The definition of one-to-one is stated in two ways:x1, x2
Chapter 7, Problem 1E(choose chapter or problem)
The definition of one-to-one is stated in two ways:?x1, x2 ? X, if F(x1) = F(x2) then x1 = x2 and ?x1, x2 ? X, if F(x1)? F(x2) then x1 ? x2.Why are these two statements logically equivalent?
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