Hannan El-Mayas Microbiology 2300 Test 3
Hannan El-Mayas Microbiology 2300 Test 3 BIOL 2300
Popular in MICROBIOLOGY & PUBLIC HEALTH
verified elite notetaker
Popular in Biology
verified elite notetaker
verified elite notetaker
verified elite notetaker
verified elite notetaker
verified elite notetaker
verified elite notetaker
This 14 page Study Guide was uploaded by Mickell Harris on Monday April 4, 2016. The Study Guide belongs to BIOL 2300 at Georgia State University taught by Hanan Lea El-Mayas (P) in Fall 2015. Since its upload, it has received 196 views. For similar materials see MICROBIOLOGY & PUBLIC HEALTH in Biology at Georgia State University.
Reviews for Hannan El-Mayas Microbiology 2300 Test 3
Amazing. Wouldn't have passed this test without these notes. Hoping this notetaker will be around for the final!
Report this Material
What is Karma?
Karma is the currency of StudySoup.
You can buy or earn more Karma at anytime and redeem it for class notes, study guides, flashcards, and more!
Date Created: 04/04/16
Please study also the notes, diagrams that were drawn during class and study correspondent material in your book. They are as important as the study guide !! Immunization Explain how one could acquire the following types of immunity (look at the box in ppt slides) Natural/ active: natural exposure to antigens induces an immune response; immunity following an attack of measles. Natural /passive: transfer of antibodies or cells produced by others; temporary immunity from antibodies of the mother transferred to infant across the placenta or in milk. Artificial /active: deliberate exposure to antigen induces an immune response; immunization of children. Artificial/ passive: antibodies in immune serum are introduced into body; injection of rabies immune globulin after a dog bite. Define the following terms Immune serum globulin Vaccine: a preparation of a pathogen or its products used to induce active immunity. contain living attenuated or inactivated microorganisms, virus or their components used to induce long term active specific immunity either by antibodies production (as in Poliomyelitis) or cell mediated response (as in tuberculosis) Adjuvant: a substance that enhances the immune response to antigens Attenuated Herd immunity: develops when a critical portion of a population is immune to a disease, either through natural immunity or vaccination. Inability of infectious disease to spread in a population because of a lack of critical concentration of susceptible nonimmune hosts. Toxoid: inactivated bacterial toxins. E.g Tetanus pertussis and Diphteria toxoids Describe the major types of vaccines Attenuated wholeagent Inactivated wholeagent Subunit: These consist of key protein antigens or antigenic fragments of a pathogen. made of products or portions of an agent e.g.: acellular vaccines (e.g. against Pertussis) polysaccharide toxoid conjugate against Haemophilus influenzae type B(Meningitis) Recombimnant vaccine: These are subunit vaccines produced by genetically engineered microorganisms. An example is the vaccine against the hepatitis B virus; it is produced by yeast cells engineered to produce part of the viral protein coat. Acellular Compare attenuated vaccine versus inactivated vaccines (look at table in ppt ) Which type of vaccine promote the production of IgG, IgA and some cell mediated response? Immune response Compare IPV with OPV .(look at table in ppt. Which vaccine was used to increase herd immunity? Sabin vaccine Explain how can herd immunity protect sensitive individuals Who are the individuals in a community, who depend on herd immunity to fend themselves from an infectious disease? Match each vaccine with its type of vaccine Vaccine Type Influenza (killed virus) Attenuated virus HepatitisB (recombinant) Killed virus Chickenpox (attenuated) Recombinant BCG Acellular Pertussis (acellular) Toxoid Tetanus (toxoid) Attenuated bacteria Diphtheria (toxoid) Salk polio (killed virus) Sabin vaccine (attenuated virus) Rabies (killed virus) MMR (attenuated) Compare Oral Polio vaccine OPV with inactivated polio vaccine IPV (see table in ppt) The only approved adjuvant is a. ethanol. b. formalin.s c. alum. d. aluminum. e. c and d True/False about herd immunity only occurs in a population in which all individuals are immune. F occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune. T only provides protection to those that are already immune. F is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases. F occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune AND is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases True/False Active immunity develops only after a natural infection and not after vaccination. F Attenuated agents often give rise to a longlasting immunity. T Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots. T Recombinant vaccines and inactivated vaccines typically require several shots to be effective. T Alum is an adjuvant. T Since many childhood diseases such as mumps and measles are rare now within the US, why is it still important for children to be immunized against them? 1. There is always the likelihood that another country could import one of these illnesses into the US, sparking an outbreak of new infections, if we aren't all proeprly vaccinated. 2. By keeping the population vaccinaed, we keep incidence rates of these illnesses very low. This helps to protect people that cannot be vaccinated (young kids, preggos, immunocompromised people, and the eldery. 3. If we lose herd immunity by removing mandatory vaccination, our population will become susceptible to these illnesses again in a short period of time. Almost all of the antibodies found in a newborn are result of passive immunity./ Of maternal origin. For which childhood diseases is a subunit vaccine recommended? Pertussis Define adjuvant. A substance that enhances the immune response of antigens What type of vaccine requires the presence of adjuvant Which of the following is considered the most common adjuvant: Alum, Al, Aluminum Hydroxide Aluminum Currently A recombinant vaccine is used to protect against which two diseases? Hepatitis B and HPV List the three types of Toxoids that are used in vaccines 1. Tetanus 2. Diphtheria 3. Acellular pertussis Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with formalin. Attenuated agents may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals From the movie on Vaccine You are trying to convince parents to encourage them to immunize their children. List the advantages of immunization and the risk factors that parents may place their susceptible children if they do not immunize. Protect individuals and an entire community against pathogens which causes severals severe diseases Why in the early 90 parents became alerted and convinced that immunization may cause autism? How did this misconception was proved to be wrong? (list the countries and number of children that were test for correlation b/w autism and MMR 12 children / Andrew Wakefield MMR Experiment Finland 2000: 1.8 million children USA 2001: 10,000 Denmark: 537,000 Thimerosal Studies USA 140, 000 England 12, 000 Canada 27, 000 Whether the children were vaccinated or not, the rate of autism was the same, studiesafter studies shows. Autism began to develop in the womb between 10 to 24 weeks. Fetal origins What are the extremely rare situations1/10 when vaccine may turn harmful ? Severe Allergic reaction Explain Dravet syndrome and its link to vaccination. Dravet syndrome is a rare case of epilepsy. It is a severe form of epilepsy that begins in infancy and occurs in a previously normal and well baby and then the development slows down so that they have normal development and then between 1 to 2 years of age, it reaches the plateau. It is cause by mutation in a particular gene called SEN1A which impact key pathways in the brain. Most people with Dravet syndrome usually has intellectual problem. They’re usually field mutation and not mutations that are passed on from the child’s children. Is vaccination the main trigger for Dravet syndrome? If not what triggers this type of epilepsy? Yes Why parents and infant care takers must be re–immunized against pertussis in these present days. When you get the Tdap vaccine during pregnancy, you pass on some immunity to help protect your newborn from whooping cough before he’s old enough to get his own vaccine, the first of which he’ll get at when he’s 2 months old. And that’s important, since whooping cough is highly contagious and can be deadly for young babies, whose immune systems are still developing. A public health official was asked to speak about immunizations during a civic group luncheon. One parent asked if rubella was still a problem. In answering the question, the official cautioned women planning to have another child to have their present children immunized against rubella. Why did the official make this statement to the group? . Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. True False Rubella is passed very easily between children, so the official was trying to protect the child that would soon be born from this infection that might be brought in by its siblings after it was born. The official is getting kickbacks and bribes from the companies making the vaccines, and he's trying to pad his pockets by getting as many people immunized as possible, regardless of whether they need it or not. True False . . Rubella infections often lead to very serious and potentially fatal complications. While a woman is pregnant, she may not be able to take care of a sick child as easily. The vaccine will prevent the child already in the family from falling ill and potentially dying due to these possible complications. True false Host microbe interaction Define Microbiota or normal flora.. the group of microorganisms that colonizes the body surfaces but does not usually cause disease When do they establish in our body At birth: by exposure to mother’s normal microbiota Later on with exposure to food, water, and other humans List the specific sites where these microorganisms can be found nose, mouth, throat, skin, large intestine, vagina, urethra Why does P.acnes causing Acne occur during puberty and why acne disappear with time? Give one example of bacteria that are not found in vegetarians but do exist in non veterarians. List All the advantages that are provided by the normal flora to their host protection against potentially harmful microorganisms and development of the immune system. Excludes pathogens by covering binding sites that might otherwise be used for attachment, consuming available nutrients, and producing compounds that are toxic to other bacteria. Give specific examples for the above Lactobacillus species in the vagina normally suppress growth of the yeast Candida albicans. In hair follicles of the skin, Propionibacterium species degrade the lipids found in skin glands, releasing fatty acids that inhibit the growth of many pathogens. In the gastrointestinal tract, some strains of E. coli synthesize colicins, proteins toxic to other strains of bacteria. What are probiotics and why are they important for our health? Probiotics are live beneficial microbes. They're important to our health because they replace good bacteria that has been lost from taking antibiotics, treat diarrhea and other diseases, and are beneficial for brain function and cholesterol. Define the following: Pathogen: microorganisms (bacteria or virus) that are capable of causing a disease. Pathogenicity: ability of a microbe (bacteria or virus) to cause a disease Opportunistic pathogen give examples of opportunistic pathogens : cause a disease in immunosuppressed people or when introduced in an unusual location. Infection (provide an example): when a pathogen establishes and grow in host tissue. growth and multiplication of a parasitic organism or virus in or on the body of the host with or without the production of disease; ex. Urinary tract infections Escherichia coli, other Enterobacteriaceae, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa Disease (provide an example): impairment of body function. process resulting in tissue damage or alteration of function, producing body changes noticeable by physical examination or laboratory tests; ex. measles Primary infection (provide an example): the initial infection (pathogen cause a disease in a healthy person. initial infection; ex. various respiratory illnesses that damage the mucociliary escalator making a person more likely to develop pneumonia Secondary infection (provide an example): an additional infection that occurs as a result of the primary infection. Follows directly primary disease. an additional infection that occurs as a result of the primary infection; ex. pneumonia is the secondary infection to various respiratory illnesses Describe the course of an infectious disease including the following periods: Incubation periodthe time between introduction of a microbe to a susceptible host and onset of illness. Time between first exposure and the illness (infected but not yet experiencing the illnessstill contagious) pathogen specific for how long this lasts Period of illnessfollows the incubation period. Experiencing signs & symptoms. begins prodromal: nonspecific symptoms like headache/body aches, then begin to experience more specific signs / symptoms Convalescencethe stage of recuperation and recovery from the disease. the time when a person is recovering, still can be infectious Define the following Disease characteristics germs and give a specific example of disease Acute disease: are characterized by symptoms that develop quickly but last only a short time; an example is strep throat. Chronic disease: develop slowly and last for months or years; an example is tuberculosis. Localized diseasethe microbe is limited to a small area, the pathogen only infects one specific part of the body; an example is a boil caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Systemic diseasethe infectious agent is disseminated (spread) throughout the body, the pathogen spreads throughout the body causing more serious symptoms; an example is measles. Latent diseaseare disease that are never completely eliminated; the microbe continues to exist in host tissues, often within host cells, without causing any symptoms. The pathogen spreads throughout the body causing more serious symptoms Define the following Viremia: indicates that viral particles are circulating in the bloodstream. Bacteremia: indicates that bacteria are circulating in the bloodstream. Septicemia: Septicemia is a serious bloodstream infection. It’s also known as bacteremia, or blood poisoning. Septicemia occurs when a bacterial infection elsewhere in the body, such as in the lungs or skin, enters the bloodstream. This is dangerous because the bacteria and their toxins can be carried through the bloodstream to your entire body. Toxemia: indicates that toxins are circulating in the bloodstream. List all the virulence factors that are associated with the following steps of pathogenicity (the answer for these question are to be found in the chapter of host microbe interaction Adherence Non specific Glycocalyx: capsule/ slime layer: e.g. dental plaque results from capsules accumulation (glucan) in Strep. mutans. Specific Surface Protein: Intimin binds Enterohemorragic E.coli To epithelial cells of large intestine Adhesins on fimbriae: Allow enterotoxigenic E.coli to bind to specific glycoprotein receptors in epithelial cells of small intestine Colonization and hiding from the immune system give an example of a bacteria like Strptococcus group A may use during colonization . Quorum sensing: "sense" the density of cells within their population List three ways by which bacteria may avoid phagocytosis 1.prevent an encounter with phagocytes C5A peptidase: enzyme that degrades complement proteins → no signal for phagocyte to come membrane damaging toxins: kills the cell around the pathogen, try to lyce it 2.avoid recognition & attachment affect opsonins that signal phagocytes avoid opsonization capsule: surround the bacteria, inactivate all opsonins that attach to it M proteins: part of cell wall that acts like a capsule does bind complement protein & inactivates FC receptors: bind to the FC region of antibody and interferes with their function 3.survive within the phagocytes escape from the phagosome (capsule within the phagocyte), live in intracellular membrane prevent phagosomelysosome fusion: wont be broken apart survive within the phagolysosome List three ways by which bacteria may avoid or destroy antibodies Compare and contrast Endotoxin versus Exotoxins by using the following criteria: Type of molecule, type of cells (gram+ or gram ) that produce these toxins , stability in heat, type of toxicity vaccine availability. List the three outcome of toxicity that result from the endotoxin fever, pain, malase chock blood coagulation UTI, typhoid, menigococcal meningitis What is an AB toxin ? two subparts: A subunit toxic part (contains the enzyme that does the damage) B subunit binds to the surface of the target cell (tells you which cell the toxin will effect) Give two examples of AB neurotoxin , one of the enterotoxin, and one of the cytotoxins and the bacterial species that produce them. Explain the specific mode of action of each of the toxin you gave above and the disease that results from these toxins botulinum toxin: in chlostridium botulinium causes botulism → FLACID paralysis acts as motor neuron end plate to prevent release of acetylcholine from vesicles, resulting in a lack of stimulus to muscle fibers, irreversable relaxation of muscles Tetanospasmin: in clostridium tetani causes tetanus → SPASTIC paralysis tetanus toxin binds to interneuron to prevent release of glycine and relaxation of the muscle, result in lack of inhibitory signals to motor neurons, constant release of acetycholine to muscle fibers → irreversable contraction of muscles Which neurotransmitter is inhibited by botulinim toxin? Acetylcholine Which neurotransmitter is inhibited by tetanospasmin toxin? How does cholera toxin induce massive loss of water and electrolytes (up to 16 L/day) cholera toxin: binds to intestinal cells (enterocytesepithelial), triggers endocytosis of the toxin stimulates the overproduction of cAMP → watery diarrhea How does diphtheria toxin destroy heat, kidneys or CNS cells? produced by Corynebacteria diptherea blocks the protein synthesis and affects the nerve, heart and kidneys What are superantigens , give one example , explain how they trigger a cytokine storm and why do they cause shock. superantigens: induce excess stimulation of helper T cells, release large amount of cytokines which enter blood stream and cause fever, nausea, diarrhea, circulatory failure, shock (death) staph aureus strain: food poisoning and toxic shock syndrome strep. pyogenes: erythrogenic SPE scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome What is the difference between cytotoxic toxin and cytolytic toxin cytolytic toxin: disrupt the host cell membrane → leakage of cell content cytotoxic toxin: leads to cell death Give three examples of cytolytic toxins leukocidins alpha toxin, phospholipase: clostridium perfringens alpha toxin in staph aureus What type of toxin is released by Clostridium perfringens that leads to gas gangrene? Alphatoxin Phospholipase List all the invasive enzymes that are associated with Staph.aureus (See skin diseases associate with Staph. Aureus ) Exfoliatin found in S. aureus that cause scalded skin syndrome disease destroy ester bonds that keep skin cells together. Extracellular toxic enzymes that destroy cell membranes, fats (e.g. Lipase) hyaluronic acid ( hyaluronidase), collagen (collagenase), fibrins, DNA etc. List all the virulence factors which allow S.aureus to hide/destroy from the immune system (See skin diseases associate with Staph. Aureus ) 1. The neurotoxins produced by Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani are examples of virulence factors. 2. The necrotizing enzymes produced by Clostridium perfringens and Streptococcus pyogenes are examples of virulence factors. 3. coagulases are exoenzymes that cause clot formation. 4. enterotoxins are exoenzymes that dissolve clots. 5. kinases are produced by Clostridium difficle, Salmonella spp., Shigella spp., Vibrio cholerae, and certain serotypes of E. coli. 6. endotoxin is a virulence factor that is found in (and released from) the cell walls of Gramnegative bacteria. 7. The molecules on the surfaces of host cells that pathogens are able to recognize and attach to are known as receptors or integrins 8. Molecules on the surfaces of pathogens that are able to recognize and bind to molecules on the surfaces of host cells are known as ligands or adhesins 9. hyaluronidase is also known as "spreading factor." 10. leukocidins are toxins that destroy white blood cell . Matching Questions A. coagulases _____ 1. The neurotoxins produced by Clostridium B. enterotoxins botulinum and Clostridium tetani are examples of C. kinases virulence factors. D. necrotizing enzymes E. neurotoxins _____ 2. The necrotizing enzymes produced by Clostridium perfringens and Streptococcus pyogenes are examples of virulence factors. _____ 3. coagulases are exoenzymes that cause clot formation. _____ 4. enterotoxins are exoenzymes that dissolve clots. _____ 5. kinase are produced by Clostridium difficle, Salmonella spp., Shigella spp., Vibrio cholerae, and certain serotypes of E. coli. A. adhesins _____ 6. Endotoxin is a virulence factor that is found in B. endotoxin (and released from) the cell walls of Gram C. hyaluronidase negative bacteria. D. integrins E. leukocidins _____ 7. The molecules on the surfaces of host cells that pathogens are able to recognize and attach to are known as receptors or integrins. _____ 8. Molecules on the surfaces of pathogens that are able to recognize and bind to molecules on the surfaces of host cells are known as ligands or adhesins. _____ 9. hyaluronidase is also known as “spreading factor.” _____ 10. leukocidins are toxins that destroy white blood cell True/False Questions _____ 1. Bacterial capsules protect bacteria from being phagocytized by leukocytes. T _____ 2. A headache is a classic example of a sign of a disease. F; a headache is a symptom not a sign. _____ 3. In order to cause disease, all bacterial pathogens must first attach to some tissue in the body. F; some pathogens can cause disease without attaching to tissue. _____ 4. Rickettsias and chlamydias are examples of obligate intracellular pathogens. T _____ 5. Babesia spp., Ehrlichia spp., and Plasmodium spp. are examples of intraerythrocytic pathogens. F; Babesia spp. Are intraleukocytic pathogens. _____ 6. The exoenzyme that causes toxic shock syndrome is called erthyrogenic toxin. F; erthyrogenic toxin causes scarlet fever. _____ 7. The neurotoxins produced by Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani cause a spastic, rigid type of paralysis. F; botulinum causes a flaccid type of paralysis. _____ 8. Although most people use the terms "infection" and "infectious disease" synonymously, microbiologists define infection as colonization by a pathogen. T _____ 9. Avirulent strains do not cause disease. T _____ 10. It is thought that the waxes in the cell walls of Mycobacterium tuberculosis protect this pathogen from digestion within phagocytes. T How are microbes able to resist immunologic clearance? Give at least one example of each mechanism What are the two general types of exotoxins ? list examples of each type Name three routes by which exogenous pathogens can infect a person. List 5 examples that use each route. . microbe lacks the ability to cause disease (a) a. avirulent . establish microbial growth on a body surface (b) b. colonization . able to produce disease in a host with impaired defenses (c) c. opportunist . diseasecausing organism (d) d. pathogen e. virulence True/False The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts. T Infection always leads to disease. F A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health. T Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media (F) During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms. T The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal. F A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease. F High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed. ( T ) Only Grampositive bacteria produce exotoxins. F The normal habitat of Clostridium tetani is A. humans. B. animals. C. plants. D. soil and dust. Which of the following has been associated with the flesheating organism? A. H. lechter B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pyogenes Tetanus antitoxin is A. antibody against the bacteria. B. inactivated toxin. C. inactivated bacteria. D. antibody against the toxin. The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is alphatoxin. Effective treatment of gas gangrene primarily involves surgical removal of dead and infected tissues. Skin and wound infections The normal habitat of Clostridium tetani is A. humans. B. animals. C. plants. D. soil and dust. Which of the following has been associated with the flesheating organism? A. H. lechter B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pyogenes A localized collection of pus in a wound is termed a(n) A. leukocyte. B. dead tissue. C. granulation mound. D. abscess. Factor(s) not found in abscesses is/are A. pus. B. dead leukocytes. C. tissue remnants. D. blood vessels. Tetanus prevents the release of neurotransmitters from A. muscle cells. B. excitatory neurons. C. inhibitory neurons. D. tetano cells. Tetanus antitoxin is A. antibody against the bacteria. B. inactivated toxin. C. inactivated bacteria. D. antibody against the toxin. The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is A. tetanospasmin. B. exoenzyme S. C. alphatoxin phospholipase phospholipase D. endoenzyme T. Effective treatment of gas gangrene primarily involves A. use of an antitoxin. B. use of immune globulins. C. vaccination with inactivated toxin. D. surgical removal of dead and infected tissues. Which of the following produces a greenish pigment that may appear in infected wounds? A. E. coli B. S. aureus C. S. pyogenes D. P. aeruginosa Diphtheroids are part of the normal flora of the skin. . B. are responsible for body odor. C. include P. acnes. D. include Malassezia spp. E. are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes. . Which of the following normal skin flora is a small yeast? A. staphylococci B. diphtheroids C. Candida spp. D. Malassezia spp. . The growth of P. acnes within hair follicles, in many individuals, leads to acne The principal species of Staphylococcus found on the skin is epidermidis . The member of the normal flora sometimes considered responsible for tinea versicolor is Malassezia spp. . Which is deemed the most serious staphylococcal skin infection? Carbuncles . The protein produced by S. aureus that interferes with opsonization by IgG is ______________ . The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the Nasal chamber t. . . .
Are you sure you want to buy this material for
You're already Subscribed!
Looks like you've already subscribed to StudySoup, you won't need to purchase another subscription to get this material. To access this material simply click 'View Full Document'