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UA / Biology / BSC 310 / Acidophiles grow best below at what ph?

Acidophiles grow best below at what ph?

Acidophiles grow best below at what ph?

Description

School: University of Alabama - Tuscaloosa
Department: Biology
Course: Microbiology
Professor: Olson
Term: Spring 2016
Tags: BSC 310 Olson Microbiology Regulation inducer repressor repression rna sequencing analysis gene chip endospore sporulation heterocyst isoenzymes sRNA biofilm formation global control network chemotaxis sensor kinase
Cost: 25
Name: BSC 310 Exam 3 Flashcards
Description: This contains 162 flashcards of concise but detailed terms that you need to know for Dr. Olson's third exam. If you would prefer to print out the sheets versus index cards, I have another study guide with the same exact information but in bulleted form versus index card form labeled "BSC 310 Exam 3". Best of luck on your exam!
Uploaded: 04/03/2016
324 Pages 47 Views 5 Unlocks
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454 System


Acidophiles grow best below at what ph?



1a

DNA is broken into small fragments and attached to small beads. Each is placed into a well on a fiber-optic plate. DNA is amplified by PCR. Each time a base is added to the DNA strand, light is released and is measured in accordance to the nucleotide that was incorporated. 1b

acidophiles

2a

grow best below pH 5.5; often found in acidic thermal soils associated with volcanic activity

2b

acidophilicity

3a

dependent on cytoplasmic membrane stability; pH 2 above optima will cause cell to spontaneously lyse

3b

activator

4a

regulatory protein used in positive control; activator binding site can be several hundred base pairs upstream of the operon


Why acidophilicity is dependent on cytoplasmic membrane stability?



4b

activator protein helps RNA polymerase recognize promotor by either

5a

changing DNA structure allowing the RNA pol to contact promotor more readily or can interact with RNA polymerase directly

5b

aerobes

6a

grow at full oxygen tensions 6b

aerotolerant anaerobes

7a

can tolerate and grow in the presence of O2 even though they cannot respire

7b

alkaliphiles

8a

-showing growth pH optima of 8 or higher; typically found in soda lakes and high carbonate soils

-some extremely alkaliphiles are also halophiles -some produce hydrolytic exoenzymes that are excreted from the cells; often added as supplements to laundry detergents to remove protein and fat stains


What is aerobes?



8b

anaerobes

9a

cannot respire O2 at all If you want to learn more check out What is the another name of park of the monsters?
We also discuss several other topics like Why russia invades finland?

9b

antimicrobial agent

10aDon't forget about the age old question of What are the features of genetic code?

natural or synthetic chemical that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms

10b

antimicrobial agent susceptibility assay in tubes

11a

A series of tubes is inoculated with the test organism and a given amount of agent is added. After incubation, the tubes are scored for turbidity, and the MIC is the lowest concentration of agent that completely inhibits growth of test organism.

11b

antiseptics

12a

-aka germicides

-chemicals that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms but are sufficiently nontoxic to animals to be applied to living tissues

-some are also effective disinfectants 12b

Attenuation

13a

form of transcriptional control by early termination of mRNA synthesis; found in bacteria and archaea

-not possible in Eukarya due to physical distance between transcription and translation

13b

Attenuation in Tryptophan Operon 14a

Leader sequence encodes leader peptide which contains tryptophan codons side-by-side.

-If tryptophan is plentiful, the leader peptide will be synthesized and form a stem-loop, resulting in termination of transcription of remainder of operon. -If tryptophan is scarce, causes a stalled ribosome, which results in stem-loop formation that prevents termination allowing the remainder of the operon to be transcribed. Don't forget about the age old question of What is a military alliance of western europe and the united states?
We also discuss several other topics like When does labor productivity changes?

14b

autoclave

15a

sealed heating device that uses steam under pressure to kill microorganisms

15b

autoinducer

16a

specific signal molecule synthesized by the participating organism that freely diffuses across the cell envelope in both directions

16b

catabolite repression

17a

mechanism of global control that decides between utilizing different available carbon sources

17b

Catabolite Repression Process on Lac Operon

18a

When glucose is present, glucose siphons cAMP out of the cell. However, when glucose levels are low, cAMP is no longer sent out of the cell leaving it to bind to CRP. CRP forms a dimer when bound to cAMP and acts as a regulator. For the operon to be translated though, the repressor must be removed by the inducer (in this case, lactose). Lactose binds to the active repressor and thence removes it from the promotor site unblocking it for transcription. Both of these processes must occur for the lac operon to be transcribed. Don't forget about the age old question of What are the types of fossilization that we covered and how do they work?

18b

catalase

19a

converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

19b

Caulobacter Differentiation 20a

Swarmer= free swimming cells; cannot divide or replicate their DNA. Stalked (attached) cells- lack flagella and are attached to a surface via a stalk with a holdfast reproductive stage. Regulated by

GcrA, CtrA, and DnaA i.GcrA is critical for cell division into differentiated cells and thus is active in the daughter cells only ii. CtrA is very active in flagellation

20b

chromosomal islands

21a

extrachromosomal elements that are not plasmids or integrated viruses; contains clusters of genes for specialized functions that are not needed for simple survival

-ex: megnetosome island of Magnetospirillum -some carry a gene encoding an integrase enzyme to move it into a chromosome

-target site is duplicated upon insertion; an intact tRNA gene is regenerated while the chromosomal island is inserted in place of what was to be another tRNA gene 21b

-cidal agents

22a

kill the microorganisms; bacteriocidal, fungicidal, etc.

22b

Closed vs. Draft Genome

23a

gaps in the sequence annotation is found in a draft genome whereas a closed genome has no gaps

23b

compatible solutes

24a

-solute that does not inhibit cellular processes in any significant way but allows halophiles to maintain a positive water balance

-typically highly water-soluble organic molecules such as sugars, alcohols, or amino acid derivatives

-maximum level of compatible solute is a genetically encoded characteristic

24b

Connecting Unknown protein with a particular gene from genomic DNA

25a

oligonucleotide probes or primers can locate the gene encoding the protein and then identify the gene after sequencing the DNA

25b

Connecting unknown protein with particular gene from 2D gel system

26a

1. elute protein from gel and sequence a portion, or

2. identify protein by use of mass spectrometry

26b

core genome

27a

core genome is a genome found in all strains of a given species

27b

corepressor

28a

substance that stops enzyme synthesis (ex: arginine)

28b

Culture Techniques for Aerobes 29a

forced aeration is necessary so the flask or tube must be vigorously shaken or have sterilized air bubbled into the medium through a fine glass tube or porous glass disk

29b

Culture Techniques for Anaerobes 30a

-Bottles or tubes filled completely to the top with culture medium and fitted with leakproof closures and a reducing agent can remove any remaining O2

-obligate anaerobes can incubate in tubes or plates in a glass jar that is flushed with an O2- free gas or fitted with an O2 consumption system

30b

cyclic AMP receptor protein (CRP) 31a

activator protein responsible for catabolite repression; only acts when bound to cyclic adenosine

monophosphate (cAMP)

31b

cyclic di-guanosine monophosphate 32a

another regulatory nucleotide; provides physiological changes and expression of virulence genes necessary for biofilm formation

32b

decontamination

33a

physical method of control that consists of treatment of an object or surface to make it safe to handle; simply removes present organisms

33b

depth filter

34a

-fibrous sheet or mat made from random array of overlapping paper or borosilicate fibers

-important in biosafety applications such as in safety hood

34b

Detecting Horizontal Gene Flow 35a

1. presence of genes that encode proteins typically found in distantly related species 2. presence of a stretch of DNA whose GC

content or codon bias differs significantly from the rest of the genome

3. however, as more genomes are sequenced, using horizontal gene flow as an explanation can be nulled

35b

diauxic growth

36a

result of catabolite repression; cells grow first on preferred C source. Once first source is depleted, the organism undergoes a lag phase before resuming on another C source.

36b

Difference between first-, second-, third-, and fourth-generations of DNA

Sequencing

37a

First generation- Sanger Dideoxy Method; read length 700-900 bases

Second generation- 454 pyrosequencing; very large number of samples are sequenced side-by-side in the same machine requiring miniaturization and increased computing power Third generation- sequencing of single molecules of DNA based on microscopy (HeliScope Single Molecule Sequencer) or nanotechnology (Pacific Biosciences SMRT)

Fourth generation- "post light sequencing" meaning optical detection is no longer used; ion torrent method or nanopore technology

37b

Different Classes of Autoinducers 38a

acyl homoserine lactones (AHLs), autoinducer 2, short peptides

38b

differentiation in bacteria

39a

formation of endospores in Gm+ Bacilli and formation of two cell types in Gm Caulobacter (flagellated cells and those stuck to a surface)

39b

disc assay for antimicrobial agent susceptibility

40a

Known amounts of an antimicrobial agent are added to filter-paper discs and discs arranged on surface of uniformly inoculated agar plate.

The zone of inhibition is proportional to the amount added to the disc, solubility of the agent, diffusion coefficient, and the overall effectiveness of the agent. Used to test clinically isolated pathogens for their antibiotic susceptibility.

40b

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