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When f(x) has period 2n, why is its integral from -n to n the same as from 0 to 2n If

ISBN: 9780980232714 166

Solution for problem 10 Chapter 8.5

Introduction to Linear Algebra | 4th Edition

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Problem 10

When f(x) has period 2n, why is its integral from -n to n the same as from 0 to 2n? If f(x) is an odd function, fe-x) = - f(x), show that f027C f(x) dx is zero. Odd functions only have sine terms, even functions have cosines.

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Statistics for Business & Economics I. Chapter 1: Statistics, Data, & Statistical Thinking a. 1.1 The Science of Statistics i. Statistics is the science of data. It involves collecting, classifying, summarizing, organizing, and interpreting numerical and categorical information. ii. Professional statisticians...

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When f(x) has period 2n, why is its integral from -n to n the same as from 0 to 2n If

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