GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY MICRO 305
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This 11 page Class Notes was uploaded by Korey Walsh on Saturday September 26, 2015. The Class Notes belongs to MICRO 305 at Clemson University taught by Calvin Schoulties in Fall. Since its upload, it has received 60 views. For similar materials see /class/214214/micro-305-clemson-university in Microbiology at Clemson University.
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Date Created: 09/26/15
MICRO STUDY GUIDE UNIT4 1A Know that the skin and mucous membranes provide a physical barrier to harmful microbes 1B Know that the microbes on skin are typically Grampositive and that they reside in moister areas 1C Know that these microbes can out compete harmful microbes 1D Know that the skin secretes antimicrobial compounds such as psoriasin 2A What genera of bacteria predominate in dental plaque and tooth decay streptococcus 2B How are biofilms important to both dental plaque and tooth decay they cause it 3A Describe the pH transitions in the gastrointestinal GI tract pH 2 in the stomach pH 45 in the small intestines pH 7 in the large intestine 3B Where are the most microbes in the GI tract large intestine 3C What are benefits of intestinal microbes relative to vitamins intestinal microbes synthesize thiamine riboflavin pyridoxine B12 and K 4A How does the lower respiratory tract clear itself of bacteria so that it stays bacteriafree most of the time we have mucousy ciliated epithelial cells that wave the bacteria up into the saliva the lysozyme can usually destroy their cell walls or they can be swallowed 4B Where do these bacteria go in 3A once they are cleared stomach 4C What kills them in 4B stomach acid 5A Know what the terms pathogenesis and virulence mean pathogenesis the ability of a microorganism to cause disease virulence the relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease and can be expressed as quantitative measure 5B Be able to distinguish between a localized and systemic infection Some pathogens remain where they have invaded in a localized infection while other pathogens may enter the lymphatic and blood systems and invade lymph nodes liver spleen and other organs in a systemic infection 5C Know what the LDSO is relative to a pathogen The virulence of a pathogen can be measured experimentally by the LD50 lethal dose50 the dose of an agent that kills 50 of the animals in a test group 5D Know why the LDSO of Streptococcus pneumoniae is so low and why it takes so few cells to kill a mouse the polysaccharide capsule of S pneumoniae prevents it from being engulfed and destroyed by phagocytic cells 5E Know what attenuation is as it relates to virulence For example would an attenuated virus have a higher or lower LDSO than a nonattenuated virus attenuation When pathogens are kept in laboratory cultures until their virulence is decreased or lost completely after repeated transfers the LDSO of an attenuated virus would be higher than a non attenuated virus 5F Name three broad classes of virulence factors bacterial structures enzymes and toxins 7A What is the name of the cell that generates all the cells of the immune system stem cells 7B Where are all cells of the immune system formed bone marrow 7C What are the two precursor cell lines Myeloid precursor cells which generate phagocytes and Lymphoid precursor cells which generate T and B lymphocytes 7D Which precursor gives rise to cells used mainly in the innate system of immunity myeloid cells 7E Which precursor gives rise to cells used exclusively in the adaptive immune system lymphoid cells 8A Know Leukocyte white blood cell is a general term for any nucleated white blood cell including monocytes lymphocytes and granulocytes the text refers to them as polymorphonuclear leukocytes and their derivatives Know Leukocytes are involved with both active innate immunity and adaptive immunity 8B What are the three types of granulocytespolymorphonuclear PMN leukocytes basophils eosinophils and neutrophils 8C What roles do basophils and neutrophils play basophils nonphagocytic release histamine prostaglandins serotonin and leukotrienes play role in development ofallergies and hypersensitivities neutrophils highly phagocytic migrate to sites of tissue damage kill ingested microbes with lytic enzymes and reactive oxygen metabolites 8D Are any PMNs antigen presenting cells APCs no 8E Which leukocytes are APCs Monocytes macrophages and dendritic cells 9A T cells lymphocytes originate and mature where originate in bone marrow but mature in Thymus 9B Where might you find T cells in your body thymus blood lymph or in secondary lymphoid tissue such as lymph nodes 9C B cells lymphocytes originate and mature where originate and mature in Bone marrow 9D B cells can be found where blood lymph and in secondary lymphoid tissue such as lymph nodes 9E B cells are a precursor to what kind of cells antibodyproducing plasma cells 10A What is the difference between blood and lymph Lymph is a fluid similar to blood that contains lymphocytes and proteins but lacks red blood cells 10B What are the primary lymphoid organs in the body bone marrow and thymus 10C What happens in primary lymphoid organs stem cells and precursors develop into antigenreactive lymphocytes 10D What are the secondary lymphoid organs in the body the lymph nodes MALT and spleen 10E What happens in secondary lymphoid organs and specifically what happens in MALT mature lymphocytes interact with antigens in Mucosalassociated lymphoid tissue MALT microbial antigens that originate from the gut and bronchial mucosa are intercepted and acted upon 11A At what circulatory structure do cells of the immune system circulate between blood and lymph capillary beds 11B By what process do cells of the immune system move from blood to lymph and vice versa and also into tissue extravasation 11C Red bloods cells are the most numerous cells in the blood Leukocytes comprise 01 of cells in blood So if you counted 1000 cells in blood how many of those cells would like be a leukocyte 1 12A What are PRMs and where are they located Pattern Recognition Molecules located on phagocytes 12B How many known PRMs are there 10 12C What are PAMPs and where are they located PathogenAssociated Molecular Patterns located on pathogens 12D Is the LPS layer ofGramnegative bacteria a PAMP or a PRM PAMP 12E What happens when a PRM recognizes a PAMP the recognition triggers a signal transduction that results in activation of the phagocyte to engulf and kill the microbe 13A Phagosomes are Lysosomes are Phagolysosomes are phagosomes are bacteriaprotists that have been engulfed by pseudopodia lysosomes are granules containing hydrolytic and digestive enzymes phagolysosomes are phagosomes merged with lysosome 13 B Describe the process of phagocytosis by stages from endocytosis to exocytosis the phagycyte39s PRM recognizes the pathogen s PAMP pseudopodia engulfthe pathogen and endocytosis occurs a phagosome is created then a phagolysosome the bacteria is digested by the lysosomes exocytosis 13C What are the two primary digesters killers of phagocytosized cells hydrolytic enzymes and reactive oxygen intermediates 13D Ifyou compared phagocytosis by a neutrophil to a macrophage what would the macrophage do differently with some of the digested pathogen the macrophage is also an antigenpresenting cell 14A Know Phagocytosis and inflammation are the two main components of active innate immunity both have cellular and chemical components phagocytosis by APCs is a bridge between active innate immunity and adaptive immunity and inflammation is also part of adaptive immunity 14B What are the five stages of inflammation redness heat pain swelling and altered function 14C Know Localized inflammation is the animal host39s way of attracting immune cells 14D What cell is the first responder Neutrophils 14E What cells do neutrophils recruit macrophages 15A Inflammation is typically localized What condition can result if inflammation goes system wide septic shock which can lead to serious illness and death 15B What is the leading cause of septic shock systemic infection by Salmonella or Escherichia coli often caused by a ruptured or leaking bowel that releases the Gmnegative bacteria into the intraperitoneal cavity or the bloodstream 15C What is the most noticeable outward symptom of septic shock high fever and loss of blood volume 17A What are the two forms of adaptive immunity 1 cellmediated immunity in virusinfected cancer cells 2 antibodymediated or humoral immunity against foreign invaders like bacteria 17B What are antigens Antigenic determinants antigens foreign nonself proteins and peptides with molecular weights greater than 10000 antigenic determinants regions on antigens made of clusters of 3D amino acids that illicit an immune response by antibodies 17C What are antibodies protein molecules that are able to combine with specific small regions on antigens called determinants 18a What are cytokines chemically what do they do broadly speaking and about how many of them are there in our bodies small molecular weight proteins or glycoproteins that are secreted by host leukocytes they regulate the developmentfunctionchemotactic responses of immune cells 100s 19A What are the two kinds of adaptive immunity cellmediated and antibodymediated 19B What is the difference between the two forms cellmediated acts on cells that have cancer or have been infected wviruses antibodymediated acts on the foreign invaders such as bacteria 19C What is the aim of each form both destroy specific foreign invaders 19D What are the three key features of adaptive immunity specificity memory tolerance 19E Know the content of slide 12 1 Specificity I Adaptive immunity is directed against one particular antigen of which there could be over a billion different specific different antigens that could be recognized by the animal human immune system 2 Memory In adaptive immunity the response to a second exposure of the antigen is so fast that that in the case where the antigen is a pathogen there is no noticeable pathogenesis and there is even stronger reaction than the first exposure which takes a few days to develop 3 Tolerance There is a discrimination between sefand nonself by the immune system with the response almost always made only to nonself 20A What structural component does a degraded antigen react with on a Tcell Tcell receptors TCRs 20B How many amino acids does the degraded antigen have and what is it shape 20 linear 20C Where are TCRs located on a Tcell they span across the membrane extending from the Tlymphocyte cell surfaces into the immediate environment 20D In which two kind of cells is the antigen degraded antigenpresenting cells or target cells 20E What structural protein is on the surface of the two cells in 20D that holds or presents a degraded antigen Tcell receptors TCRs 21A MHC is an acronymn for what Major Histocompability Complex 21B How did the existence of MHC proteins come about in the 1960s and 70s MHC proteins were discovered in the modern use of cell tissue and organ transplantation where related or unrelated persons are matched to the self recognition markers on the recipient39s cells 21C On what cells are Class MHC proteins found on the membranes ofall types of nucleated body cellsthe antigen held on the MHC protein can then be presented to the appropriate Tlymphocyte receiver 21D On what cells are Class II MHC proteins found only on the surface of macrophages dentritic cells and B lymphocytesall of which are dedicated APCs to the appropriate Tlymphocyte receiver 21E What kind of pathogen is destroyed by cells that have Class MHC proteins viruses and cancer 21F What kind of pathogen is destroyed by cells that have Class II MHC proteins bacteria 22A The interaction ofa TC cell through its Tcell receptor with a nucleated body cell through its Class MHC protein receptor that holds the presented and degraded antigen results in what two outcomes 1 the TC cell kills the target cell 2 the Tc cell multiplies by clonal propagation 22B What kills the virusinfected cells canceraffected cells toxic granules wperforin 23A What are natural killer NK cells and what do they kill lymphocytes that destroy intracellular pathogens eg viruses and cancerous cells like TC cells by killing the infected canceraffected cell 23B Do NK cells require presented antigens on the Class MHC proteins no 23C What are the NK cells scanning for to kill target cells that lack MHCl or have deformed MHCl proteins 24A What kind of cells have Class II MHC proteins on their surface antigen presenting cells monocytes macrophages dendritic cells 24B What kind of pathogens are the cells typically destroying engulfed pathogens such as bacteria 24C What kind of Tcell is interacting here Thelper cell TH Cell 24D As soon as an interaction occurs a cytokine is released and what happens to the Thelper cell TH cells differentiatemultiply to TH 1 cells and TH 2 cells Th1 activates macrophages Th2 interacts w B cell 2B or not 2B 25A Tchells ctivate macrophages to do what to have them become highly phagocytic to all pathogens and to stimulate the inflammatory process 25B What form of adaptive immunity is 25A cellmediated 25C TH2 cells interact with Class II MHC proteins on B cells after they have digested antigens and presented them What 2 cells are formed after this interaction plasma cells and memory cells Which of these cells produces antibodies plasma cells 26 A Plasma cells first release mostly what class of antibodies in the primary antibody response IgM 26B How long do plasma cells live a week 26C How long do memory cells live years 26D What do memory cells remember the antigen and the appropriate antibody 26E What do memory cells differentiate into on a 2nd exposure plasma cells 26F What class of antibodies predominates in the 2nd exposure IgG 266 Which exposure the lSt or 2nd occurs more rapidly 2nd 27A Which immunoglobulin antibody is present in the highest concentration IgG 27B Which is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta Why is this crossing important IgG Gee mom important bc it39s a newborn baby39s only form of immunity 27C IgG has how many light smaller chains and how many heavy larger chains 2 heavy and 2 light 27D Know that there are 2 antigen holding areas on each molecule of IgG that the holding areas are in terminal regions of light and heavy chains and that these holding areas are variable relative to amino acid composition on the 2 chains 27E Could you identify an unmarked IgG molecule relative to the items noted in 27D on the exam H heavy chains L light chains 28A Which immunoglobulin g can be found in body fluids such as tears and salvia IgAl 28B Which g is produced in the highest amount after a primary exposure to an antigen After a secondary exposure gMIgG 28C Which g has the highest molecular weight IgM 28D Which g is involved in allergic reactions IgE 28E Which Igs are found in the blood all of them 29A Know that we can produce over a billion different antibodies and each would have a different specificity 29B Know that Bcells that are produced and mature in the bone marrow have a vast collection of variable regions created by somatic variation before any exposure to any antigen 29C Know that after the right B cell with the best fit for the antigen in its variable region is exposed to that antigen the B cell processes and presents it to a TH2 cell 29D The Bcell allows hypermutations to occur in the variable regions to make the fit more exacting in the variable region such that there is an exact 3D handinglove fit between the glove antibody and the hand antigen 30 Compare and contrast innate and adaptive immunity relative to I response time innate minutes adaptive days specificity innate specific for PAMPs adaptive VERY specific memory innate none adaptive persistent memory wfaster response time self nonselfdiscrimination innate perfect bc no PAMPs in host adaptive very good but sometimes autoimmune diseases 31A Be able to distinguish natural active immunity from natural passive immunity by examples that would define them active when you get the disease passive when it crosses the placenta or when you get milk 31B Which immunity is associated w IgG crossing the placenta natural passive 31C Be able to distinguish artificial active immunity from artificial passive immunity by examples that would define them active immunization by a vaccine causes an animal to produce antibodies passive antibodies are injected into an animal 31D Which immunity is immediate Active or passive passive 31E Which immunity takes 7 10 days to develop Active or passive active 31E Which immunity is long lasting Active or passive active 31F Which immunity is short lived Active or passive passive 316 Which immunity involves memory cells Active or passive active 32A Antibodies have two functions One is to bind to and the other is to activate antigens complement system for attack 32B What are complement proteins proteins with enzymatic activity that are activated seguentially by antigen antibody complexes on the bacterial cells to cause cell lysis and mark the cell for enhanced recognition by phagocytes 32C Where are complement proteins located in the body in the serum 32D Antibody specific to antigens on bacterial cells bind to the bacterial cells Complement proteins sequentially interact with the bound antibodies on the surface of the cell and form a lysis of the cell and can mark the cell for 33A What is I 39 39 the 39 of 39 39 because ofantibody or complement binding 33B Phagocytosis is enhanced how many times by specific antibody binding 10fold in the cell membrane which causes hole enhanced recognition by phagocytes 33C Phagocytosis is enhanced how many times by specific antibody binding and complement binding 100fold 34A The next slide 11 reviews how the immune system destroys foreign invaders from the perspective of what we have covered so far It is a good review E Phagocytic destruction of bacterial cells by the PRMPAMP recognition system in nonspecific innate immunity E Destruction of intercellular agents virusinfected canceraffected cells bchytotoxic cells in cellmediated immunity E Destruction of virusinfected canceraffected cells by natural killer cells in nonspecific innate immunity E Activation of macrophages to become highly phagocytic indirectly by cellmediated immunity E By classical complement fixation antibodies specific to antigens on bacterial cell walls and a cascade of complement proteins that form a hole in the bacterium39s cell membrane causing cell lysis E By I 39 39 the 39 of p39 g 39 because of antibody binding and or by complement fixation 34B How do specific antibodies make targeted toxins ineffective by neutralization Exotoxins can be inactivated by binding to a specific antibody that prevents entry into the cell or does not allow adhering to the cell 35A n immediate hypersensitivities allergens induce B cells to produce what kind of Ig instead of IgG IgE 35B What cell releases the chemicals that cause the symptoms of the allergy when IgE and the allergen combine mast cells 36 Poison ivy can cause a delayed dermatitis The oil in the plant combines with skin proteins to alter them so that they appear to the immune system A localized mediated immune reaction causes the itchiness rash and blisters foreigncell 37 What is an autoimmune disease when T and B lymphocytes are activated to produce immune reactions against selfproteins 38A What do superantigens do at the T cell level that initiates a massive inflammatory reaction that is different from the typical MHC T cell interaction Superantigens bind to a site on the V beta domain of the TCR that is outside the antigenspecific TCR binding site Because this outside binding site is common to many TCRs from 5 to 25 of all T cells are activated The superantigens also bind to MHC II molecules on APCs again at a specific site outside the normal binding site So huge numbers of cytokines are released causing a massive inflammatory reaction 38B What percent ofT cells are activated in a typical immune response What percent are activated in the presence of a superantigen 01 5 to 25 38C What chain of events does superantigen binding potentially release after it rains cytokines The cytokines stimulate macrophages and other phagocytes to produce massive systemic inflammatory reactions characterized by fever diarrhea vomiting mucus production and systemic shock 38D What bacteria is a superantigen producer Staphylococcus aureus 39A What is epidemiology Epidemiology is the study of the occurrence distribution and spread of diseases in populations 39B Who was John Snow the first epidemiologist 39C What was John Snow39s contribution to epidemiology discovered source of cholera by geographically mapping and clustering cholera cases 40 Know the meanings and significances of the following epidemiological terms 40A incidence the number of cases of the disease in the population 40B epidemic a disease in which the incidence is increasing and is unusually high in the population at a given time 40C endemic a disease in which the incidence is relatively constant and usually low in the population at a given time 40D pandemic worldwide epidemic 41 What is the difference in the two epidemiological terms morbidity and mortality Morbidity the number of new cases in a given time the number of individuals in population in that time Mortality number of deaths to a specific disease in a specified time size of the total population with that specific disease in a specified time 42A What is a reportable disease from an epidemiological perspective a disease that is required to be reported bc it is severe andor highly transmissible 42B What is a reservoir relative to a pathogen Pathogen reservoirs are sites in which infectious agents remain viable 42C What is a carrier Can a carrier be a reservoir A carrier is a pathogen infected individual showing no signs of clinical disease it CAN be a reservoir 42D What is a zoonotic disease one that primarily infects animals but is occasionally transmitted to humans where it also causes an infection 43A Distinguish between a direct hosttohost transmission and an indirect hosttohost transmission Direct hostto host transmission occurs when an infected host transmits a disease directly to a susceptible host without the assistance of an intermediate host vector or inanimate object Indirect transmission of an infectious agent must be facilitated by either living vectors or inanimate objects 43B Distinguish between a commonsource epidemic and a hosttohost epidemic and know the graphical features of both In commonsource epidemics the incidence of disease when plotted against time is characterized by a rapid rise to a peak because a large number of people become ill in a brief period of time and then drops somewhat more slowly In a hosttohost epidemic the disease incidence is show a relatively slow progressive rise and a gradual decline 44A What is meant by herd immunity The resistance of a group to infection due to immunity of a a high proportion of the members of the group 44B How is herd immunity applied to influenza if 9095 are immunized then the disease is absent 45A What is antigenic shift and antigenic drift relative to the influenza virus Mutations within a single strain can cause changes in H and N in a process called antigenic drift If an individual is infected with two different strains of the flu virus reassortment of H and N genes from the two different strains can occur This process is called antigenic shift and more ofa radical change than what occurs in antigenic drift 45B The 8 RNA segments in an influenza virion can be derived from what three animal sources human duck pig 45C The 2009 H1N1 influenza virus is a quadruple mix ofwhat two swine strains one human strain and one avian strain 45D Is this quadruple mix an example of an antigenic drift or shift shift 46A The incidence of AIDS is highest in what region of the world SubSaharan Africa 46B In the United States the death rate due to AIDS has slowed because of what kind of therapy antiretroviral 46C Where in the United States is the number of people with AIDS per 100000 population is the highest Know that the incidence of AIDS in this geographic area is over 10Xs the national average Washington DC 47A People living with AIDS who have health services available monitor and track what two entities CD4 Tcell counts and the amount of HIV RNA per mL 47B The HIV virus attacks mainly what cell of the immune system Thelper lymphocytes CD4T Cells 47C Know that destruction of the cell in 47B will cause problems with both cellmediated immunity and antibody immunity Therefore the infected and untreated will be susceptible to fungal protozoan bacterial and viral infections 48A What is a healthcareassociated infection HAI or nosocomial infection a local or systemic condition resulting from an infectious agent or its products that occurs during admission to a healthcare facility and that was not present on admission 48B Know that nearly 7 times more people die of nosocomial infections than die from AIDS in the US 48C Twothirds of the 99000 nosocomial deaths per year are caused by what two kinds of infections respiratory acquired pneumonia infections and blood stream infections 49 What are the underlying reasons that morbidity and mortality data for infectious diseases are higher in Africa than in the Americas not having financial resources for public health services antibiotics adequate food clean water and immunizations 50A What is an emerging disease A reemerging disease emerging new diseases that suddenly become prevalent reemerging when old39I diseases reemerge that once were believed to be controlled especially when antibiotics fail or public health systems fail 50B What two reasons is tuberculosis reemerging drug resistance and AIDS 50C Why did Lyme disease emerge Changing land use patterns comingling of growing human populations and growing deer populations in the same wooded areas has led to the emergence of Lyme disease caused by the bacterium Borefa burgdorferi transmitted by the deer tick 50D Relative to the 6 public health control methods if you immunize your dog against rabies other than your dog who are you protecting from a public health perspective the human population u Humanmumquot m w run04d Study Guide Questions Exam 3 1A What is the goal ofa municipal wastewater treatment facility to treat sewage and industrial wastes to reduce organic and inorganic constituents to treatment standards to reduce the BOD and to release treated waters to rivers 1B What is BOD Biochemical Oxygen Demand the amount of dissolved oxygen needed for microbial degradation of organic matter in a sample of water an indirect measure of contamination 1C What is an acceptable BOD value to be released into a stream or river per EPA regulations S or less BOD units 1D What is the approximate BOD value of sewage entering a municipal wastewater treatment facility 200 BOD units 2A Distinguish between primary and secondary treatments relative to physical and biological processes primary physical processes such as grates screens and clarifying tanks secondary aerobic and anaerobic microbial treatment 2B Oxic and anoxic environments are created in secondary treatments to oxidize and thereby reduce the amount of organic compounds that are present to what two gqses methane and carbon dioxide 2C What are two methods of treating waste water Aeration Basin Activated Sludge Process Method amp Trickling Filter Method 2D Which method relies on biofilms trickling filter method 2E What method of wastewater treatments do homeowners rely upon if they have no access to municipal treatment plants septic tank 3A What is the test to monitor the safety of drinking water coliform test 3B What does potable mean drinkable and deemed safe 3C What are the steps in drinking water treatment from start to finish Be able to recognize the order Sedimentation Coagulation Filtration Chlorination 3D Typhoid fever was once prevalent in this country What two procedures significantly lowered the cases of typhoid fever from near 10000 cases per year to near 100 cases per year in Philadelphia filtration and chlorination 4A What are two methods to determine coliform numbers in drinking water samples multipletube fermentation test and membrane filter procedure 4B The presence of coliforms in a drinking water sample indicates what fecal contamination 4C What bacteria are used in coliform tests E coli and fecal streptococci 4D What is the normal habitat of coliforms intestine 4E f coliforms died off before enteric pathogens would coliforms be a good test Yes No Why no 4F f coliforms kept on multiplying after the enteric pathogens died would they be good indicators of fecal contamination YesNo Why no SA What are common source diseases infectious diseases caused by microbial contamination of water or food that is being shared by a large number of individuals SB What are two sources of water borne disease outbreaks drinking water and recreational water SC Most water borne pathogens attack which bodily system Respiratory Circulatory Urogenital Gastrointestinal Nervous gastrointestinal SD What are three very serious diseases worldwide that are water borne Two are bacterial and one is protozoan Be able to associate the disease name with a specific pathogen name Entamoeba histolytica protozoan causes Amebic Dysentery Vibrio cholera bacteria causes Cholera Salmonella typhi bacteria causes Typhoid Fever SE What pathogen could be your biggest enemy on a camping trip if you drank water from a stream Is this pathogen a fungus protozoan virus or bacterium What should you do before you drink water from a stream giardia protozoan boil it or treat with chlorine or iodine SF What pathogen can be transmitted from an air conditioning aerosols What disease does it cause From its species name what bodily system is affected per the choices given in SC Legionsla pneumophila Legionnaires Disease respiratory 6A What is a virus an infectious sublightmicroscopic intracellular agent that is composed minimally of nucleic acid and protein and reproduces in living host cells only 6B What is the size range of viruses Sizewise how do they compare with bacteria What microscopes do you need to visualize viruses 002 to 03 microns bacteria are bigger need an electron microscope 6C Minimally a virus has what two components Many animal viruses have what additional component Do some viruses have enzymes within their protein coats minimally nucleic acid and protein animal viruses have envelopes yes lysozyme 6D Given that a virus genome may only code for 4 or S genes what does a virus steal from its host during viral replication the virus depends heavily on host cell structural and metabolic components 7A1 What is icoshederal symmetry sphericalshaped with roughly 20 faces 7A2 What is the relationship of protein subunits to the nucleic acid in a rodshaped virus like tobacco mosaic virus capsid 2130 protein capsomers in a helical arrangement and a single strand of RNA about 6400 nucleotides long is coiled within the capsid 7A3 What is the relationship of protein subunits to the nucleic acid in a spherical virus like human papilloma virus five or six capsomers arranged in an icosahedral shape protecting the RNA 7B Be familiar with the morphological features complexities of T4 bacteriophages bacterial viruses possess not only icosahedral heads but also helical tails 7C How do you determine the number of bacteriophage in 1 ml of solution that will infect Escherichia coli Note You also will do this in the lab count the number of plaques found in dilutions ofviruses plated on agar whost cells 7D How do you express the number of bacteriophages in a 1 ml sample as in 7C in plaqueforming units PFUs 8A What are the five stages ofa virus infection replication APSAR Attachment of virion to the cell Penetration of the virion or its nucleic acid Synthesis ofviral components by cell metabolism as redirected by the virus Assembly and packaging Release of virions from the cell 8B How many minutes does it take from infection to lysis with T4 bacteriophage on Ecoi 25 min 8C What kind of proteins are being produced by socalled early proteins in T4 By late proteins early enzymes needed for nucleic acid replication late structural proteins needed for virus coat 8D How does T4 avoid being chewed up by restriction endonucleases when it first enters the cell they chemically modify their DNA so restriction endonucleases cannot destroy the doublestranded DNA of the phage 8E What are restriction endonucleases they cut dsDNA and are restricted to specific nucleotide sequences Within a DNA molecule 9A Know and understand the following DNA in eukaryotes and prokaryotes is double stranded one strand is designated the other the strand has the information that characterizes a particular organism while the strand is a complimentary template for the strand messenger RNA mRNA is transcribed from the strand of DNA therefore mRNA has a plus sense mRNA is a ssRNA that is read on ribosomes and is translated into proteins 9B Know the three discerning or classifying elements of the Baltimore Classification Scheme for viruses 1 their nucleic acid type DNA or RNA 2 whether the nucleic acid is single or doubledstranded and if singlestranded whether the sense is or and 3 the steps taken to produce viral mRNA sense 9C What is mRNA with respect to viruses Is it a common feature to all 7 classes in the Baltimore Classification Scheme The infective viral strand of any of seven classes in the Baltimore Classification Scheme is mRNA 9D Know and understand the following Because viruses have a limited genome size and steal from cells that they infect they are not going to make ribosomes They use the cell s ribosomes Ribosomes read a mRNA to make proteins Viruses in the 7 Baltimore classes therefore have to make viral RNA ssRNA mRNA to use the cell s ribosomes to make viral proteins for takeover for protein coats etc 10A1 In the Baltimore Classification Scheme how does dsDNA Class 1 replicate their genome and produce mRNA active virus genome replication dsDNA to dsDNA active viral RNA starting with the dsDNA and using the sense strand of dsDNA to form mRNA 10A2 In the Baltimore Classification Scheme how does ssRNA Class 4 replicate their genome and produce mRNA active virus genome replication ssRNA to ssRNA to ssRNA Active viral RNA ssRNA mRNA 10A3 In the Baltimore Classification Scheme how does ssRNA Class 6 replicate their genome and produce mRNA active virus genome replication ssRNA to ssDNA to dsDNA to ssRNA active viral RNA ssRNA to ssDNA to dsDNA then using the sense strand of dsDNA to form mRNA 10A4 Know two representatives viruses ofGroup 1 that we have studied extensively Know the one representative ofGroup 6 that is continuously referenced and which has caused a major pandemic among humans in the past 25 years Group 1 T4 bacteriophage Group 6 HIV 10B What features of viruses are used in viral classification relative to the family level shape genome structure and strategy of making active viral mRNA 11 T4 is a phage because within 25 minutes after infection the E coli cell is lysed killed and phage particles are released and Lambda is a phage and can exist as a in the chromosome of E coli and multiply as such as the bacterium multiplies and then be induced to lyse the Ecoi cell and release phage particles virulent temperate prophage 12A What is a concatemer of DNA a long DNA molecule formed by endto end recombination of the genomic units of similar sequence 12B n T4 phage where is the concatemer cut such that the sequence of genes differs from phage to phage within the same infected cell yet all the phages in the same cell are genetically equivalent cut in such a way that they all have the same genes sufficient to fill a phage head
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