BIO 120 Final Review 1 Quiz 3 Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions? They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them. Which of these molecules is most likely to be soluble in water? Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids? Carboxyl and Amino Which of the groups shown below is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent crosslinks within or between protein molecules? SH Which molecule shown above contains a functional group that cells use to transfer energy between organic molecules? Which molecule shown below can increase the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution and is therefore an organic acid? Molecules with which functional groups may form polymers via dehydration reactions? Either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups On food packages what does the term insoluble fiber refer? Cellulose Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in the figure below? Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature BIO 120 Final Review 2 Which molecule has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in plasma membranes? Quiz 4 Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell plasma membrane? Phospholipids and proteins In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to be Amphipathic (hydrophilic and hydrophobic), with at least one hydrophobic region The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals Enable the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures? The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, preventing adjacent lipids from packing tightly Cell membranes are asymmetrical. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? The two sides of a cell membrane face different environments and carry out different functions Which of the following would likely move through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly? CO 2 Which of the following membrane activities require energy from ATP hydrolysis? Na ions moving out of a mammalian cell bathed in physiological saline solution (an isotonic solution of NaCl dissolved in water) The sodium potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it Contributes to the membrane potential Several epidemic microbial diseases of earlier centuries incurred high death rates because they resulted in severe dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhea. Today they are usually not fatal because we have developed which of the following? Hydrating drinks that include high concentration of salts and glucose BIO 120 Final Review 3 Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semipermeable membrane that is impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in spate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6M sucrose solution. At 10minute time intervals, the bags were massed and the percent change in mass of each bag was graphed. A All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except An endoplasmic reticulum Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells? The need for a surface area of sufficient area to support the cell’s metabolic needs Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell? Rough ER The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity? All of the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes in animal cells? Lysosome The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells? Smooth ER Which eukaryotic organelle(s) contain its own DNA and ribosomes? Mitochondrion and chloroplast Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structure? Microtubules and motor proteins What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell? ER Golgi vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane What molecules are found in both the nucleolus of the nucleus and the dark spots on the rough endoplasmic reticulum? RNA and proteins that from ribosomes BIO 120 Final Review 4 Quiz 5 Which of the following is true about anabolic pathways? They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways? They supply energy, primarily in the form of ATP, for the cell’s work Which of the following statements is true about enzymecatalyzed reactions? The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzymecatalyzed reaction has a deltaG of 20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction but keep everything else the same, what will be the deltaG for the new reaction? 20 kcal/mol Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors (bind to the active site) of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme (the enzyme required for the HIV virus to replicate). Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly aquires mutations with amino acid changes that make them resistant to these drugs that are competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme are amino acid changes most likely occurring in drugresistant HIV viruses? In or near the active site Which curve(s) on the graphs may represent the temperature and pH profiles of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in a mildly alkaline hot springs at temperatures of 70*C or higher? Curves 3 and 5 BIO 120 Final Review 5 Which of the following in the figure below would be the same in either an enzyme catalyzed or a noncatalyzed reaction? D Protein kinases are enzymes that catalyze phosphorylation of target proteins at specific sites, whereas protein phosphates catalyze removal of phosphate(s) from phosphorylated proteins. Phosphorylation (adding phosphate) and dephosphorylation (removing phosphate) can function as an onoff switch for a protein’s activity, most likely through The change in a protein’s charge leading to a conformational change A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X Y Z A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. What is substance X? A substrate A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to from a solution of simple sugars because The activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot be surmounted An electron loses potential energy when it Dutring aerobic respiration, H O is formed. Where does the oxygen atom for the 2 formation of the water come from? Shifts to a more elctronegitive atom Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H into which location in eukaryotic cells? Molecular oxygen (O ) 2 Even though plants carry on photosynthesis, plant cells still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyrucvate. When and where will this occur? Mitochondrial intermembrane space Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway? In all cells all the time The direct source that drives ATP synthesis during respiratory oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotic cells is Citric acid cycle NADH electron transport chain oxygen BIO 120 Final Review 6 Which molecule must be regenerated through the course of the citric acid cycle I order for acetyl CoA to enter the cycle? Oxaloacetate Which of the following most accurately describes what is happening along the electron transport chain in the figure below? BIO 120 Final Review 7 Each electron carrier alternates between being reduced and being oxidized + Which of the following statements describes NAD ? NAD is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle Which portion of the pathway in the figure below involves an endergonic reaction? BIO 120 Final Review 8 A (2 ATP 2 ADP) Quiz 6 The free energy for the oxidation of glucose to CO 2and water is 686 kcal/mol and the free energy fro the reduction of NAD to NADH is +53 kcal/mol. Why are only two molecules of NADH formed during glycolysis when it appears as many as a dozen could be formed? Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose is used in the production of ATP in glycolysis What fraction of the carbon dioxide exhaled by animals is generated by the reactions of the citric acid cycle, if glucose is he sole energy source? 2/3 Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? It does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not require oxygen, and is present in most organisms One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to Oxidize NADH to NAD + When an individual is exercising heavily and when the muscle becomes oxygen deprived, muscle cells convert pyruvate to lactate. What happens to the lactate in skeletal muscles? It is taken to the liver and converted back to pyruvate Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen to produce CO and 2 water release free energy? Electrons are being moved from atoms that have a lower affinity for electrons (such as C) to atoms with a higher affinity for electrons (such as O) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidationreduction, the molecule become BIO 120 Final Review 9 Oxidized + Which of the following statements describe NAD ? NAD is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle Which portion of the pathway in the figure below contains a phosphorylation reaction in which ATP is the phosphate source? A. 2 ATP 2 ADP A spaceship is designed to support animal life for a multiyear voyage to the outer planets of the solar system. Plants will be grown to provide oxygen and to recycle carbon dioxide. Since the spaceship will be too far from the sun for photosynthesis, an artificial light source will be needed. What wavelengths of light should be used to maximize plant growth with a minimum of energy expenditure? A mixture of blue and red light Chlorophyll molecules in the light harvesting complexes of photosystems transfer energy from photons to the reaction center via Resonance energy If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with CO w2ere the oxygen is the isotope ( O), later analysis will show that all but one of the following compounds produced by the algae contain the O label. That one is O 2 In photosynthetic plant cells, synthesis of the ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration In the process of carbon fixation, RuBP attaches a CO 2o produce a sixcarbon molecule, which is then split to produce two molecules of 3phosphogycerate. After phosphorylation and reduction produces glyceraldehyde 3phosphate (G3P), what more needs to happen to complete the Calvin cycle Regeneration of RuBP BIO 120 Final Review 10 Reduction of oxygen to form water occurs during Cellular respiration What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle? Synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I? Receiving electrons from the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle? ATP and NADPH Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration? Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, whereas cellular respiration releases it Which statement describes the functioni+g of photosystem II? The electron vacancies in P680 are filled by electrons derived from water Quiz 7 The centromere is a region in which Sister chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested? Metaphase Cells from an advanced malignant tumor (stage 4) most often very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur? Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints The lettered circle on the figure below show a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated. What is the correct chromosomal condition for one daughter nucleus at the end of telophase of mitosis? BIO 120 Final Review 11 E Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=16? Each cell has eight homologous pairs In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common? Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is Haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not mitosis Synapsis of chromosomes During which of the following stages of meiosis listed below are synaptonemal complexes formed or still present? Prophase I and Metaphase I Refer to the drawings in the figure below of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following questions. Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis? A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19. A certain female’s number 12 BIO 120 Final Review 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following? One chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene Human cells are 2m=46. How many bivalents (synaptonemal complexes of homologous chromosomes) would be present at the end of prophase I of meiosis? 23 Human cells are 2n=46. How many chromosomes and chromatids would a cell have in metaphase II of meiosis? 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in Cells with more than one nucleus What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid and dihybrid cross? A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one Why did the F 1offspring of Mendel’s classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties? One phenotype was completely dominant over another A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism? HT Mendel’s observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division? Anaphase I of meiosis Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt x BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails? 1/2 In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short? 0 Quiz 8 In the cross AaBbCc x AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC? 1/64 Given the parents AABBCc x AabbCc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to be phenotypically dominant for each trait like the parent with the genotype AABBCc? 3/4 Which of the following calculations require that you utilize the addition rule? Calculate the probability of a child having either sicklecell anemia or cystic fibrosis if parents are each heterozygous for both BIO 120 Final Review 13 In cattle, roan coat color mixed red and white hairs occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white(rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red : 2 roan :1 white? Roan x roan Roan (Rr) coat color is an example of Codominance The following questions refer to the pedigree chart in the figure below for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle. What is the likelihood the the progeny of IV3 and IV4 will have the trait? 50% Tallness (T) in snapdragons is dominant to dwarfness (t). while red ® flower color is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower color. A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals? TtRr – tall and pink Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios? 9 sharpspined : 3 dullspined : 4 spineless When Thomas hunt Morgan crossed his redeyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red and whiteeyed flies. Remarkably, all the whiteeyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result? The gene is involved on the X chromosome Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of inheritance as th expressed in the early 20 century? Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and in turn segregate during meiosis SRY is best described in which of the following ways? A gene region present of the Y chromosome that triggers male development In cats, black fur color is caused by an Xlinked allele; the other allele at this locus causes BIO 120 Final Review 14 orange color. The heterozygote is tortoise shell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male? Tortoiseshell females; black males Cinnabar eyes is a sexlinked recessive characteristics in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wildtype male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes? 100% In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A recessive lethal allele that causes death pf the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female? 2:1 male to female What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together? They are located close together on the same chromosome In humans, malepattern baldness is controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allele forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and a woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald? 75% A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a colorblind woman of normal height. The man’s father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman’s parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and redgreen color blindness is Xlinked recessive. How many of their daughters might be expected to be colorblind dwarfs? None The following pedigree illustrates which pattern of inheritance? Autosomal recessive Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual? 47, +21 How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental type offspring than recombinanttype offspring are produced? BIO 120 Final Review 15 The two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome Quiz 9 Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a NDA strand in the 5’ 3’ direction? DNA polymerase III A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5’ 3’ direction because DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3’ end Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3’ end of the Okazaki fragments? DNA polymerase I If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5’ATTGCA3’, the other complementary strand would have the sequence 3’TAACGT5’ The antiparallel DNA strands are held together in a double helix because of Hydrogen bonds between the paired nitrogenous bases Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome? It consists of a single linear molecule of doublestranded DNA plus proteins The leading and the lagging strands differ in that The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the basepairing rules? A + G = C + T What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate? Complementary nitrogenous bases Enzymes that breakdown DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes? The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken Quiz 10 Transcription requires which of the following RNA polymerase A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that Many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA A particular triplet of bases in the nontemplate, coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is UUU Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes The small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attached to the 5’ cap of mRNA What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5’ AUGUCUUCGUCCUUG 3’ BIO 120 Final Review 16 metserserleuserleu Which of the following is not true of a codon? It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule Which component is not directly involved in translation DNA Mendel crossed true breeding white flowered peas with true breeding purple flowered peas. The F1 generation all had purple flowers. Based on what you have learned this semester the most reasonable explanation for the purple F1 phenotypes is Both alleles of the gene that codes for flower color are transcribed and translated in the flower petals and the protein coded for by the dominant allele makes the flower purple Once researchers identified DNA a unit of inheritance, they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. What is the mechanism of information transfer in eukaryotes? Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place The lactose operon is likely to be transcribe when The cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they BIO 120 Final Review 17 Express different genes Altering patterns of gen expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism’s survival in which of the following ways? Allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene? A DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in a error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A deletion of two nucleotides Which of the following is NOT true concerning the regulatory region of a eukaryotic gene Is transcribed and translated into a polypeptide Where would the LAC repressor be bound in a normal E.coli cell that is growing in no glucose and high lactose? The repressor would not be bound The RNA transcript what would result if transcription of the lac operon occurred would include? BIO 120 Final Review 18 Z,Y, and A Which of the following is true of RNA processing? Nucleotides are added to both ends of the RNA transcript Which of the following correctly describes the difference between negative and positive regulation? Negative gene regulation involves a protein that prevents RNA polymerase form transcribing a gene and positive regulation involves a protein that enhances the ability of RNA polymerases to transcribe a gene At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of proteincoding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for most of the rest? Nonproteincoding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function Midterm 1 1. In general atoms tend to make chemical bonds to: D. A (maximize the number of their valence shell) and B (become more stable) 2. The reactivity of an atom arises from: B. The existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell 3. Each OH bond within the water molecule is a polar bond because: C. O is much more electronegative than H 4. If the cell wall of the waterconduction cells in plants were made up of a nonpolar substance, there would be no adhesion between the water molecules and the water conducting cells. A. True BIO 120 Final Review 19 5. Water is a versatile solvent because of: A. Its polarity 6. Hydrophobic substances such as oils are B. Substances that lack charges on their surface and thus repel water molecules 7. A urine sample has a pH of 5.03. therefore, the urine has: A. A higher concentration of H+ compared to OH 8. Water’s ability to moderate air temperature is a direct result of the presence of hydrogen bonds between its molecules A. True 9. Which molecule is commonly used in cells to transfer energy from one organic molecule to another? E 10. Which molecule comprises most of the cell plasma membrane? A 11. Which molecule has a functional group that is acidic and a functional group that is basic and is a monomer of proteins? D 12. Which molecule is a carbohydrate (sugar)? B 13. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis? A. Dehydration reactions assemble polymers; hydrolysis reactions break polymers apart. BIO 120 Final Review 20 14. Which of the molecules pictured below has the following characteristics: liquid at room temperature, “healthy fat” that when eaten in moderation, and is often hydrogenated and turned into “unhealthy” transfat. B 15. Which of the molecules pictured in question 14 is more likely to be fond in the phospholipid of the cell membrane of an organism living in the deep cold water of the arctic ocean? B 16. Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because B. Humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the a glycosidic linkages of starch but not the B glycosidic linkages of cellulose 17. Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between DNA and RNA? C. DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides 18. You disrupt all hydrogen bonds in a protein. What level of the structure will be preserved? A. Primary structure 19. Which of the following is the strongest evidence that protein structure and function are correlated? D. Denatured (unfolded) proteins do not function normally. 20. The force driving simple diffusion is ____, while the energy source for active transport is _____. B. The concentration gradient, ATP 21. In a channel protein located in the plasma membrane where would you expect to find a hydrophilic amino acid? A. In the interior o the folded protein 22. The integral cell membrane proteins can preform all of the following functions except C. Synthesize RNA 23. The solutions n the arms of a Utube are separated at the bottom of the tube by a selectively permeable membrane. The membrane is permeable to sodium chloride but not to glucose. Side A is filled with a solution of 0.4 M glucose and o.5 M sodium chloride (NaCl), and side B is filled with a solution containing 0.8 M glucose and 0.4 M sodium chloride. Initially, the volume in both arms the same. If you examine side A after three days, you should find ____. C. A decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level BIO 120 Final Review 21 24. A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled waterequal to the volume of blood lost is transferred directly into one of his veins (distilled water has no salts). What will be the most probable result of this transfusion? C. The patient’s red blood cells would swell and possibly burst because the blood fluid has become hypotonic compared to the cells 25. Based on the figure which of these experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into the cell? C. Decreasing cytoplasmic pH Midterm 2 1. Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of building large molecules from smaller ones? B. Anabolism 2. Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways in living organisms? B. They supply energy, primarily in the form of ATP, for the cell’s work 3. Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways? A. The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme 4. How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction? B. By changing the shape of the enzyme’s active site 5. A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X Y Z A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme that converts X to Y, substance A functions as B. An allosteric inhibitor 6. The active site of an enzyme is the region that B. Is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme 7. The potential energy of chemical bonds is most directly related to A. Electrons 8. Which of the following represents the lower activation energy required for the reaction to occur because reactants A+B interact with an enzyme? B. 9. Which of the following represents the difference between the free energy content of the reaction and the free energy constant if the products in the figure in question 8? D. BIO 120 Final Review 22 10. Which of the following terms best describes the forward reaction in the figure used in question 8? B. 11. Enzymes lower the activation energy by all of the following except D. 12. ATP is required by living cells for D. All of the above 13. A molecule that is phosphorylated (had a phosphate added from ATP) has D. an increased chemical potential energy; it is primed to do cellular work 14. Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction (C H O 6 12 6 6CO 2 6CO + 2H O)? 2 A. C H6O12is6oxidize and O is 2educed 15. Which of the following produced the most ATP when glucose (C H O ) is 6 12 6 completely oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO ) and 2ater? Oxidative phosphorylation 16. Which of the following statements correctly describes NAD+? A. NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle 17. The ATP made during fermentation is generated by which of the following B. Substratelevel phosphorylation 18. High levels of citric acid inhibit the enzyme phosphofructokinase, a key enzyme in glycolysis. Citric acid binds to the enzyme at a different location from the active site and decreases the rate of cellular respiration. This is an example of B. Negative feedback (feedback inhibition) 19. Carbon dioxide (CO ) is2released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration? B. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle 20. Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons from the original glucose molecule follow which pathway? D. pyruvate citric acid cycle ANDH electron transport chain oxygen 21. During the citric acid cycle, acetyl CoA binds to ______ and ______ must be regenerated at the ned of the cycle for the citric acid cycle to continue. B. Oxaloacetate; oxaloacetate 22. Which of the following statements concerning oxidative phosphorylation is false C. Occurs in the cytosol of bacteria 23. Where doe glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells? D. Cytosol of the cytoplasm 24. During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location? D. Mitochondrial matrix 25. The enzyme ATP synthase is found E. In the plasma membrane of prokaryotes, the inner membrane of mitochondria and the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts 26. During glycolysis, when each molecule of glucose is catabolized to two molecules of pyruvate, most of the potential energy contained in glucose is BIO 120 Final Review 23 C. retained in the two pyruvates 27. One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to C. Oxidize NADH to NAD+ 28. Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis? C. An agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized 29. The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase in either respiration and photosynthesis is the D. H+ concentration across the membrane holding ATP synthase 30. Which of the protein complexes labeled with Roman numerals will transfer electrons to O 2 D. IV 31. Which of the following is not true of the electron transport chain in either cellular respiration or light reactions of photosynthesis C. Requires the input of energy in the form of ATP 32. Assume the inner membrane of the mitochondria is somehow punctured so that the interior of the mitochondria is no longer separated from the intermembrane space. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes? D. The synthesis of ATP 33. Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction (C H O 6+ 12 6 6CO 2 6CO + 2H O)? 2 C. CO 2s reduced and H O i2 oxidized 34. Where does the Calvin cycle take place? A. Stroma of the chloroplast 35. Leaves are green because BIO 120 Final Review 24 A. Pigments in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts absorb blue and red light and reflects green 36. Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle? C. Release of oxygen 37. When oxygen is produced as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct byproduct of B. Splitting water molecules by OEC (oxygen evolving complex) in PSII 38. In the photosystems, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules? B. Harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reactioncenter chlorophyll 39. What are the products of linear photophosphorylation (light reactions) used in the Dark reactions (Calvin cycle)? C. ATP and NADPH 40. During photophosphorylation (light reactions), what is a potential pathways of the energy in a photon? C. light harvesting complex P680 electron transport chain P700 41. Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs during C. Both photosynthesis and respiration 42. Photorespiration occurs when the enzyme Rubisco binds to O inste2d of CO . This 2 lowers the efficiency of photosynthesis because B. NADPH and ATP is used to make CO and reg2nerate RuBP 43. Plants photosynthesize only in the light. Plants undergo cellular respiration C. Both in light and dark 44. The following is true for both CAM and C4 plants D. Calvin cycle only occurs in chloroplasts during the day 45. A spaceship is designed to support anima life for a multiyear voyage to the outer planets of the solar system. Plants will be grown to provide oxygen and to recycle carbon dioxide. If the power fails and the lights go dark, what will happen to CO 2 levels? A. CO 2ill rise as a result of both animal and plant repiration 46. During the dark reactions (Calvin cycle), what is a potential pathway of C in CO ? 2 A. Rubisco 3Carbon sugar 5Carbon sugar (RuBP) 47. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis B. Photosystem I NADPH Calvin cycle 48. The figure shown below shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different? D. Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a 49. Photosynthesis (light and dark reactions) in the chloroplasts supplies which of the following molecules required for aerobic respiration? C. B (sugars) and D (O )2 50. Aerobic cellular respiration in mitochondria supplies which of the following molecules required for photosynthesis (light and dark reactions) in chloroplasts? C. C (CO )2and F (H O)2 Midterm 3 BIO 120 Final Review 25 1. Each linear eukaryotic chromosome has a centromere. What statement is most true concerning a centromere? D. All statements are true of chromosomes 2. Human cells are 2n=46. How many bivalent (synaptonemal complexes of homologous chromosomes) would be present at the end of prophase I of meiosis? C. 23 3. Human cells are 2n=46. How many chromosomes and chromatids would a cell have in metaphase I of meiosis? C. 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids 4. Using the figure below, which of the letters depicts a daughter cell that would result after meiosis I? C. 5. Using the figure from question 4, which of the letter depicts a daughter cell that would result after prophase of mitosis? B. 6. Genetic variation is the result of processes that occur during which phases of meiosis I? C. I (prophase) and II (metaphase) 7. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect A. The formation of the mitotic spindle 8. Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=32? C. Each cell has 16 homologous pairs of chromosomes 9. You cross true breeding blueegg chickens with true breeding whiteegg chickens. The resulting F1 generations always have white eggs. What can we say about egg color in chickens? A. White is dominant to blue 10. The alignment of bivalents during Metaphase I of meiosis accounts for B. Mendel’s Second Law of Independent Assortment 11. Mendel’s observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division? BIO 120 Final Review 26 D. Anaphase I of meiosis 12. You are preforming a testcross. If the parent with the dominant phenotype is heterozygous, what is the expected ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes in the F1 generation? D. 50% dominant, 50% recessive 13. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for fur amount (F or f) and one for nose shape (N or n). Its genotype is FfNn. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism? D. fn 14. In the cross AaBbCc x AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype aaBBCc? D. 1/32 15. Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a reflowered plant and a whiteflowered plant yields allpurple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic. If truebreeding red long radishes are crossed with truebreeding white oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following? D. Purple and long 16. The flower color trait in radishes (in question 15) is an example of which of the following? D. Incomplete dominance 17. Recombination between alleles of linked genes is due to what process? A. Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis 18. In humans, ABO blood types refer to glycoproteins in the membranes of red blood A B A cells. There are three alleleB for this autosomal gene: I , I , and i. The I allele codes for the A glycoprotein, the I allele codes for the B glycoprotein, and the i allele doesn’t code for any membrane glycoprotein. i is recessive to both I and I . People with type A blood have the genotypes I I or I i, people with type B blood are I I or B A B I i, people with AB blood are I I and people with O blood are ii. If a woman with type AB blood marries a man with type O blood, which of the following blood types could their children possibly have? A. A and B 19. Blood type in humans is an example of which of the following inheritance patterns D. Multiple alleles and codominance 20. Redgreen color blindness is Xlinked recessive. A woman with normal vision has a father who is colorblind. The woman has a child with a man with normal vision. Which phenotype is NOT expected/possible given the information above? A. A colorblind female 21. Two truebreeding stocks of roses are crossed. One parent has thorns, pink flowers and the other has no thorns, white flowers; all F1 individuals have no thorns, pink flowers. The genes for thorn presence and flower color assort independently. F1 individuals are crossed. Among the resulting offspring, what is the probability of plants with no thorns and white flowers or plants with no thorns and pink flowers? C. 12/16 BIO 120 Final Review 27 22. In cats, black fur color is caused by an Xlinked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a tortoiseshell female and black male? D. Tortoiseshell females; black female; black males; orange males 23. Which pedigree demonstrates autosomal recessive? B. – here is an example: 24. Which pedigree demonstrates Xlinked recessive? D. – here is an example: 25. Use the figure below to answer this question for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle. What is the genotype of the individual II2? B. Ww 26. Use the pedigree from question 25. What is the likelihood that the progeny of a hypothetical mating between III1 and IV3 will have the trait? C. 75% 27. Which of the following statements about aneuploidy (trisomy 21 is an example) is false? C. Aneuploidy arises due to problems during DNA replication 28. If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5’CGACGT3’, the other complementary strand would have the sequence BIO 120 Final Review 28 B. 3’GCTGCA5’ 29. The antiparallel DNA strands are held together in a double helix because of B. Hydrogen bonds between the paired nitrogenous bases 30. In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and _____ of the last nucleotide in the polymer. C. The 3’ OH 31. DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle? C. S 32. Which of the enzymes adds nucleotides to the 3’ end of a growing DNA strand in leading and lagging strand synthesis? B. DNA polymerase III 33. Which of the enzymes synthesizes short segments of RNA required for leading and lagging strand replication? C. Primase
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