Let f(x) = tan x.(a) Show that there is no point c in the interval (0, )such that f(c) =

Chapter 4, Problem 15

(choose chapter or problem)

Let \(f(x)=\tan x\).

(a) Show that there is no point c in the interval \((0, \pi)\) such that \(f^{\prime}(c)=0\), even though

\(f(0)=f(\pi)=0\)


(b) Explain why the result in part (a) does not contradict Rolle's Theorem.

Equation Transcription:

Text Transcription:

f(x)=tan x

(0, pi)

f'(c)=0

f(0)=f(pi)=0

Unfortunately, we don't have that question answered yet. But you can get it answered in just 5 hours by Logging in or Becoming a subscriber.

Becoming a subscriber
Or look for another answer

×

Login

Login or Sign up for access to all of our study tools and educational content!

Forgot password?
Register Now

×

Register

Sign up for access to all content on our site!

Or login if you already have an account

×

Reset password

If you have an active account we’ll send you an e-mail for password recovery

Or login if you have your password back