Homework questions MMG 301
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This 13 page Study Guide was uploaded by Ally Fodell on Sunday April 3, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to MMG 301 at 1 MDSS-SGSLM-Langley AFB Advanced Education in General Dentistry 12 Months taught by Scott Mulrooney in Spring 2016. Since its upload, it has received 30 views. For similar materials see Introductory microbiology in Microbiology at 1 MDSS-SGSLM-Langley AFB Advanced Education in General Dentistry 12 Months.
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Date Created: 04/03/16
Lecture 2 1) Light microscopes use Glass lenses where electron microscopes use electromagnets 2) Ziehl neelsen stain is used to diagnose infections caused by Mycobacterium This is the acid fast stain where acid fast organisms retain the pink color and not acid organisms retain blue. 3) ________ Microscope converts differences in refractive indexes with unstained cells into contrast. a. Confocal scanning microscope 3D uses laser beam illumination narrow wavelength single point of light b. scanning electron 3D can see surface appendages coated with gold or metal created from secondary electrons emitted off object surface c. fluorescence d. transmission electron 2D can see internal structures e. phase contrast 4) Cell morphology Vibrio bean coccus one circle diplococcus 2 circles streptococcus string of circles staphylococcus pyramid of circles bacillus long rod filamentous one long string spirochete spiral long string looks like squiggley 5)order of performing a gram stain 1) violet 2) iodine (purple) 3) decolorize 4) safranin (pink red) Positive stay purple because of peptidoglycan. Lecture 3 1)Bacteria or prokaryotic cells. Phospholipids are made up of ester bonds. Archea made up of ether bonds. can form monolayer or bilayer 2)which substance has highest potential for diffusion across the membrane Water Then it would be glycerol, glucose, ions. 3) This method of simple transport is also known as passive diffusion Uniport Simple transport uses proton motive force. uniport antiport symport Group translocation modifies the chemical using phosphoenol pyruvate ABC transport uses ATP Passive diffusion facilitated diffusion, diffusion, osmosis. 4)group translocation of Glucose into E.coli uses Phosphoenol pyruvate. 5) Molecule that contains both hydrophillic and hydrophobic parts is amphipathic. Lecture 4 1) A nerdy scientist says my organism has techoic acids what kind of organism did he fine. Gram Positive Gram positive cells have techoic acids and lipotechoic acids 2) Which figure shows Cytoplasmic membrane 3) Cells that have extremely diverse shapes such as those with no wall are called Pleomorphic Mycoplasmas also have no cell wall pleomorphic is just all with diverse shapes including mycoplasmas. 4) Peptidoglycan completely surrounds the cell wall in a massive molecules known as the murein sacculus. 5) A paracrystalline array of proteins that completely surrounds and protects a cell is known as S layers Only found in archea, always the outermost layer Lecture 5 1) DNA is formed into supercoils by enzymes known as topoisomerases. To create aggregated nucloid 2) Endoflagella are useful to some bacteria because they provide motility. 3)Spirochetes are bacterial cells that have internal flagella known as endoflagella. Endoflagella makes up axial filaments, helps them corkscrew through the membrane. 4) What is the name of this polymer GLYCOGEN other images used 5) microbes that live in the photic zone would use what for a source of energy. Light Lecture 6 1) What type of microscopy can be used to distinguish capsules from slime layers India Ink. Capsules exclude india ink particles, slime layers do not exclude them 2) Fimbriae often contain adhesins proteins that bind to specific saccharides or found on surface of host cells. Responsible for host specificity and tissue tropism. 3) Type 4 pilli can be used for movement of some kinds of bacterial cells. this is called twitching motility. tip of pili have adhesins , cell is dragged forward as he pilus retracts. 4) Which has peritrichous flagella ? Answer is a. b is polar and c. is lophotrichous 5) Name of the part of the flagellum that is the filament Lecture 7 1) metabolic processes that are degradative, energy generating and carbon consuming are known as catabolism. Anabolism has building function, expends energy AKA biosynthetic (they make up what catabolism breaks down) 2) What would a heterotroph use as a source of energy. Organic chemicals should be organic carbon but our teacher is fuckin dumb. Autotrophs use inorganic carbon, heterotrophs use organic carbon as carbon source. Chemolithotrophs use inorganic chemicals as energy source, chemoorganotrophs use organic. Phototrophs use light. 3) match reaction with type 1. Reduction 2. oxidation. 1 U(VI) + 2e → U(IV) 2. lactate→ acetate + CO 2+ 2e 4) match reduction is the gain of an electron, oxidation is loss of an electron. 5) What is the function of cytochromes in a cell transferring electrons using heme cofactor. Non heme iron sulfur protein can also transfer. Lecture 8 1) Select the item that is not utilized in chemolithotrophic respiration Organic compounds. 2) During methanogenesis pathway which of these can be used as an electron acceptor. Carbon dioxide is used and for acetogenesis. 3) what is the source of electrons for oxygenic photosynthesis. water yields O2 as a product anoxygenic photosynthesis uses other sources of reduced chemicals for electrons. 4) what are the function of carotenoids : act as photoprotects in photosyntheic. Chlorophyll and bacteriochlorophyll absorb light energy. Phycobilins are found in some photosynthetic bacteria and assist in light harvesting. 5) What is the function of the calvin cycle Carbon dioxide fixation in photosynthetic organisms Lecture 9 1) Semi Solid growth media are made by adding agar at what concentration? 1.5% 2) Differential indicates whether specific biochemical pathways occur during growth of a microorganism 3) Selective contains substances that selectively inhibit the growth of one organism while allowing the growth of others 4) Growth media that select for desired of a desired microbial population while being counterselective for other microbes is known as an enrichment culture. 5) An anaerobic glove box is designed to exclude what from the interior atmosphere? oxygen Lecture 10 1) What is the name of the cell division point Septum 2) Autolysins are enzymes that cut holes in peptidoglycan to allow for growth 3) What is the name of the protein forming the ring FtsZ 4) The antibiotic bacitracin inhibits the function of bactoprenol thereby preventing peptidoglycan synthesis. 5) Light scattering or cloudiness turbidity Lecture 11 1) Exponential growth of a microbial batch culture can be plotted on this type of graph to show linear increase over time Semi Log 2) Order Lag, exponential, stationary, death 3) Reasons for onset of stationary phase Nutrient limitation, accumulation of waste 4) Growth rate dilution rate of incoming fresh medium Growth yield concentration of nutrients in the incoming fresh medium 5) in chemostat culture during steady state region of the dilution rate is increased, bacterial concentration is unchanged. Lecture 12 1) Minimal , optimum, maximal temperature are known as the cardinal temperatures 2) Which category would cold dwelling microbes be found psychrophile then mesophile, thermophile, hyperthermophile 3) Which of these would be used to validate the correct operation of an autoclave detect killing of of bacterial spores 4) SHORT ANSWER 1) What is syntrophy ? Cross feeding, one species lives off of feeding off another species. [syn means together, trophy means nourishment] 2) What actions did semmelweis take to prevent transmission of blood infections to patients in birthing clinics? Observed that births assisted by midwives had lower sepsis rates than births assisted by physicians (who also performed autopsies on infected patients. His hypothesis was that dirty unsanitary measures lead to spread of infection. instituted handwashing and disinfectant use. Infection rates were greatly reduced. Lister was the one that realized to use phenol on surgical sites instruments and dressings to lower infection rates 3) Give one type of carbon storage polymer used in cells Glycogen, PHB, polyphosphate, sulfur. 4) what does capillary tube essay experiment demonstrate. demonstrates chemotaxis (movement towards or away from chemicals due to attraction. 5) Describe the important function of fimbriae Fimbriae contain adhesins that help bacteria to attach. they can bind to specific saccharides and or proteins found on surface of host cells. responsible for specific recognition and tissue tropism. Pili function in adhesion and genetic exchange between bacterial cells. longer and less numerous than fimbriae. conjugative pili exchange dna from a donor to a recipient cell type 4 pili can be extended and retracted fcn in adhesion to host cell. responsible for twitching motility How are autolysins involved in the growth of peptidoglycan ? The autolysins are enzymes that cut peptidoglycan to create holes which are filled by adding peptidoglycan precursors delivered by bactoprenol (carrier molecule) Describe what an Slayer is. Slayers are paracrystalline array of proteins that surround and protect the cell in archaea. It is always the outermost layer How is immersion oil beneficial to microscopy ? Immersion oil increases the amount of light passing through a specimen. fills the space between the lens and specimen. how are membranes in archaea different from membranes in other bacteria? Archaea has multiple other things including pseudomurein (pseudopeptidoglycan), slayers, glycan. bacteria has Peptidoglycan. bacteria has ester bonds archaea has ether bonds. Archea lipids can have bilayers or monolayers but bacteria only has lipid bilayer. LECTURE 13 1. UV Light is the most useful for disinfecting: Exposed surfaces Also important for disinfecting air, water Gamma rays are used to sterilize medical devices, foods, meat, pharmaceuticals. 2. A type of filter that removes 0.3 um Particles at 99.97 efficiency is known as a HEPA filter A type of depth filter the other type of filter is a membrane filter used for sterilization have uniform pore size; made of cellulose acetate, nitrocellulose, or poly sulfone. 3. order these according to their resistance to antimicrobial agent most resistant to least Bacterial spores myobacteria nonenveloped or small viruses fungi vegetative bacteria enveloped viruses 4. Which of these antimicrobial agents is most appropriate for use in food preparation industrial facilities. Sanitizers Antiseptics wound or surgical sites disinfectants hospital, medical, homes sterilizers hospital lab equipment and instruments that are heat sensitive 5. one would use a tube dilution assay in order to measure MIC could also use disk agar diffusion method. LECTURE 14 1. Pyrosequencing method of DNA sequencing detects what type of signal when a correct DNA Base is inserted. Light 1st generation is sanger dideoxy method results seperated by gel electrophoresis also usually preceded by shotgun sequencing (cloning the fragments into plasmids) 2nd generation pyrosequencing 3rd and 4th generation sequencing allowed detection single molecule reactions 2. a regions of protein that encodes DNA is known as an ORF (open reading frame) identified by a combination of start and stop codons, ribosome binding sites and codon usage statistics. 3. what are DNA microarrays used for measuring mRNA levels in a cell. made of many dots, each containing different oligonucleotides that will specifically base pair with each possible mRNA from a sequenced genome 4. transformation transduction and conjugation are 3 methods of ____ Gene transfer Horizontal horizontal gene transfer is the noninherited transfer of genes from one cell to another. Vertical gene transfer is the inherited genes passed to new cells as a result of cell division. 5. by comparing sequences of a pathogenic bacterium and a closely related non pathogenic bacterium, researches can find clusters of genes in the pathogen. These clusters are known as Pathogenicity islands only the pathogen strains have the clusters (Comparative genome) LECTURE 15 1. Most regulatory repressor proteins bind to a DNA sequence known as an Inverted Repeat In transcription the dimer (repressor proteins) bind to short DNA sequences known as inverted repeats. 2. In regulation of the arginine operon in E. coli arginine is known as the corepressor arginine binds to the repressor protein in negative control of transcription and blocks transcription. If absent transcription proceeds. 3. The lac repressor binds to what regulatory element of the lac operon the operator repressor binds to the operator and blocks transcription. The inducer binds to the repressor and allows transcription to proceed 4. The promoters of positively controlled operons require activator proteins because RNA polymerase binds to the promoter weakly Activator protein binds to the inducer (maltose in E.coli) and genes for maltose utilization are transcribed. Inducer kind of pushes the maltose activator protein into the polymerase 5. Regulation of an enzyme's activity takes place at the post transcriptional level. LECTURE 16 1. Which of these viruses has a segmented RNA genome? Influenza has an envelope 2. The number of infectious plaque forming units per volume of fluid is known as the phage Titer 3. Some viruses are surrounded by a hostderived membrane called an envelope contains proteins from host cell, Assist in viral entry of new host cell or in leaving infected cell 4. What is the name of this step in virus replication where the genome enters the capsid in an ATP dependent reaction. Packaging DNA is guided into the phage head during lysis of host cell at end of replication 5. In addition to RNA genome, most retrovirus nucleocapsids also contain Enzymes They contain the enzyme reverse transcriptase. lecture 17 1. A ______ Is a strain of an organism isolated from nature. Wildtype 2. What Type of mutation is AAG (lysine) to TAG (stop) Nonsense mutation Missense faulty protein Silent normal protein Frameshift frame is deleted 3. Chemicals that bind DNA bases and increase mutation rates are known as interchelating agents. This is a chemical mutagen. Nucleotide base analogs: Resemble DNA bases. 4. Ames Test is used to Detect if a chemical can cause mutations able to detect reversions 5. In the E.coli SOS DNA repair system, what activates the RecA protein DNA damage LECTURE 18 1. A plasmid that encodes proteins that will transfer a copy of the plasmid into the recipient cell is known as a conjugative plasmid used in conjugation which is horizontal gene transfer using proteins encoded by a plasmid. 2. What DNA is transferred from an Hfr donor cell to an F recipient cell? Part of the plasmid DNA and a segment of the chromosomal DNA the entire F plasmid is transferred from the F+ cell to the F cell 3. Researches can use Restriction enzymes to cut double stranded DNA at specific sequences 4. Increasing the number of copies of a specific DNA region by using PCR is known as Amplifcation PCR is a method used to generate specific small fragments before cloning 5. What type of plasmid is used for obtaining maximal yields of a protein product of a cloned gene? Expression plasmid Other is shuttle vectors and can be used in multiple organisms LECTURE 19 1. The great oxidation event began because of an increase in the earth's population of oxygenic photosynthetic bacteria 2. The ability of an organism to grow reproduce, and contribute its genetic information to future generations is known as fitness 3. Match genome All genes shared between two or more organisms core genome all genes that are unique to an organism pan genome 4. Select a method of taxonomic analysis that uses restriction enzyme fragments of 16S rRNA Ribotyping Multilocus fatty methyl ester and whole genome do not use 16 s molecular sequencing uses 16s LECTURE 20 1. The term extremophile is used to describe an organism that Lives under conditions of high or low temperatures, pH or high salt thermoplasmas are pleomorphic. methanogens produce methane. phototrophs use bacteriorhodopsin. nanoarchaeum has the reduced genome size. 2. Bacteriorhodopsin is used by some archaea for generating energy some halophilic archaea are phototrophs 3. Nanoarchaeum equitans is an example of a microbe that has a reduced genome size that is missing genes for synthesis of amino acids, nucleotides and others, what is the reason? Nanoarchaeum lives as a parasite that is attached to another large host cell, so it obtains nutrients from its host cell rather than synthesizing them 4. Protein folding into a more heat stable conformation is facilitated by other proteins known as chaperonins 5. Terrestrial solfatara habitats are extremely acidic mostly due to the microbial metabolic oxidation of sulfur this is where crenarchaeota live above 100 deg and below pH values of 1 LECTURE 21 1. Pyruvate is imported into hydrogenosomes and CO2, H2, acetate and _____ are exported ATP oxidation of pyruvate. hydrogenosome lack TCA cycle that MTC has 2. The tstse flies infest 10 million square km and affect 38 countries mostly in africa where it is known as nagana. Euglenozoans, trypanosoma brucei. called african sleeping sickness in humans 3. Select a pathogen that is usually transmitted human to human through fecal contaminated water. Giardia Trichromas is an STD. Euglena can be lost in the dark, has flagella in aquatic Paramedium is ciliated and moves in its aquatic habitat feeding on bacteria. 4. A fungal infection of the skin surface would be called a cutaneous mycosis. 5. Fungi contain cell walls of poly n acetyl glucosamine AKA chitin LECTURE 22 1. For performing microscopy to observe live vs. dead bacterial cells you would use viability stain 2. news story community samplin because they use the 16s rRNA method and compare with sequences. Environmental genomics use high sequencing methods to obtain DNA genomes of all community members 3. Which microbe has the highest richness in graph bacteria because it has the most different microbial species 4. Using the same technology as DNA microarrays, phylochip can be produced that measure different phylotypes in a microbial community. 5. When performing a microbial ecology study using the community sampling approach, the first step is always PCR amplification. False. The first step is to extract total community DNA. LECTURE 23 1. Populations and guilds of microorganisms live in microenvironments where nutrients, antagonism, pH, temperature, and other conditions form a niche 2. When a fungus excretes an antibiotic into surrounding soil that prevents growth of nearby bacteria, this is known as antagonism 3. Biofilms contain microbes that attach to surfaces using polysaccharides, but sometimes also use proteins and DNA 4. Multilayered biofilm communities such as the one in this photo are known as microbial mats. 5. During summer thermal stratification of freshwater lakes, highest levels of hydrogen sulfide are found in the hypolimnion. LECTURE 27 1) Which of these is produced in the mouth inhibiting the growth of bacteria? Lysozyme Dextransucrase changes sucrose to fructose in biofilm glycosidase activities assist in digestion of food in the LI that cant normally be metabolized urease 2) In oral biofilms, dextran is polymerized into longer molecules by addition of glucose To the growing chain. That glucose is originized from the sucrose that is in the diet. 3) Starting with a dental cleaning, put these stages of gingivitis in the correct order. 1) colonization 2) plaque 3) tartar begins as a layer of glyco protein on surface of clean tooth. Attachment and colonization by several bacteria, continued growth to plaque, plaque becomes calcified into tartar 4) The process of microbial pathogenesis is initiated by _____ of a host to a pathogen Tissue damage colonization exposure infection growth of pathogen at an anatomical site Adherence attachment of microorganism to tissue surfaces and cells
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